Pile drivers (kafary)
Study mode
Question of 303
1. What is the minimum allowable distance of the machine from the reach of the wedge of the collapse?
a) 0.4 [m],b) 0.8 [m],
c) 0.6 [m].
2. The safe distance of the machine from the excavation is:
a) depth of the excavation + 0.6 [m],b) 1.6 [m],
c) the reach of the wedge of the collapse + 0.6 [m].
3. Based on the provided table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] made in cohesive soils:
a) 1.6 [m],
b) 1 [m],c) 2.6 [m].4. Based on the provided table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] made in fractured rocks:
a) 3.6 [m],
b) 4.6 [m],c) 2.6 [m].5. Based on the provided table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] made in slightly cohesive soils:
a) 3.6 [m],
b) 3.1 [m],
c) 2.6 [m].6. What is the minimum safe distance from the UPPER edge of the embankment that a machine can approach, given the following data: Soil category - I (dry sand), height of the embankment - h = 2 [m], horizontal distance between the upper and lower edges of the embankment - a = 2.5 [m]?
a) 1.1 [m],
b) 0.6 [m],c) 3.6 [m].7. What is the minimum safe distance from the UPPER edge of the embankment that a machine can approach, given the following data: Soil category - II (slightly cohesive soils), height of the embankment - h = 4 [m], horizontal distance between the upper and lower edges of the embankment - a = 2.5 [m]?
a) 3.1 [m],
b) 5.6 [m],c) 0.6 [m].8. What is the horizontal distance from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage not exceeding 1 [kV] that allows the operation of a machine or technical device?
a) not less than 3 [m],
b) not less than 5 [m],c) not less than 2 [m].9. What is the horizontal distance from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV] that allows the operation of a machine or technical device?
a) not less than 5 [m],
b) not less than 10 [m],c) not less than 15 [m].10. What is the horizontal distance from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV] that allows the operation of a machine or technical device?
a) not less than 15 [m],
b) not less than 10 [m],
c) not less than 5 [m].11. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?
a) not less than 10 [m],b) not less than 20 [m],
c) not less than 15 [m].
12. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?
a) not less than 10 [m],b) not less than 15 [m],
c) not less than 30 [m].
13. Is it possible to organize workstations in the danger zone under overhead power lines?
a) yes, but only after meeting additional requirements,
b) no, never,c) yes, always.
14. What is the safe distance X for the operation of a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [V]?
a) not less than 5 [m],b) not less than 30 [m],
c) not less than 3 [m].
15. What is the safe distance X for the operation of a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV]?
a) not less than 15 [m],b) not less than 10 [m],
c) not less than 5 [m].
16. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?
a) not less than 10 [m],
b) not less than 30 [m],c) not less than 15 [m].17. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?
a) not less than 15 [m],b) not less than 5 [m],
c) not less than 10 [m].
18. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV]?
a) not less than 15 [m],
b) not less than 50 [m],c) not less than 30 [m].19. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV]?
a) not less than 15 [m],
b) not less than 10 [m],
c) not less than 30 [m].20. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]?
a) not less than 30 [m],
b) not less than 3 [m],c) not less than 40 [m].21. Work in the danger zone (overhead high voltage power line):
a) may be carried out provided that the line is disconnected from voltage, the work is performed in a limited area with groundings and at least one grounding is visible from the work site,
b) may be carried out provided that permission from the site manager has been granted,c) may under no circumstances be carried out under electrical lines in the danger zone.22. The operator must perform work at a distance X from the active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [V]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 5 [m],
b) 2 [m],c) 1 [m].23. The operator must perform work at a distance X from the active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 5 [m],b) 3 [m],
c) 15 [m].
24. The operator must perform work at a distance X from the active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 5 [m],
b) 50 [m],
c) 15 [m].25. If the injured person has a detectable pulse but is not breathing, then:
a) the airways should be cleared and artificial respiration should be started,
b) he should not be touched,c) chest compressions should be performed.26. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, one should primarily:
a) give the injured medication,
b) provide assistance to those in life-threatening situations,
c) leave the accident scene to call a doctor.27. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, one should primarily:
a) provide assistance to those in life-threatening situations,b) leave the accident scene to call a doctor,
c) take care of one's own safety.
