Self-propelled road surface milling machines class I
Study mode
Question of 276
1. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage not exceeding 1 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 5 [m],
b) not less than 3 [m],
c) not less than 2 [m].2. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 15 [m],
b) not less than 5 [m],
c) not less than 10 [m].3. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 10 [m],
b) not less than 15 [m],c) not less than 5 [m].4. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 10 [m],
b) not less than 15 [m],
c) not less than 20 [m]. Road surface milling machines Class I5. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 30 [m],
b) not less than 10 [m],c) not less than 15 [m].6. Can workstations be organized in the danger zone under overhead power lines?
a) no, never,b) yes, always,
c) yes, but only after meeting additional requirements.
7. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [V]?
a) not less than 30 [m],
b) not less than 3 [m],
c) not less than 5 [m].8. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV]?
a) not less than 5 [m],
b) not less than 15 [m],c) not less than 10 [m].9. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?
a) not less than 10 [m],
b) not less than 15 [m],c) not less than 30 [m].10. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?
a) not less than 10 [m],
b) not less than 15 [m],c) not less than 5 [m].11. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV]?
a) not less than 30 [m],
b) not less than 15 [m],
c) not less than 50 [m].12. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV]?
a) not less than 10 [m],
b) not less than 30 [m],c) not less than 15 [m].13. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]?
a) not less than 40 [m],
b) not less than 30 [m],
c) not less than 3 [m].14. Work in the danger zone (overhead high voltage power line):
a) may be carried out provided that the line is disconnected from voltage, the work is performed in an area limited by groundings and at least one grounding is visible from the work location,
b) may not be carried out under any circumstances under electric lines in the danger zone,c) may be carried out provided that permission from the work manager has been granted.15. The operator must perform work at a distance X from an active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [V]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 5 [m],
b) 2 [m],c) 1 [m].16. The operator must perform work at a distance X from an active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 3 [m],
b) 15 [m],
c) 5 [m].17. The operator must perform work at a distance X from an active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 15 [m],
b) 50 [m],
c) 5 [m].18. If the injured person has a detectable pulse but is not breathing, then:
a) chest compressions should be performed,b) he should not be touched,
c) the airways should be cleared and artificial respiration started.
19. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, it is essential to:
a) give medication to the injured,b) move away from the accident scene to call a doctor,
c) provide assistance to those in life-threatening situations.
20. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, it is essential to:
a) provide assistance to those in life-threatening situations,
b) ensure your own safety,
c) move away from the accident scene to call a doctor.21. The obligation to provide first aid to accident victims rests with:
a) everyone, as it is always possible to perform part of the rescue tasks,
b) only those who have medical training,c) everyone, but criminal liability always threatens for mistakes made.22. The accident victim regained consciousness after a few minutes and wants to go home. In this situation, one should:
a) allow her to go home, recommending a visit to the doctor,
b) persuade her to stay and call for medical help,
c) give her something to drink and painkillers.23. First aid in a situation where a foreign body has entered the eye of the injured person consists of:
a) rinsing the eye with eye drops,
b) rinsing with clean water directing the stream from the nose outward from the eye,
c) rinsing with distilled water directing the stream into the eye.24. The injured person cut their leg on an unsecured sharp element. Providing first aid in this situation is:
a) sticking a plaster directly on the wound,b) using a tourniquet,
c) applying sterile gauze, wrapping the wound with a bandage.
25. Suspecting spinal injury in a person who has fallen from a height and is conscious, one should:
a) seat her in a semi-reclining position,b) lay her in a stable side position,
c) not move her and wait for medical services to arrive.
26. To move away from the place where the electric wire was interrupted and the area is under voltage, one should:
a) run as quickly as possible to a place that we assess as safe,b) quickly step away from the source of electric shock with large steps, lifting feet high,
c) leave this place slowly, taking small steps, trying to maintain continuous contact of feet with the ground.
27. First aid in the case of a first-degree burn is:
a) applying greasy cream to the burned area,
b) pouring cold water on the burned area,
c) applying ointment to the burned area.28. During work, a high voltage power line was broken, as a result of which a colleague was electrocuted. In this situation, the correct behavior is:
a) turn off the power source as quickly as possible,
b) call other colleagues for help with the injured person,c) approach the injured person to provide first aid.29. We perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation until:
a) 10 minutes have passed,
b) we have determined that the victim has started to breathe and circulation has returned,
c) the fire brigade arrives and secures the area.30. Immediate action in the case of severe bleeding from an injured upper limb includes:
a) disinfecting the wound with salicylic alcohol,
b) applying a dressing, directly compressing the bleeding site and raising the limb,
c) lowering the limb below heart level.31. In case of a nosebleed, one should:
a) lean the bleeding person's head forward, pinch the nostrils,
b) tilt the head back and place a cold compress on the neck,c) lay the injured person on their back.32. The first step in dealing with a victim of carbon monoxide poisoning in a closed room is:
a) assess ABC,b) conduct a preliminary examination,
c) evacuate the injured person from the room as quickly as possible.
33. First aid during seizures caused by an epileptic attack consists of:
a) placing a wooden object in the injured person's mouth to prevent biting the tongue,
b) protecting the injured person's head from injuries,
c) seating the injured person in a semi-sitting position and giving them something to drink.34. In case of suspected cervical spine injury in a conscious person, one should:
a) place the injured person in a lateral position,b) seat the injured person in a chair with a high back,
c) not allow the injured person to move their head.
35. The most important thing when a person is buried under earth, sand, or gravel is:
a) locating the injured person,
b) waiting for the ambulance to arrive,c) notifying the family.36. First aid for a person with a metal rod embedded in their calf involves calling for help and:
a) securing the rod to prevent movement,
b) moving the rod to check if the artery has been damaged,c) removing the embedded rod.37. The indication for using an AED defibrillator is:
a) severe chest pain,b) severe dizziness,
c) absence of detectable breath and pulse in the injured person.
38. During the operation of a machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam, prohibited actions include:
a) changing the working tool,
b) making structural changes to the machine/technical device,
c) performing daily technical service (OTC).39. During the operation of a machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam, prohibited actions include:
a) cleaning the machine/technical device using a substance compliant with the operating and maintenance manual,b) refueling the machine/technical device from a canister,
c) cleaning the machine/technical device using gasoline or solvents whose vapors can create flammable/explosive gas mixtures with air.
40. The machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam may only be operated by:
a) any adult person with technical education and a driver's license of the appropriate category,b) a person with written confirmation of course completion in the form of a plastic card,
c) a person who has completed training and obtained a positive result on the test conducted by the commission appointed by the Łukasiewicz Research Network – Warsaw University of Technology.
41. The qualifications for operating machines/technical devices for which you are taking the exam are issued by:
a) Łukasiewicz Research Network - Warsaw Institute of Technology (SBŁ - WIT),
b) County Office appropriate for the address of the person applying for the qualifications,c) Office of Technical Inspection (UDT).42. The qualifications for operating machines/technical devices for which you are taking the exam:
a) are valid for 5 years from the date of issue,b) are valid for 10 years from the date of issue,
c) are valid indefinitely.
43. A person holding qualifications to operate: "Self-propelled road surface milling machines class I" may, based on them, operate:
a) self-propelled road surface milling machines and gasoline-powered road surface cutters,b) self-propelled road surface milling machines and road surface repair machines,
c) only self-propelled road surface milling machines.
44. An employee operating a machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam may start work provided that:
a) they have qualifications to operate this type of machine/technical device,
b) they have a valid category D driving license,c) the machine/technical device has a valid UDT inspection.45. In the event of a threat to life, health, property, or the environment caused by a malfunction of the machine/technical device, the operator:
a) immediately stops work and informs their supervisor of this fact,
b) continues working but makes an appropriate entry in the maintenance book at the end of the shift,c) continues working but informs their supervisor of the situation at the end of the shift.46. Lifting and transporting people using working equipment:
a) requires the consent of the construction manager,
b) is always prohibited,
c) is possible, but only outside the public road area.47. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam has the right to refuse to work when:
a) there is an overhead power line at a distance of 35 meters with a rated voltage of 110 [kV],
b) this work requires special psychophysical fitness, and his psychophysical state does not ensure its safe performance and poses a threat to others,
c) he has the required personal protective equipment.48. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is obliged to stop work when:
a) there is an overhead power line at a distance of 35 meters,b) he has the required personal protective equipment,
c) the work he is performing poses a direct threat to the health or life of others.
49. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is obliged to:
a) always have a category B driving license,
b) comply with the provisions of the operating and maintenance instructions for the machine/technical device,
c) independently perform all current repairs of the machine/technical device.50. The person directly responsible for the safe operation of the machine for which you are taking the exam is:
a) the owner of the machine,b) the construction manager,
c) the operator of the machine.
51. The operator's book and the qualifications for the machine/technical device you are taking the exam for are issued by:
a) Research Network Łukasiewicz - Warsaw Institute of Technology,
b) Transport Technical Supervision (TDT),c) Technical Supervision Office (UDT).52. The obligation to use personal protective equipment:
a) arises only from internal regulations,
b) arises from the operating and maintenance instructions as well as health and safety regulations,
c) does not apply on hot days.53. An employee who witnesses an accident at work:
a) is obliged to assist the victims, notify the supervisor, and if necessary secure the accident site,
b) it is enough to notify the supervisor,c) is obliged to assist the victims and then immediately leave the accident site.54. What elements of the machine you are taking the exam for protect the operator in case the machine tips over:
a) ROPS type machine cabin and safety belts,
b) machine seat,c) certified safety helmet and reflective vest.55. In the event of loss of stability by a machine equipped with a ROPS type cabin, the operator should:
a) maintain a seated position while holding firmly to the steering wheel or other stable elements in the cabin,
b) quickly turn left and raise the working equipment as high as possible,c) try to leave the cabin as quickly as possible (before the machine tips over).56. In the event of loss of stability by a machine equipped with a ROPS cabin, the operator should:
a) immediately jump out of the cabin,
b) remain in the cabin,
c) turn on the warning/hazard lights.57. The danger zone is defined as:
a) a place where workers must only wear safety helmets,
b) a place where there are threats to the health and life of people,
c) a place where work requiring specialized equipment takes place, and the presence of people is only allowed at night.58. The danger zone on a construction site:
a) is designated and/or fenced and marked in a way that prevents access to unauthorized persons,
b) is always designated by a surveyor,c) is designated after the construction work has started.59. The area that the operator should check and secure before starting work with a machine/technical device (because there are threats to the health and life of people) is called:
a) a high-risk zone,b) a blind spot,
c) a danger zone.
60. During the charging of batteries, a gas with highly explosive properties is released. This gas is:
a) hydrogen,
b) ethane,c) methane.61. Firefighting foam can be used to extinguish fires of group:
a) C and D,b) only C,
c) A and B.
62. Improper use of a snow extinguisher can result in:
a) burns from the extinguisher components,b) fainting,
c) frostbite caused by the extinguishing agent.
63. Water, fire blanket, powder extinguisher, carbon dioxide, sand are extinguishing agents that we will use to extinguish:
a) oils,b) liquids,
c) solids.
64. We can call sorbents:
a) materials made from natural or synthetic substances that absorb liquids,
b) fire blankets,c) petroleum-derived substances.65. Group A fires concern:
a) flammable gases,
b) solids whose normal combustion occurs with the formation of glowing coals, e.g., wood, paper, etc.,
c) flammable liquids.66. Group B fires concern:
a) metals, e.g. magnesium, sodium, potassium, aluminum, titanium, etc.,
b) liquids and solid materials that melt, e.g. plastics, fuels, oils, etc.,
c) flammable gases.67. Group C fires concern:
a) gases, e.g. methane, propane, acetylene, hydrogen,
b) solids,c) flammable liquids.
68. Seeing such a pictogram you are informed about:
a) the assembly point during evacuation,
b) a larger number of people in a given area,c) the danger zone.
69. While working you noticed a sign marked 'Zone 0'. It informs about:
a) a space where an explosive atmosphere exists,
b) the zone of existing fire load in the building,c) the zone of existing fire hazard category.
70. The presented pictogram informs about:
a) the main power switch,b) internal hydrant,
c) a set of fire protection equipment.
71. Seeing such a pictogram informs you about:
a) emergency exit,
b) assembly point during evacuation,c) first aid station.
72. Seeing such a pictogram informs you about:
a) high temperature affecting the extinguisher,
b) location of the extinguisher,
c) prohibition of using the extinguisher.73. You see a person whose clothing is on fire and who, in panic, is running away. Your reaction is:
a) you try to stop him, lay him down and start extinguishing,
b) you wave your arms or outer garment strongly next to him to extinguish the burning clothing,c) you tell him to wait in an upright position for the arrival of rescue services.74. Electrical devices and installations can be extinguished using:
a) water,
b) powder or snow extinguishers,
c) foam extinguishers.75. Burning fuel can be extinguished using:
a) water,b) low-octane ethylene,
c) powder, foam or snow extinguishers.
76. Burning clothing on a person can be extinguished using:
a) snow or powder extinguisher,b) plastic material,
c) water mist extinguisher or fire blanket.