28. The obligation to provide first aid to accident victims rests with:
a) everyone, as one can always perform part of the rescue tasks,
b) only those with medical training,c) everyone, but criminal liability always threatens for committed mistakes.29. The accident victim regained consciousness after a few minutes and wants to go home. In such a situation, one should:
a) persuade her to stay and call for medical help,
b) give her something to drink and painkillers,c) allow her to go home, recommending a visit to a doctor.30. First aid in a situation where a foreign body has entered the eye of the injured person consists of:
a) rinsing with clean water directing the stream from the nose outward from the eye,
b) rinsing the eye with eye drops,c) rinsing with distilled water directing the stream into the eye.31. The injured person cut their leg on an unsecured sharp element. Providing first aid in this situation is:
a) sticking a plaster directly on the wound,
b) using sterile gauze, wrapping the wound with a bandage,
c) using a tourniquet.32. Suspecting spinal injury in a person who has fallen from a height and is conscious, one should:
a) seat them in a semi-reclining position,b) lay them in a stable lateral position,
c) not move them and wait for medical services to arrive.
33. To move away from the place where the electric wire has been broken and the area is under voltage, one should:
a) step away from this place slowly, taking small steps, trying to maintain continuous contact of the feet with the ground,
b) run as quickly as possible to a place that we assess as safe,c) quickly step away from the source of electric shock, lifting the feet high.34. First aid in the case of a first-degree burn is:
a) applying greasy cream to the burned area,
b) pouring cold water on the burned area,
c) applying ointment to the burned area.35. During work, a high-voltage power line was broken, as a result of which a colleague was electrocuted. In this situation, the correct behavior is:
a) approach the injured person to provide first aid,
b) turn off the power source as quickly as possible,
c) call other colleagues for help with the injured person.36. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation is performed until:
a) we have confirmed that the victim has started breathing and circulation has returned,
b) the fire department arrives and secures the area,c) 10 minutes have passed.37. Immediate action in the case of severe bleeding from an injured upper limb includes:
a) applying a dressing, directly compressing the bleeding site, and elevating the limb,
b) disinfecting the wound with salicylic alcohol,c) lowering the limb below heart level.38. In the case of a nosebleed, one should:
a) lay the victim on their back,
b) tilt the bleeding person's head forward, pinch the nostrils,
c) tilt the head back and place a cold compress on the neck.39. The first step in dealing with a victim of carbon monoxide poisoning in a closed room is:
a) the quickest possible evacuation of the victim from that room,
b) assessing ABC,c) conducting a preliminary examination.40. First aid during seizures caused by an epileptic attack consists of:
a) seating the victim in a semi-sitting position and giving them something to drink,b) placing a wooden object in the victim's mouth to prevent biting the tongue,
c) protecting the victim's head from injuries.
41. In case of suspected spinal injury in the cervical section in a conscious person, one should:
a) not allow the injured person to move their head,
b) seat the injured person in a chair with a high back,c) place the injured person in a lateral position.42. The most important thing when a person is buried under earth, sand, or gravel is:
a) notifying the family,
b) locating the injured person,
c) waiting for the arrival of the ambulance.43. First aid for a person with a metal rod embedded in their lower leg involves calling for help and:
a) moving the rod to check if the artery has been damaged,
b) securing the rod to prevent movement,
c) removing the embedded rod.44. The indication for using an AED defibrillator is:
a) lack of detectable breath and pulse in the injured person,
b) severe dizziness,c) severe chest pain.45. During the operation of a machine/technical device, the prohibited actions for which you are taking the exam are:
a) performing daily technical service (OTS),b) changing the working tool,
c) making structural changes to the machine/technical device.
46. During the operation of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam, the prohibited activities are:
a) cleaning the machine/technical device using a product in accordance with the operating and maintenance instructions,b) refueling the machine/technical device from a canister,
c) cleaning the machine/technical device using gasoline or solvents whose vapors can create flammable/explosive gas mixtures.
47. When performing earthworks with the machine for which you are taking the exam, it is unacceptable to:
a) have people nearby the machine during technical servicing,b) have people at a distance greater than the maximum reach of the working tool plus 6 meters,
c) have people within the working range of the machine's working tool.
48. When performing work, it is unacceptable to:
a) work near active overhead power lines at a distance less than specified by regulations,
b) work near an active power line with a rated voltage of 20 [kV] at a distance of 15 [m],c) work near an active power line with a rated voltage of 10 [kV] at a distance of 10 [m].49. The machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam may only be operated by:
a) any adult person with technical education and a driver's license of the appropriate category,b) a person with written confirmation of course completion in the form of a plastic card,
c) a person who has completed training and obtained a positive result on the test conducted by the commission appointed by the Łukasiewicz Research Network – Warsaw Institute of Technology.