77. What obligations does an employee have if they decide to refrain from work due to health and safety regulations?
a) There are no obligations in this situation,
b) They must immediately inform their supervisor,
c) They should organize work for others.78. How can an operator prevent hazards in the workplace?
a) By using personal protective equipment to minimize risk,
b) By ignoring health and safety rules,c) By not reporting faults in machines.79. It is not permissible to position a workplace directly under active overhead power lines or at a horizontal distance from the outermost conductors of less than:
a) for lines: 1 [kV] - 1 [m], 15 [kV] - 3 [m], 30 [kV] - 5 [m], 110 [kV] - 10 [m],
b) for lines: 1 [kV] - 3 [m], 15 [kV] - 5 [m], 30 [kV] - 10 [m], 110 [kV] - 15 [m], 400 [kV] - 30 [m],
c) for all voltages - 1 [m] from the power line.80. How does the operator know what personal protective equipment is required for a given machine/technical device?
a) The choice of personal protective equipment depends on the opinion of colleagues at work,
b) Information about necessary personal protective equipment is included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine,
c) The operator must independently choose the appropriate protective measures.81. The operator should refuse to perform the task when:
a) the work is being done at night,b) the work requires familiarization with the location of underground and above-ground utilities,
c) the work is inconsistent with the purpose of the machine/technical device.
82. The operator can prevent hazards while operating the machine/technical device by:
a) following health and safety rules and adhering to the operating instructions,
b) limiting the use of personal protective equipment,c) inattention and routine.83. The precautions that should be taken while operating the milling drum are:
a) working in gloves, without eye protection,
b) using the right tools and being cautious of sharp edges and moving parts,
c) working in loose, preferably unbuttoned clothing, so as not to restrict the operator's movements.84. Which of the situations listed is unacceptable during the use of the machine/technical device?
a) Reporting faults directly to the supervisor,
b) Unauthorized persons being in the danger zone caused by the operation of the machine/technical device,
c) Operating the machine without supervision.85. An accident at work is considered to be:
a) a sudden event, unrelated to the work being performed, caused by an external factor, resulting in injury or death,
b) a sudden event, related to the work being performed, caused by an external factor, resulting in injury or death,
c) a prolonged event, related to the work being performed, caused by an internal factor, resulting in equipment damage.86. A fatal accident at work is considered to be an accident in which death occurred:
a) within a period not exceeding 6 months from the date of the accident,
b) after a period exceeding 6 months from the date of the accident,c) only at the moment of the accident.87. When getting on and off the machine, it is prohibited to:
a) face the machine while getting on and off,
b) use the control lever as support,
c) intensively use the handrails and steps.88. Health and safety regulations require:
a) scrapping the old working machine within the time specified in its operating and maintenance manual, while complying with the requirements for the disposal of hazardous materials,
b) securing the working machine during breaks in its operation against accidental activation by unauthorized persons,
c) performing a warranty inspection of the working machine before the end of the year from its purchase.89. In the event of a person being electrocuted:
a) do not touch the injured person until the power source is disconnected,
b) immediately begin resuscitation, regardless of whether the power source has been disconnected,c) it is recommended to use any tools to disconnect the power, regardless of their actual purpose.90. Seeing a person whose clothes are on fire, the first thing to do is:
a) cut off the air supply by rolling the injured person or wrapping them in a fire blanket, wet clothing, or a wet blanket,
b) leave the injured person standing to facilitate air access and extinguish the flames faster,c) use a fire extinguisher, preferably a snow extinguisher, to extinguish the burning clothing, and then try to quickly remove the melted clothing.91. The rules and method of marking works carried out on public roads 'under traffic':
a) is determined solely by the decision of the construction manager, without the need to prepare an additional project,
b) defines the Temporary Traffic Organization Project, which presents the types and methods of placing road signs, traffic lights, sound signals, and traffic safety devices,
c) are defined by regulations concerning permanent road marking, which do not take into account temporary changes in traffic.92. When carrying out work in the road lane:
a) workers can work without personal protective equipment, provided the work is short-term,
b) one must familiarize themselves with the Safe Work Execution Instruction (IBWR) and use personal protective measures such as safety helmets, work shoes, and high-visibility protective clothing,
c) vehicles used in the works may be unmarked if they are visible up close.93. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is performed:
a) when the injured person is breathing but unconscious and unresponsive,b) only in cases of fainting and minor injuries to improve blood circulation,
c) when the injured person is not breathing and there is no detectable pulse. For a non-professional rescuer, the absence of breathing is a sufficient basis to start resuscitation.
94. An employee has the right to refrain from performing work due to health and safety regulations, notifying their supervisor immediately if:
a) working conditions pose an immediate threat to health or life,
b) the work they are performing has not been reported to the construction supervision,c) working conditions do not pose a threat but are too difficult for them.95. Physical factors generating hazards in the workplace are:
a) lack of appropriate medical examinations for the employee,
b) spilled lubricants, oils, and fuels,
c) lack of or inadequate training for employees.96. Working with a machine/technical device is not allowed when:
a) its repair was carried out after dark,b) the second operator did not report an upcoming inspection,
c) it is malfunctioning.
97. Working near overhead power lines:
a) is possible without meeting additional requirements provided that certain distances depending on the rated voltage of the line are maintained,
b) always requires the power in the line to be turned off,c) always requires double grounding of the line.98. The operator is obliged to refuse to work if:
a) there is no site manager or any other person authorized to supervise at the work site,
b) the machine is malfunctioning,
c) they would have to work under power lines, and the voltage in them has been turned off and the line grounded.99. The danger zone from a machine/technical device is:
a) a place where there are threats to the health or life of people,
b) a place where the machine/technical device cannot be used,c) always the entire fenced construction site.100. Which statement describing the basic health and safety principles related to the operation and handling of a milling drum is true:
a) "One must remember to properly set the side plates, rear and front scraper, and the prohibition of approaching the machine drum when the side plates are raised.",
b) "Working near the drum without any safeguards is only possible when necessary.",c) "Changing cutters by the operator without using specialized tools is only possible in exceptional situations.".101. Accidents at work can result from the poor technical condition of the working machine, for example:
a) injury to a limb, torso or head,
b) failure of the drive system,c) damage to the equipment.102. Unacceptable behaviors are:
a) performing daily maintenance of the machine after dark,b) working after dark in a well-lit place, with full concentration of the operator,
c) operating a faulty machine and working under the influence of alcohol.