50. The qualifications to operate machines/technical devices for which you are taking the exam are issued by:
a) The County Office appropriate for the residence address of the person applying for the qualifications,
b) The Łukasiewicz Research Network - Warsaw Institute of Technology (ŁRN - WIT),
c) The Office of Technical Inspection (UDT).51. Permissions to operate machines/technical devices for which you are taking the exam:
a) are valid for 10 years from the date of issue,
b) are valid indefinitely,
c) are valid for 5 years from the date of issue.52. A person holding permissions to operate: "Classless Pile Drivers" can operate based on them:
a) and pile drivers,b) all and vibration devices for driving and pulling,
c) all.
53. An employee operating a machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam can start work provided that:
a) has a valid category D driving license,b) the machine/technical device has a valid UDT inspection,
c) has permissions to operate this type of machine/technical device.
54. In the event of a threat to life, health, property, or the environment caused by a machine/technical device failure, the operator:
a) continues working but informs the supervisor about the situation at the end of the shift,
b) immediately stops work and informs the supervisor of this fact,
c) continues working but makes an appropriate entry in the maintenance book at the end of the shift.55. Lifting and transporting people using working equipment:
a) requires the consent of the construction manager,b) is possible, but only outside the public road area,
c) is always prohibited.
56. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam has the right to refuse to work when:
a) there is an overhead power line with a rated voltage of 110 [kV] at a distance of 35 meters,b) he has the required personal protective equipment,
c) this work requires special psychophysical fitness, and his psychophysical condition does not ensure its safe performance and poses a threat to others.
57. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is obliged to stop work when:
a) he has the required personal protective equipment,b) there is an overhead power line at a distance of 35 meters,
c) the work he is performing poses a direct threat to the health or life of others.
58. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is obliged to:
a) independently perform all current repairs of the machine/technical device,
b) comply with the provisions of the operation and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device,
c) always have a category B driving license.59. The person directly responsible for the safe operation of the machine for which you are taking the exam is:
a) the owner of the machine,b) the construction manager,
c) the machine operator.
60. The operator's book and qualifications for the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam are issued by:
a) Łukasiewicz Research Network - Warsaw Institute of Technology,
b) Transport Technical Supervision (TDT),c) Technical Supervision Office (UDT).61. The obligation to use personal protective equipment:
a) does not apply on hot days,
b) results from the operating and maintenance instructions and health and safety regulations,
c) results only from internal company regulations.62. An employee who witnesses an accident at work:
a) it is enough to notify the supervisor,
b) is obliged to assist the victims, notify the supervisor, and if necessary secure the accident site,
c) is obliged to assist the victims and then immediately leave the accident site.63. What elements of the machine, for which you are taking the exam, protect the operator in case of the machine tipping over:
a) ROPS type machine cabin and safety belts,
b) certified protective helmet and reflective vest,c) machine seat.64. In the event of loss of stability by a machine equipped with a ROPS type cabin, the operator should:
a) maintain a seated position holding firmly to the steering wheel or other stable elements in the cabin,
b) try to exit the cabin as quickly as possible (before the machine tips over),c) quickly turn left and raise the working equipment as high as possible.65. In the event of loss of stability by a machine equipped with a ROPS type cabin, the operator should:
a) turn on the warning/hazard lights,
b) remain in the cabin,
c) immediately jump out of the cabin.66. The danger zone is defined as:
a) a place where there are threats to the health and life of people,
b) a place where employees must only wear protective helmets,c) a place where work requiring specialized equipment takes place, and the presence of people is only allowed at night.67. The danger zone on a construction site:
a) is designated and/or fenced off and marked in a way that prevents access to unauthorized persons,
b) is always designated by a surveyor,c) is designated after the start of construction work.68. The area that the operator should check and secure before starting work with a machine/technical device (because there are threats to the health and life of people) is called:
a) a dead zone,
b) a danger zone,
c) a zone of increased risk.69. During the charging of batteries, a gas with highly explosive properties is released. This gas is:
a) ethane,
b) hydrogen,
c) methane.70. Firefighting foam can be used to extinguish fires of group:
a) C and D,
b) A and B,
c) only C.71. Improper use of a snow extinguisher can result in:
a) frostbite caused by the extinguishing agent,
b) fainting,c) burns from the extinguisher components.72. Water, fire blanket, powder extinguisher, carbon dioxide, sand are extinguishing agents that we will use to extinguish:
a) solid bodies,
b) oils,c) liquids.73. We can call sorbents:
a) fire blankets,
b) materials made from natural or synthetic substances that absorb liquids,
c) petroleum-derived substances.74. Group A fires concern:
a) flammable liquids,b) flammable gases,
c) solid bodies whose normal combustion occurs with the formation of glowing coals, e.g. wood, paper, etc..
75. Group B fires concern:
a) liquids and solid materials that melt, e.g. plastics, fuels, oils, etc.,
b) flammable gases,c) metals, e.g. magnesium, sodium, potassium, aluminum, titanium, etc..76. Group C fires concern:
a) gases, e.g. methane, propane, acetylene, hydrogen,
b) solids,c) flammable liquids.
77. Seeing such a pictogram you are informed about:
a) danger zone,
b) assembly point during evacuation,
c) a larger number of people in a given area.
78. While working you noticed a sign marked 'Zone 0'. It informs about:
a) the zone of existing fire load in the building,b) the zone of existing fire hazard category,
c) the space where an explosive atmosphere exists.
79. The presented pictogram informs about:
a) the main power switch,
b) a set of fire protection equipment,
c) an internal hydrant.
80. Seeing such a pictogram you are informed about:
a) emergency exit,
b) assembly point during evacuation,c) first aid station.
81. Seeing such a pictogram informs you about:
a) the prohibition of using the fire extinguisher,b) high temperature affecting the fire extinguisher,
c) the location of the fire extinguisher.
82. You see a person whose clothing is on fire and who, in panic, is running away. Your reaction is:
a) you tell him to wait in an upright position for the arrival of rescue services,b) you wave your arms or outer garment strongly next to him to extinguish the burning clothing,
c) you try to stop him, lay him on the ground, and start extinguishing.
83. Electrical devices and installations can be extinguished using:
a) water,
b) powder or snow extinguishers,
c) foam extinguishers.84. Burning fuel can be extinguished using:
a) low-octane ethylene,b) water,
c) powder, foam, or snow extinguishers.
85. Clothing on a person that is on fire can be extinguished using:
a) water mist extinguisher or fire blanket,
b) snow or powder extinguisher,c) plastic material.86. What obligations does an employee have when they decide to refrain from performing work due to health and safety regulations?
a) There are no obligations in this situation,b) They should organize work for others,
c) They must immediately notify their supervisor.
87. How can an operator prevent hazards in the workplace?
a) By using personal protective equipment to minimize risk,
b) By not reporting faults in machines,c) By ignoring health and safety rules.88. It is not permissible to position a workplace directly under active overhead power lines or at a horizontal distance from the outermost wires of less than:
a) for lines: 1 [kV] - 1 [m], 15 [kV] - 3 [m], 30 [kV] - 5 [m], 110 [kV] - 10 [m],
b) for lines: 1 [kV] - 3 [m], 15 [kV] - 5 [m], 30 [kV] - 10 [m], 110 [kV] - 15 [m], 400 [kV] - 30 [m],
c) for all voltages - 1 [m] from the power line.89. How does the operator know what personal protective equipment is required for a given machine/technical device?
a) Information about the necessary personal protective equipment is included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine,
b) The operator must independently choose the appropriate protective measures,c) The choice of personal protective equipment depends on the opinions of colleagues at work.90. The operator should refuse to perform a task when:
a) the work is inconsistent with the intended use of the machine/technical device,
b) the work is being performed at night,c) the work requires familiarization with the location of underground and above-ground utilities.91. The operator can prevent hazards during the operation of the machine/technical device by:
a) inattention and routine,b) limiting the use of personal protective equipment,
c) following health and safety rules and adhering to operating instructions.