103. The general rules for safely getting on and off the machine are:
a) a person should face the machine, remember the "three-point support" principle, and use only specially made steps and handrails,
b) it is permissible to step back from the machine, but only when the steps are slippery,c) using cables and levers as aids when getting on is allowed when the machine is turned off.104. The basic duties of an employee in terms of occupational health and safety are:
a) adhering to health and safety regulations and principles, taking care of the condition of machines and tools, and maintaining order in the workplace, using personal protective equipment,
b) not being late for work, finishing on time, confirming presence at work in the manner accepted by the employer,c) enforcing labor code regulations regarding their rights, including payment for overtime worked.105. In the case of a person electrocuted, after disconnecting the power source, one should:
a) move the injured person to another location as quickly as possible,b) leave the injured person if they have regained consciousness, without further actions,
c) check the condition of the injured person, and if necessary: call for help, clear the airways, perform resuscitation, and use an AED if available.
106. After extinguishing the flames on a person with burns and calling for help, one should:
a) use a snow extinguisher to cool the burn area,
b) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes, without tearing off the fused clothing,
c) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes, first tearing off the fused clothing.107. For optical marking of works carried out in the road lane, the following are used:
a) road cones in red or orange color, and after dark, cones with white reflective stripes and separators,
b) only traffic lights, flashing,c) road cones in any clearly visible color and uniform red obstacles set up at the work site.108. What markings should vehicles and machines used for work in the road lane have?
a) Vehicles should be equipped with yellow light signals visible from at least 150 m, and machines on the roadway should be marked with road barriers with reflective elements and warning lights,
b) Vehicles should use light signals of any color visible from a distance. Other machines do not need additional marking,c) Vehicles and machines should be marked only when working after dark. The method of marking is specified in the operating and maintenance instructions of the given machine.
109. Seeing such a pictogram, you are informed about:
a) a place where a first aid kit is available,
b) a place where an external automatic defibrillator is available,
c) a place for performing AED.110. Properly performed cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) consists of:
a) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 30-60 times per minute to a depth of 1–3 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 15 compressions (breaths are mandatory),b) connecting an external automatic defibrillator (AED) and following its instructions; CPR is not performed without AED,
c) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 100-120 times per minute to a depth of 5–6 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 30 compressions (breaths are not mandatory).
111. The abbreviation IBWR stands for:
a) Instruction for Non-Failure Execution of Works,b) Instruction for Non-Failure Execution of Works,
c) Instruction for Safe Execution of Works.
112. Expand the abbreviation IBWR:
a) Implementation of Non-Failure Execution of Works,
b) Instruction for Safe Execution of Works,
c) Information on Safe Execution of Works.113. The Instruction for Safe Execution of Construction Works is:
a) a plan of the route in construction works,b) a document confirming qualifications for operating machines and technical devices in earthworks, construction, and road works,
c) a document containing information regarding safety on the construction site.
114. The BIOZ plan means:
a) Health and Safety Plan,
b) Safety and Resource Specification Plan,c) Safe Health Protection Instruction Plan.115. A vehicle performing cleaning, repair, or modernization work on the road should send:
a) red flashing signals,
b) yellow flashing signals,
c) orange flashing signals.116. In order to direct traffic during work in the road lane, it is required to:
a) have a valid certificate of completion of a traffic management course and be visible from a sufficient distance,
b) have the qualifications to operate all machines working on the section to which traffic management applies,c) have the qualifications to operate at least one of the machines and appropriate personal protective equipment.117. Traffic safety devices used in road works conducted in the road lane can be colored:
a) white, green, blue,b) red, yellow-red, blue,
c) white, red, yellow, and black.
118. Traffic safety devices used to secure and mark the work site in the road lane should be visible:
a) only during the day,
b) during the day and at night,
c) only at night.119. Persons performing work in the area of 2-lane roads and highways should have:
a) class III high visibility clothing,
b) orange flashing lights,c) red warning clothing.120. The operator must wear a safety helmet while operating the machine when:
a) he often leans out of the cabin during work,b) he works on demolition tasks using long booms,
c) he works in a machine not equipped with a closed cabin.
121. Entering and exiting the machine should be done:
a) sideways, being careful of the instruments in the cabin,
b) facing the machine, maintaining three points of contact,
c) backwards to the machine, using a three-step ladder.122. One of the possible schemes for receiving milled material from a milling machine with a conveyor belt is:
a) storing the material inside the milling machine,b) processing, spreading, and compacting it immediately by the milling machine,
c) loading onto a means of transport.
123. The type of cutting of the surface that ensures more stable operation of the milling machine is:
a) concurrent cutting,b) parallel cutting,
c) counter cutting.
124. The cutters during the operation of the milling machine:
a) are cooled with water from the spraying system of the drum,
b) cool down through contact with the material of the milled surface,c) are cooled by air from external fans.125. The primary task of the spraying system of the cutting drum is:
a) to prevent the formation of a dust cloud and to cool the cutters,
b) to increase the rotational speed of the drum,c) to lubricate the drum.126. Typical methods of receiving milled material can be divided into:
a) technical reception and side reception,
b) behind the milling machine, onto a truck, next to the road,
c) undercutting and overcutting method.127. The method of concurrent cutting of the surface:
a) reduces the fuel consumption of the machine,
b) allows for more precise fragmentation of the cut material than in the counter-cutting method,
c) provides more stable operation of the machine than in the counter-cutting method.128. The internal cooling system in the milling drum:
a) is activated automatically, this always occurs after the work is completed,b) reduces the fuel consumption of the machine,
c) ensures the maintenance of the appropriate temperature during intensive work.
129. The spraying system helps maintain the efficiency of the mills in such a way that:
a) increases the adhesion of the mills to the surface,
b) washes out dust from sediment sockets, preventing the mills from becoming immobilized,
c) controls the humidity of the environment during the operation of the machine.130. Surface milling for road surface repair is used during:
a) repairs of surfaces with large structural cracks requiring subgrade reinforcement,b) complete removal of all surface layers to lay a new road structure,
c) damages such as surface slipperiness caused by polishing, deformations in the form of ruts, and cracking and chipping of the wearing course.
131. The "PTS" system in the road surface milling machine is designed to:
a) automatically change the type of milling tool used,
b) keep the milling machine in parallel guidance relative to the roadway,
c) enable quick movement of the milling machine over long distances.132. The application of the "MILL ASSIST" system in the road surface milling machine results in:
a) the ability to change the width of the drum during operation without stopping the machine,b) solely reducing the machine's handling time when milling at high speeds,
c) greater work efficiency and lower wear of milling elements.
133. It is possible to operate the machine with the cabin doors open:
a) only when the air temperature exceeds 25 [°C],b) always,
c) only if the operating and maintenance manual of the machine provides for such a possibility.