92. Which of the situations listed is unacceptable during the use of the machine/technical device?
a) Reporting faults directly to the supervisor,
b) Unauthorized persons being in the danger zone caused by the operation of the machine/technical device,
c) Operating the machine without supervision.93. An accident at work is considered to be:
a) a sudden event related to the work performed, caused by an external factor, resulting in injury or death,
b) a prolonged event related to the work performed, caused by an internal factor, resulting in equipment damage,c) a sudden event unrelated to the work performed, caused by an external factor, resulting in injury or death.94. A fatal accident at work is considered to be an accident in which death occurred:
a) more than 6 months after the date of the accident,
b) within 6 months from the date of the accident,
c) only at the moment of the accident.95. It is prohibited to:
a) allow unauthorized persons within the reach of the machine's operation and work on slopes exceeding the permissible incline,
b) operate the machine after completing training and obtaining the appropriate qualifications,c) report noticed faults to the supervisor before starting work.96. Occupational health and safety regulations require:
a) the performance of a warranty inspection of the working machine before the end of the year from its purchase,b) the scrapping of the old working machine within the time specified in its operating and maintenance manual, while complying with the requirements for the disposal of hazardous materials,
c) securing the working machine during breaks in its operation against accidental activation by unauthorized persons.
97. In the event of a person being electrocuted:
a) do not touch the injured person until the power source is disconnected,
b) immediate resuscitation should be initiated, regardless of whether the power source has been disconnected,c) it is recommended to use any tools to disconnect the power, regardless of their actual purpose.98. Seeing a person whose clothing is on fire, the first thing to do is:
a) cut off the air supply by rolling the injured person or wrapping them in a fire blanket, wet clothing, or a wet blanket,
b) leave the injured person standing to facilitate air access and extinguish the flames faster,c) use a fire extinguisher, preferably a snow extinguisher, to extinguish the burning clothing, and then try to quickly remove the melted clothing.99. A ground slip wedge:
a) occurs only when the ground is in a frozen state,
b) occurs when the slope of the embankment exceeds the angle of the natural slope of the ground,
c) is the area around the working machine extending a distance of 6 [m] beyond its farthest reach.100. The reach of the ground slip wedge:
a) depends on the speed of the machine's operation and the efficiency of the operator,
b) depends on the depth of the excavation and the category of the ground,
c) depends solely on the temperature of the ground.101. The angle of natural slope is:
a) the maximum slope at which the ground can remain without sliding - it depends, among other things, on the category of the ground,
b) the angle at which it is safe to operate the machine - it depends on the parameters of the given machine,c) the angle at which the ground will definitely slide by itself - it depends solely on the temperature of that ground.102. The wedge of ground failure:
a) occurs when the slope of the embankment exceeds the angle of natural slope of the ground - its extent depends on the type of ground and the depth of the excavation or the height of the embankment,
b) is the zone where the ground becomes unstable - its extent depends solely on the depth of the excavation, the type of ground does not matter here,c) is the space around the machine, dependent on the working speed of the machine and its weight.103. The angle of natural slope is:
a) the maximum slope at which the ground can remain without sliding - it depends on the type of ground, e.g. moisture, cohesiveness, and grain size,
b) the slope at which any embankment becomes unstable, regardless of the type of ground,c) the angle at which the machine can safely move on the embankment, regardless of the category of the ground.104. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is performed:
a) when the injured person is breathing but is unconscious and there is no contact with them,
b) when the injured person is not breathing and there is no detectable pulse. For a person who is not a professional rescuer, the absence of breathing is a sufficient basis to start resuscitation,
c) only in the case of fainting and minor injuries, to improve blood circulation.105. An employee has the right to refrain from performing work due to health and safety regulations, notifying their supervisor immediately if:
a) the working conditions do not pose a threat, but are too difficult for them,
b) the working conditions pose a direct threat to health or life,
c) the work they are performing has not been reported to the construction supervision.106. Physical factors generating hazards in the workplace are:
a) spilled lubricants, oils, and fuels,
b) lack of appropriate medical examinations for the employee,c) lack of or inadequate training for employees.107. Working with a machine/technical device is not allowed when:
a) the second operator has not reported an upcoming inspection,b) its repair was carried out after dark,
c) it is malfunctioning.
108. Working near overhead power lines:
a) always requires double grounding of the line,
b) is possible without meeting additional requirements provided that specific distances depending on the rated voltage of the line are maintained,
c) always requires power to be turned off in the line.109. The operator is obliged to refuse to start work if:
a) the working machine is malfunctioning,
b) there is no construction manager or any other person authorized to supervise at the work site,c) they would have to work under power lines, and the power in them has been turned off and the line grounded.110. The danger zone from a machine/technical device is:
a) always the entire fenced construction site,
b) a place where there are hazards to health or life of people,
c) a place where the machine/technical device cannot be used.111. Accidents at work can result from the poor technical condition of the working machine, for example:
a) damage to the equipment,b) failure of the drive system,
c) injury to the limb, torso, or head.