134. Leveling the wear layer consists of:
a) cutting holes in places of cracks and filling them with a new layer of mineral-asphalt mixture,
b) leveling the unevenness of the existing wear layer through corrective milling,
c) removing the top and subsequent layer of asphalt to lay a new surface.135. Roughening the wear layer consists of:
a) leveling the unevenness of the existing wear layer,
b) increasing the roughness of the surface by cutting grooves,
c) removing cracks from the surface.136. Profiling the wear layer, before covering it with a new bituminous layer, consists of:
a) increasing the adhesion of vehicle tires to the surface,b) removing contaminants from the surface, such as sand or mud,
c) leveling the existing surface, giving it appropriate transverse and longitudinal slopes.
137. Counter-cutting consists of:
a) rotating the cutting drum in the opposite direction to the direction of the milling machine's movement,
b) rotating the cutting drum in the same direction as the direction of the milling machine's movement,c) rotating the cutting drum at the same rotational speed as the milling machine's wheels.138. Counter-cutting is used:
a) when quick and less precise material removal is desired,b) when processing soft surfaces to reduce tool wear,
c) when processing hard surfaces requiring high-quality milling.
139. Counter-cutting is characterized by:
a) lower accuracy and stability of milling,
b) higher tool wear and greater power demand,
c) very limited ability to process soft surfaces.140. Counter-cutting, compared to concurrent cutting, is distinguished by:
a) the direction of rotation of the drum opposite to the direction of the milling machine's movement,
b) limited ability to process soft surfaces,c) lower quality of milling hard surfaces.141. The position "0" (zero) of the milling machine means:
a) the basic position in which the milling drum does not yet touch the surface,
b) the position in which the milling drum is in full contact with the surface,c) the position in which the milling machine is turned off.142. The precise setting of the so-called position "0" (zero) is important for the operation of the milling machine because:
a) it is crucial for the proper functioning of the automatic depth control system,
b) it ensures the appropriate working speed of the milling machine,c) it allows for even distribution of the removed material.143. Increasing the precision of milling, saving time and materials, and achieving a uniform surface can be achieved:
a) by using a dynamic model of simulating the vibrations of the milling drum without prior mapping of the surface,
b) by effectively utilizing automatic leveling and tilting systems of the machine,
c) only through manual control of process parameters during task execution.144. Profiling the wear layer is:
a) removing longitudinal irregularities, small ruts, and other minor surface deformations,
b) removing the bituminous surface to its full thickness to prepare the road for reconstruction,c) removing about 12 [mm] of the wear layer to increase roughness by creating a rough macrotexture of the surface.145. Mineral-asphalt mixture is:
a) a mixture of soil category 3 or 4, water, asphalt binder, and additives in appropriate proportions,b) a material resulting from mixing cement, aggregate, water, and possible admixtures and additives, which is still in a state allowing for compaction,
c) a mixture of fine and coarse aggregate, asphalt binder, filler, and additives in appropriate proportions.
146. The working area of the milling machine is limited by:
a) the width of the traffic lane on the road,
b) the width of the cutting drum,
c) the designated danger zone.147. Road milling machines can perform surface milling:
a) only cold,
b) cold or hot,
c) only hot.148. Which of the listed elements are not part of the hydraulic system:
a) hydraulic lock, hydraulic oil tank,
b) starter, alternator,
c) pump, distributor, actuator.149. The hydraulic lock in the machine is:
a) the closure of the hydraulic oil inlet at its tank,b) the valve responsible for controlling the entire hydraulic system,
c) the valve protecting against uncontrolled movement of the element located in a given line.
150. The change of hydraulic oil pressure into mechanical movement is the responsibility of:
a) the hydraulic pump system,
b) the hydraulic actuator and hydraulic motor,
c) the hydraulic distributor.151. The pressure in the hydraulic system is generated by:
a) hydraulic actuator,b) hydraulic motor,
c) hydraulic pump.
152. Directing the flow of hydraulic oil to individual systems is carried out by:
a) relief valve,b) hydraulic lock,
c) hydraulic distributor.
153. The safety valve protects the hydraulic system from:
a) excessive pressure increase,
b) overheating of hydraulic oil,c) air in the hydraulic system.154. The relief valve in the hydraulic system is responsible for:
a) maintaining a constant position of the working tool,b) venting the system,
c) limiting the maximum working pressure in a given circuit.
155. If the pressure in the hydraulic system increases excessively, the excess oil will be directed to:
a) distributor,b) hydraulic oil filter,
c) hydraulic oil tank.
156. The basic parameters that characterize an electric battery are:
a) rated voltage [V], capacity [Ah], starting current [A],
b) rated voltage [V], power [W], mass [kg],c) rated voltage [V], resistance [Ω], power [W].157. Lead-acid batteries can be charged:
a) in a place specifically designated for this purpose,
b) in any room,c) only in an air-conditioned room.158. In a working machine, the reduction gear is most often located:
a) in the drive system near the driving wheels,
b) in the hydraulic system, close to the main pump,c) in the operator's cabin, near the drive controller.159. The main function of the reduction gear (side gearbox) is:
a) to change the torque and transfer drive to the driving wheels,
b) to reduce fuel consumption,c) to increase the stability of the machine.160. The hydraulic distributor:
a) increases the torque in the side gearbox,b) converts mechanical energy into hydraulic energy,
c) directs the flow of hydraulic oil to the appropriate sections.
161. The hydraulic distributor is a technical device that:
a) distributes oil between the engine and the hydraulic system,
b) allows control of individual hydraulic sections of the machine,
c) distributes oil between the small circuit and the large circuit.162. The element of the hydrostatic drive system that converts the mechanical energy of the engine into hydraulic energy is:
a) hydraulic motor or hydraulic actuator,b) rotation column,
c) hydraulic oil pump.
163. The method of driving the milling drum using a hydraulic motor and planetary gearbox is:
a) hydrostatic drive,
b) belt drive,c) chain drive.164. The chain drive for the milling drum is used:
a) when a direct connection of the drive to the planetary gearbox is necessary,
b) in cases where a strong and durable connection of the drive is needed under heavy load conditions,
c) in cases where quick disassembly of the drum drive is required.165. The advantage of the hydrostatic wheel drive in a self-propelled milling machine for road surfaces is that:
a) it allows for stepless speed changes and optimal power distribution to individual wheels,
b) it allows for the adjustment of the support height of the milling machine body,c) it enables precise turning using hydraulic actuators.166. The hydraulic system that does not occur in self-propelled milling machines is:
a) conveyor drive system,b) cutting drum drive system,
c) steering assistance system.
167. The internal conveyor in the conveyor system of the milling machine:
a) regulates the rotational speed of the cutting drum,b) transports the excavated material directly to trucks,
c) receives the milled material from the cutting drum.