112. Unacceptable behaviors are:
a) operating a faulty machine and working under the influence of alcohol,
b) performing daily maintenance of the machine after dark,c) working after dark in a well-lit place, with full concentration of the operator.113. The basic duties of an employee in terms of OHS are:
a) adhering to OHS regulations and principles, taking care of the condition of machines and tools, and maintaining order in the workplace, using personal protective equipment,
b) not being late for work, finishing on time, confirming presence at work in the manner accepted by the employer,c) enforcing labor code regulations regarding their rights, including payment for overtime worked.114. In the case of a person electrocuted, after disconnecting the power source, one should:
a) check the condition of the injured person, and if necessary: call for help, clear the airways, perform resuscitation, and use an AED if available,
b) leave the injured person alone if they have regained consciousness, without further action,c) move the injured person to another location as quickly as possible.115. After extinguishing flames on a person with burns and calling for help, one should:
a) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes, previously removing any melted clothing,
b) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes, without removing any melted clothing,
c) use a snow extinguisher to cool the burn areas.116. If the operator notices faults that may prevent the proper operation of the machine, then:
a) ignore the faults if the machine is currently working properly,
b) is obliged to refuse to start the machine and report this fact to the supervisor,
c) should continue working and repair the machine after completing the task.
117. Seeing such a pictogram you are informed about:
a) the location where an external automatic defibrillator is available,
b) the location for performing AED,c) the location where a first aid kit is available.118. Properly performed cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) consists of:
a) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 30-60 times per minute to a depth of 1–3 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 15 compressions (breaths are mandatory),b) connecting the external automatic defibrillator (AED) and following its instructions; CPR is not performed without AED,
c) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 100-120 times per minute to a depth of 5–6 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 30 compressions (breaths are not mandatory).
119. The abbreviation IBWR stands for:
a) Safe Work Performance Instruction,
b) Failure-Free Work Performance Instruction,c) Failure-Free Work Performance Training.120. Expand the abbreviation IBWR:
a) Information on Safe Work Performance,
b) Safe Work Performance Instruction,
c) Implementation of Failure-Free Work Performance.121. The Safe Execution of Construction Works Instruction is:
a) construction work route plan,
b) document containing information regarding safety on the construction site,
c) document confirming qualifications for operating machines and technical devices in earthworks, construction, and road works.122. BIOZ Plan means:
a) Safety and Resource Specification Plan,
b) Health and Safety Plan,
c) Safe Health Protection Instruction Plan.
123. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 1.6 [m],b) 4 [m],
c) 1 [m].
124. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 1 [m],
b) 1.5 [m],
c) 1.6 [m].125. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 0.5 [m],
b) 1.6 [m],c) 1 [m].126. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 2 [m],
b) 1 [m],
c) 1.6 [m].127. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 1 [m],b) 1.6 [m],
c) 2 [m].
128. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 2 [m],
b) 3 [m],
c) 1 [m].129. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 2.6 [m],b) 3 [m],
c) 4 [m].
130. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 2.6 [m],
b) 1.6 [m],
c) 1 [m].131. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 6.6 [m],
b) 2.1 [m],
c) 3.6 [m].132. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 4.6 [m],
b) 2.6 [m],
c) 2 [m].133. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 2.6 [m],
b) 1.1 [m],
c) 2 [m].134. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 2 [m],b) 2.6 [m],
c) 1.6 [m].
135. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 2.6 [m],
b) 4.6 [m],c) 2 [m].136. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category III (cracked rocks) is:
a) 3 [m],
b) 3.6 [m],
c) 2.1 [m].137. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category III (cracked rocks) is:
a) 4 [m],b) 2.6 [m],
c) 4.6 [m].
138. In the case of mechanical damage to the FOPS/ROPS cabin (e.g., denting of the cabin element) the operator:
a) should stop work and report the failure to the supervisor or the person responsible in the company for the machines,
b) can continue working if the cabin windows are intact,c) can repair the damage on their own without wasting time on downtime.139. In the case of mechanical damage to the FOPS/ROPS cabin (e.g., denting of the cabin element) the operator:
a) cannot repair such damage on their own,
b) can repair such damage on their own, but only based on the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine,c) can always repair such damage on their own.140. If the seat belt is damaged, it is necessary to:
a) report the damage and not start work until the belt is repaired or replaced,
b) continue working and report the problem after finishing work,c) exercise special caution while performing work.141. The operator must wear a safety helmet when:
a) working in a machine not equipped with a closed cabin,
b) frequently leaning out of the cabin while working,c) working on demolition tasks using long booms.142. You should enter and exit the machine:
a) facing the machine, maintaining three points of contact,
b) with your back to the machine, using a three-step ladder,c) entering sideways while being careful of the devices in the cabin.143. Soils, according to the difficulty of their detachment, are divided into:
a) 4 categories,b) 10 categories,
c) 16 categories.
144. The machine operator should know the category of soil they are working on:
a) to understand the requirements for operating the machine's chassis,
b) to calculate the safe distance for setting up the machine and the reach of the debris wedge,
c) to be able to assess the depth of the excavation.145. In the context of construction, a "pile" is:
a) an element used to define the boundaries of the construction site,b) a tool for checking the stability of foundations,
c) a long element made of materials such as wood, concrete, or reinforced concrete that transmits the load to deeper layers of the ground.
146. The pile transfers the load to the ground:
a) through the feet, side members, or collectively through the feet and side members,
b) exclusively through the side members, due to lateral friction with the ground,c) only through the feet, based on point pressure.147. The walking chassis in pile drivers is used for:
a) quick movement on asphalt surfaces,
b) in areas with difficult access and uneven ground,
c) exclusively for work on concrete surfaces.148. The tracked chassis is preferred in pile drivers because:
a) it is suitable only for work on hard, flat surfaces,b) it prevents work on concrete surfaces,
c) it provides stability and mobility on uneven terrain.
149. The task of the "baba" in the pile driving process is to:
a) deliver a massive blow that allows the pile to be driven into the ground,
b) control the descent speed of the tower,c) transfer the weight of the structure to the ground.150. In the pile driving process, the "baba" plays an important role because:
a) it controls the noise level during operation,
b) it generates the necessary impact force to effectively embed the pile in the ground,
c) it secures the pile against shifting.151. What role does the "tower" play in the pile driver?
a) it is responsible for transferring power to the chassis,
b) it is a structure supporting the pile driving mechanism, including the "baba",
c) it stabilizes the weight of the driven pile.152. A major advantage of a tracked chassis in difficult terrain conditions is that:
a) it provides low pressure on the ground,
b) it speeds up work on all surfaces,c) it provides high pressure on the ground.153. A correct action during the piling process is:
a) operating the machine while maintaining a safe distance from the edge of the cliff and excavations,
b) moving the mast while the machine is in motion on the construction site,c) operating the machine while standing on the machine's tracks.154. It is possible to operate the machine with the cabin doors open:
a) only when the air temperature exceeds 25 [°C],
b) only if the operating and maintenance manual of the machine allows for such possibility,
c) always.155. Disconnecting the hydraulic-powered working equipment from the quick coupler is related to:
a) bleeding the hydraulic system,b) relieving pressure from the central lubrication system,
c) zeroing the hydraulic system.
156. The type of interchangeable working equipment used depends on whether:
a) the equipment is approved for use by the machine manufacturer,
b) the machine has undergone a periodic inspection,c) the equipment has a CE certificate.157. Positioning the mast of the working system is used for:
a) maintaining the correct working direction of the equipment,
b) determining the exact position in the event of a collision with underground infrastructure,c) securing against slipping into the excavation.158. Before starting work, it is necessary to ensure a stable substrate for the working position and:
a) perform mast positioning,
b) perform a preliminary drilling,c) anchor the machine with ropes.159. For work at an angle, it is necessary to equip the hammer structure with:
a) a direction impact stabilizer,
b) a guide for the impact element (baby),
c) a rigid connection of the hammer.160. The pile can transfer the load:
a) only through the side members,b) only through the foot,
c) both through the feet and through the side members.
161. The course of underground land development must be marked before starting work to:
a) avoid the risk of damaging networks during work,
b) enable quick movement of machines in any direction,c) save time and reduce earthwork costs.162. The parallel guidance of the driven element to the guide at different positions of the hammer tower ensures:
a) conveyor and vibration mechanism,
b) sub-frame,
c) boom and winch.163. The procedure for executing Strauss piles provides for:
a) drilling a hole, embedding the casing pipe in the ground, removing the spoil, and stage concreting,
b) using a special hydraulic hammer for driving piles,c) compacting concrete with compressed air to press the concrete against the surrounding soil and increase the load-bearing capacity of the pile.164. In the case of geotechnical works, working platforms are:
a) tracked carriers of working equipment,
b) surfaces with established load-bearing capacity that serve as a base for setting up heavy machines,
c) automotive chassis for mounting working equipment.165. In a situation where the depth of the excavation is greater than 4 [m], the operator, in order to properly plan the positioning of the machine at the edge, should mandatorily adhere to:
a) the definition of the failure wedge,b) the instructions for operation and maintenance of the machine regarding the principles of performing storage service,
c) the project documentation containing stability calculations of the slope.