168. The turning mode used in crawler milling machines to enable movement in the so-called "dog walk" is:
a) all tracks turn in the same direction,
b) only the front tracks turn,c) only the rear tracks turn.169. The loading conveyor in the conveyor system serves to:
a) load the milled material onto trucks,
b) receive the milled material from the cutting drum,c) transfer the excavated material to the storage tank of the milling machine.170. Damage to the ROPS frame resulting in the need for replacement is:
a) discoloration of the paint caused by weather conditions and the passage of time,
b) cracking or bending of the structure,
c) minor surface scratches.171. Drilling additional holes in the ROPS cabin structure is prohibited because:
a) it reduces the weight of the machine,b) it lowers the comfort of the operator's work,
c) it causes a decrease in the strength of the structure.
172. The flow and direction of hydraulic fluid in the system are regulated by:
a) hydraulic motors,
b) hydraulic valves,
c) hydraulic pumps.173. Elements of the system, such as actuators and hydraulic motors, convert hydraulic energy into:
a) pressure in the tank,b) electrical energy,
c) mechanical energy.
174. The primary task of the hydraulic accumulator in the hydrostatic system is:
a) to evenly distribute oil to the system receivers,b) to regulate the temperature of the working fluid,
c) to store energy in the form of pressure of the working fluid.
175. In the hydrostatic system, the energy of the fluid pressure is transmitted to:
a) thermostatic, overflow, and check valves,b) oil coolers and pressure gauges,
c) hydraulic motors or hydraulic actuators.
176. The function of the FOPS protective structure is:
a) protection of the operator from the effects of exhaust fumes and noise,b) protection of the operator from the consequences of the machine overturning,
c) protection of the operator from falling objects.
177. The FOPS protective structure must be used when:
a) all earthworks,
b) works during which heavy elements may fall on the cabin (e.g. demolition works, in quarries, etc.),
c) underwater works.178. Optimal damping of shocks and vibrations of the operator's seat is ensured by:
a) as flexible a seat adjustment as possible,b) setting the seat rigidly,
c) adjusting the seat to the weight of the operator.
179. Mandatory equipment for the operator to observe the area directly behind the machine is:
a) external mirror,
b) sound signal when reversing,c) rear camera.180. A green flashing light placed on the machine's cabin signals, among other things:
a) the machine's ecological operating mode is activated,
b) the seat belts are properly fastened,
c) no operator in the cabin.181. In a parallel connection of two identical batteries, the voltage of such a system is:
a) the sum of the voltages of the individual batteries,
b) equal to the voltage of a single battery,
c) the product of the voltages of the individual batteries.182. In a series connection of two identical batteries, the voltage of such a system is:
a) equal to the voltage of a single battery,
b) the sum of the voltages of the individual batteries,
c) the product of the voltages of the individual batteries.183. Fuses in the electrical installation of a machine protect it from the effects of:
a) short circuits and overloads,
b) high temperature,c) low voltage.184. One of the elements of the electrical system protecting the motor from seizure is:
a) speed controller,
b) engine oil pressure sensor,
c) main fuse.185. Gel batteries that are part of the electrical system do not require:
a) replacement when the housing is damaged,
b) electrolyte replenishment,
c) charging with a rectifier.186. Electrical systems of machines and technical devices should be equipped with a device that causes emergency stop at least in the amount of:
a) one device causing emergency stop, in accordance with the European machinery directive,
b) three devices causing emergency stop, in accordance with the European machinery directive,c) two devices causing emergency stop placed on both sides of the machine, in accordance with the European machinery directive.187. The emergency stop device of the machine is a component of:
a) drive system,b) fuel system,
c) electrical system.
188. The main parameters of the internal combustion engine affecting work efficiency are:
a) torque, rotational speed,
b) type of carburetor, type of ignition system,c) compression ratio, displacement.189. The crank-piston system of the internal combustion engine is designed to:
a) ensure effective operation of the clutch,b) convert mechanical energy into hydraulic energy,
c) convert the reciprocating motion of the piston into the rotational motion of the crankshaft.
190. The lubrication system in the internal combustion engine:
a) is responsible for removing hazardous substances generated in the combustion process of the mixture,b) ensures regulation of rotational speed and reduces engine vibrations during operation,
c) is responsible for proper lubrication of the moving elements of the engine that work together.
191. The engine timing system is used for:
a) damping noise and minimizing engine vibrations during operation,b) ensuring the optimal composition of the fuel-oil-air mixture for combustion,
c) controlling the filling of the combustion chamber with air or the fuel-air mixture and controlling the emptying of this chamber of exhaust gases.
192. Systems present in internal combustion engines include, among others:
a) crankshaft-piston system, fuel supply system, cooling system,
b) hydraulic system, intake system,c) exhaust system, pneumatic system, closed system.193. The low-pressure part of the fuel supply system of a diesel engine is:
a) fuel tank and injectors,
b) fuel tank, supply pump, filters, fuel lines,
c) fuel lines, high-pressure pump, common rail.194. The element controlling the flow of coolant in the so-called "large circuit" is:
a) thermocouple,b) thermos,
c) thermostat.
195. An intercooler is:
a) a device for burning solid particles in exhaust gases,
b) an air cooler for turbocharged engines,
c) another name for the engine coolant radiator.196. DPF filter:
a) it is an accurate cabin filter protecting the operator during work in high dust conditions,
b) it is a dry particulate filter responsible for capturing soot from exhaust gases,
c) it serves to reduce NOx (nitrogen oxides) emissions.197. Frequency and scope of periodic maintenance of the machine/technical device you are taking the exam for:
a) are included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine,
b) are included in the IBWR documentation,c) is determined by the owner of the machine/technical device.198. The operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device is:
a) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device,
b) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by the health and safety services on the construction site,c) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device, which includes among others the IBWR.199. The operator of the machine/technical device you are taking the exam for is not allowed to:
a) make any repairs or maintenance,
b) use the machine/technical device contrary to its intended purpose,
c) during operation, check the technical condition of the machine/technical device.200. A symptom of too low a level of hydraulic oil may be:
a) loud operation of the starter,
b) "jerky" intermittent movement of hydraulic actuators,
c) uneven operation of the diesel engine.201. If the low engine oil pressure warning light comes on, the operator:
a) may continue to work if the hydraulic system is functioning properly,
b) should stop working and turn off the engine,
c) does not have to take any action.202. The operating and maintenance manual for the machine/technical device:
a) includes, among other things, information about hazards when operating the machine/technical device,
b) is prepared by the owner or user of the machine,c) is used to record information about faults.203. The CE Declaration of Conformity is a document:
a) issued by institutions that test machines for resistance to weather conditions,
b) in which the manufacturer confirms that their product meets all applicable EU requirements regarding safety, health protection, and environmental protection,
c) confirming that the product was manufactured in the countries of the European Union.204. Information regarding the use of personal protective equipment and ways to limit occupational risk can be found by the operator:
a) in the service book,
b) in the operating and maintenance manual for the machine/technical device,
c) in the CE Declaration of Conformity.205. The operating and maintenance manual for the machine/technical device:
a) is created by the construction manager based on information from the manufacturer,b) is created by institutions that conduct testing and accreditation of machine/technical device prototypes before allowing them for serial production,
c) is developed by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device or the entity that places the machine/technical device on the market.
206. Operating and maintenance instructions for the machine/technical device:
a) it does not matter where it is located, the most important thing is that the owner of the machine has it in case of resale of the machine,b) it should be in the office along with the company's documentation and be available in case of inspection,
c) it should be in the machine or near the device, treated as part of the machine/technical device and be available at any time.
207. Identification data of the machine/technical device:
a) should be noted on the inside of the protective helmet assigned to the given machine/technical device,b) due to their importance, they are always printed in red,
c) are located on the nameplate of the machine/technical device, and may additionally be in the marking places described in the instructions.
208. To minimize the risk of malfunction of the machine/technical device, the operator should:
a) perform maintenance activities only when the machine/technical device stops working,
b) regularly visually assess the condition of the machine/technical device and report any noticed irregularities,
c) use the machine/technical device until the failure becomes serious.209. Key activities for the safe technical operation of the machine are:
a) performing technical service without securing the working equipment to save time,
b) securing the equipment, covers, and doors against accidental closure and using personal protective equipment,
c) using latex gloves, without the need to use other personal protective equipment.210. Breaking in the machine during the initial period of operation is:
a) the process of achieving optimal clearances and even wear of parts,
b) an intensive full load test of the machine,c) a stage of the machine's operation without load.211. The operator uses the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine or technical device to:
a) record the hours worked and fuel consumption by the machine,b) record all faults of the machine or device noticed during operation,
c) understand the technical specifications, health and safety rules, and methods of repairing faults.
212. The operational part of the operating and maintenance instructions for the machine or technical device includes:
a) a detailed description of the construction and operation of all elements of the machine/device,b) a catalog of spare parts,
c) instructions regarding, among others, controlling the machine/device.
213. The operating and maintenance instructions must always be present with the machine/device because:
a) it is essential for periodic technical inspections,b) it minimizes the risk of it being lost,
c) its absence may be a reason for the inspector to disallow the machine from operating.
214. During the daily operation of the cutting drum, the operator should pay attention to:
a) the condition of the drum surface, which should be smooth and free of contaminants,
b) the technical condition of the cutters, their holders, and the freedom of rotation of the cutters in the holders,
c) the even distribution of the material behind the milling machine.215. One of the operator's tasks during daily operation is to check and ensure that the cutters can rotate freely in the holders because:
a) free rotation of the cutters reduces their wear, which extends their service life,
b) the rotation of the cutters prevents the drum from overheating during operation,c) the rotation of the cutters increases the cutting efficiency on hard surfaces.216. The SAE designation on oil refers to:
a) the multi-season qualification of the oil,b) the engine oil pressure,
c) the viscosity of the engine oil, which is its ability to flow and lubricate.
217. Oil with the SAE 15W-40 symbol means that:
a) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40,
b) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 15W, and at positive temperatures of summer oil class SAE 40,
c) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 15W.218. Oil with the SAE 10W-30 symbol means that:
a) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W,b) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 30,
c) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W, and at positive temperatures of summer oil class SAE 30.
219. The SAE 10W-30 symbol means:
a) a mixture of engine oil and hydraulic oil,b) hydraulic oil with specified parameters,
c) multi-season engine oil with specified parameters.
220. Engine oil with the SAE 5W-40 symbol means that:
a) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 5W,
b) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 5W, and at positive temperatures of summer oil class SAE 40,
c) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40.
221. The symbol of the warning light shown in the graphic means:
a) low engine oil pressure,
b) low engine oil level,
c) low coolant level.
222. The symbol of the warning light shown in the graphic means:
a) low coolant level,
b) low engine oil pressure,
c) low fuel level.
223. The symbol of the warning light shown means:
a) engine oil filter,
b) engine oil,
c) hydraulic oil.
224. The symbol of the warning light shown means:
a) engine coolant level,
b) engine oil level,
c) hydraulic oil level.225. Oils with designations 70W, 85W, 80W-90 are:
a) gear oils,
b) brake oils,c) engine oils.226. In the case of the need to dismantle the cover/protection for maintenance, one must not:
a) start working with the device without the cover/protection installed,
b) reinstall the cover/protection,c) record such a fact in the documentation.227. The lighting of the battery charging indicator signals to the construction machine operator a malfunction of:
a) the battery switch,
b) the V-belt and/or alternator,
c) the starter.228. The operator's seat cannot be adjusted when:
a) the seat is turned backwards,b) the engine is not started,
c) the machine is in motion.
229. If during daily technical maintenance before work the operator notices that one of the windows in the cabin is cracked, then:
a) he may start work provided that the window is only cracked and has not "fallen out",b) he may start work if it is not the front window,
c) he should not start work.
230. Before starting work, the operator should:
a) install sunshades on the windows,b) open the windows for better communication,
c) clean the windows by removing snow, ice, and other contaminants.
231. When changing hydraulic oils, it is necessary to:
a) use any type of oil,
b) use only types of oils recommended by the machine manufacturer,
c) always use only biodegradable oils.232. To ensure the technical efficiency of the working machine, it is necessary to:
a) operate the machine/technical device only under full load,
b) follow technical service and maintenance according to the operating and maintenance instructions,
c) operate the machine/technical device without exceeding 50% of the permissible load.233. On the construction site, empty containers of lubricants, oil filters, and used oils should be:
a) thrown into the mixed waste container,b) thrown into any waste container,
c) placed in a properly marked hazardous waste container.
234. Stickers (pictograms) located on the machine/technical device serve to:
a) convey important information about safety and the use of the machine/technical device,
b) indicate places where one can stay without any risk,c) inform about the prohibition of approaching the machine/technical device.235. Lubrication points in the machine should be serviced:
a) during all breaks in work,
b) according to the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine,
c) always after 10 hours of operation.236. Engine oil with parameters 5W-50 is:
a) only winter oil,
b) multi-season oil,
c) only summer oil.237. Before starting work on a new type of machine/technical device, the operator should:
a) perform a periodic inspection,b) perform a test run,
c) familiarize themselves with the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine/technical device.
238. OTC service is:
a) round-the-clock technical service,b) temporary technical service,
c) daily technical service.
239. The basic types of services are:
a) round-the-clock, multi-season, annual, technological service,b) visual, active, passive service,
c) daily, periodic, warehouse, transport service.
240. Batteries, when starting the machine with the help of a supporting battery, should be connected:
a) in series,
b) in parallel,
c) crosswise.241. In the case of electrolyte loss caused by spillage through a cracked battery casing, one should:
a) add demineralized water to a level 10 mm above the top edges of the plates,
b) secure the leak area in terms of environmental protection, and then replace the battery,
c) add electrolyte to the proper level and charge the battery.242. The activities performed by the operator as part of daily maintenance during work include:
a) auditory control of the machine's operation and observation of indicators,
b) replenishing operating fluids and daily lubrication,c) cleaning the machine.243. If the manufacturer has provided for operational running-in, it should be carried out:
a) with maximum load,b) without load,
c) with the recommended load specified in the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine/technical device.
244. When loading the machine onto the transport vehicle, the operator should:
a) approach at a speed of at least 5 [km/h],b) know the maximum speed allowed for the given transport vehicle,
c) know the permissible angle of inclination of the loading ramps for the given machine.
245. The responsibility for the placement and securing of the machine on the transport vehicle lies with:
a) the owner or the person responsible for the machines in the company,
b) the carrier (e.g., driver),
c) the machine operator.246. When storing a machine, you should ensure that:
a) there are no leaks of operating fluids,
b) the machine is facing the exit,c) no documents of the machine are left in the cabin.247. Securing the machine during storage downtime involves:
a) filling the hydraulic oil tank to the top,b) disassembling all filters and protecting them from moisture,
c) cleaning the machine of dirt and corrosion.
248. The rods of hydraulic cylinders, during technical service of the stored machine, should be:
a) disassembled and cleaned,b) taken apart and their seals replaced,
c) protected from corrosion.
249. When loading the machine onto the means of transport:
a) the operator should drive onto the means of transport independently,
b) assistance from a second person is recommended,
c) assistance from a second person is recommended only when loading onto a low-loader trailer.250. The recommended method for loading heavy working machines onto low-loader trailers is:
a) loading with ropes,b) loading using other machines,
c) mechanized loading from the front ramp.
251. During longer storage of the machine, the fuel tank should be:
a) filled to the top to prevent condensation of water vapor inside the tank,
b) filled to 1/3 of its capacity and left open,c) empty to avoid fire hazards.252. During daily operation of the machine, the condition of should be checked:
a) the value of working pressure in the hydraulic system,b) tools and equipment,
c) connections and tightness of the hydraulic system.
253. If the machine's engine has not been running for a long time, during daily operation you should:
a) start the engine and gently increase the RPM to reach the operating temperature faster,
b) check the oil level and other operating fluids,
c) replace the fuel pre-filter.254. Information regarding faults, their codes, and methods of removal can be found in a document called:
a) construction machine book,
b) operating and maintenance manual,
c) daily report.255. The correct order for connecting the auxiliary battery to the discharged battery in the machine is as follows:
a) positive terminal of the machine's battery, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, machine frame,
b) negative terminal of the machine's battery, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, machine frame,c) machine frame, positive terminal of the machine's battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery.256. In the case of detecting electrolyte loss in the battery, one should:
a) top it up with water other than distilled,
b) top it up with distilled or demineralized water,
c) top it up with DOT-3 fluid.257. Checking the charge status of a 12 [V] starter battery by "sparking" poses a risk of:
a) electric shock from high voltage,
b) explosion of hydrogen escaping from the battery,
c) seizure of the alternator.258. The scope of daily technical service of a machine does not include:
a) checking the condition of the tires and tire pressure,b) checking the oil level in the engine,
c) control and adjustment of valve clearances.
259. When cleaning the radiator, to avoid damaging it, one should:
a) use sharp tools for cleaning,b) use a strong jet of water under high pressure,
c) keep the compressed air nozzle at an appropriate distance from the radiator.
260. The purpose of lubrication in working machines is:
a) to increase the engine's rotational speed,b) to raise the temperature of cooperating elements,
c) to reduce friction.
261. The most commonly used type of fuses in electrical installations of working machines is:
a) automatic fuses,b) differential fuses,
c) cartridge fuses.
262. The phenomenon of electrostatic discharge during refueling a machine can lead to:
a) fire,
b) poisoning,c) short circuit of the electrical installation.263. In the case of connecting two batteries in parallel with different rated voltages:
a) both batteries may discharge,b) thicker cables should be used than with batteries of the same rated voltages,
c) there may be an explosion of the battery with the lower rated voltage.
264. The correct way to connect a battery to a charger during charging is:
a) positive terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger, negative terminal of the charger to the "ground" of the machine,
b) positive terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger, negative terminal of the battery to the negative terminal of the charger,
c) positive terminal of the battery to the negative terminal of the charger, negative terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger.265. After connecting the battery, the terminals are lubricated with:
a) technical vaseline,
b) grease containing molybdenum disulfide,c) graphite grease.266. One of the goals of warehouse management is:
a) securing the machine against corrosion and other harmful factors during long-term storage,
b) preparing the machine for transport for the future user,c) repairing damaged machine components before the next season.267. If during daily technical service the operator notices a leak in the cooling system, he should:
a) top up the coolant and continue working,b) organize the fluid and top up to the minimum level if the leak is small,
c) report the leak and not use the machine until it is repaired.
268. The level of coolant in the expansion tank should be checked:
a) only in case of engine overheating,
b) during every daily technical service,
c) only during periodic technical service.269. If the operator notices a hydraulic fluid leak during daily technical service, he should:
a) reduce the RPM and continue working,b) top up the oil and continue working,
c) report the leak and not use the machine until it is repaired.
270. The frequency of performing periodic technical service depends on:
a) the number of completed working cycles,
b) the number of hours worked (engine hours),
c) the production date of the machine.271. If during daily technical service the operator notices a low level of engine oil, he should:
a) top up the level with any available oil, even if it is of a different type,b) continue working if the level is not very low and the warning light is not on,
c) top up the oil to the appropriate level.
272. A characteristic activity for seasonal technical service is:
a) checking the charging voltage value,
b) replacing the coolant with one appropriate for the season,
c) checking the working pressure value of the hydraulic system.273. The basic service activities that should be performed before starting a diesel engine are:
a) bleeding the fuel system, checking the level of transmission oil, checking the starter,