166. When performing protective sand spur dikes, pile drivers are used:
a) walking on piles,
b) floating towed by tugs,c) floating with its own propulsion.167. "Driving a pile" is:
a) installation of the hole casing during pile formation,b) dry installation of the load-bearing structure of the pillar,
c) the process of installing a pile in the ground without prior excavation.
168. A "Baba" pile driver can perform the driving action thanks to:
a) kinetic energy of free fall or energy of gas or liquid pressure,
b) the movement of the pile driver arm with a guide,c) the lifting force of the pile driver with variable drive of the working platform.169. "Pile driving" is:
a) embedding piles in the ground,
b) equipping the pile driver with additional working equipment,c) positioning the pile driver.170. "Pile driving" is:
a) strengthening existing gravel columns,
b) embedding ready-made piles in the ground,
c) installation of a pile in the made hole.171. Which of the listed elements are not part of the hydraulic system:
a) pump, distributor, actuator,b) hydraulic lock, hydraulic oil tank,
c) starter, alternator.
172. The hydraulic lock in the machine is:
a) a valve protecting against uncontrolled movement of the element located in a given line,
b) the closure of the hydraulic oil inlet at its tank,c) a valve responsible for controlling the entire hydraulic system.173. The change of hydraulic oil pressure into mechanical motion is the responsibility of:
a) hydraulic actuator and hydraulic motor,
b) hydraulic pump system,c) hydraulic distributor.174. The pressure in the hydraulic system is generated by:
a) hydraulic pump,
b) hydraulic motor,c) hydraulic actuator.175. Directing the flow of hydraulic oil to individual systems is carried out by:
a) overflow valve,
b) hydraulic distributor,
c) hydraulic lock.176. The safety valve protects the hydraulic system from:
a) air in the hydraulic system,
b) excessive pressure increase,
c) overheating of the hydraulic oil.177. The relief valve in the hydraulic system is responsible for:
a) limiting the maximum working pressure in a given circuit,
b) venting the system,c) maintaining a constant position of the working tool.178. If the pressure in the hydraulic system increases excessively, the excess oil will be directed to:
a) the hydraulic oil tank,
b) the hydraulic oil filter,c) the distributor.179. The basic parameters that characterize an electric accumulator are:
a) rated voltage [V], capacity [Ah], starting current [A],
b) rated voltage [V], resistance [Ω], power [W],c) rated voltage [V], power [W], mass [kg].180. Lead-acid batteries can be charged:
a) only in an air-conditioned room,
b) in a place specifically designated for this purpose,
c) in any room.181. In a working machine, the differential is most often located:
a) in the hydraulic system, near the main pump,b) in the operator's cabin, by the driving controller,
c) in the drive system near the driving wheels.
182. The hydraulic distributor:
a) converts mechanical energy into hydraulic energy,
b) directs the flow of hydraulic oil to the appropriate sections,
c) increases the torque in the side transmission.183. The hydraulic distributor is a device that:
a) allows control of individual hydraulic sections of the machine,
b) distributes oil between the engine and the hydraulic system,c) distributes oil between the small circuit and the large circuit.184. The ROPS cabin in construction machines protects the operator from:
a) crushing in the event of the machine overturning,
b) being hit by falling objects from above,c) dust in the operator's cabin.185. The ROPS cabin in construction machines protects against:
a) crushing the operator in the event of the machine overturning,
b) the machine overturning,c) the machine falling from a slope and rolling over.186. Damage to the ROPS frame resulting in the need for its replacement includes:
a) discoloration of the paint caused by weather conditions and the passage of time,
b) cracking or bending of the structure,
c) minor surface scratches.187. Drilling additional holes in the ROPS cabin structure is prohibited because:
a) it reduces the operator's comfort,b) it decreases the weight of the machine,
c) it causes a decrease in the strength of the structure.
188. The role of the tensioning wheel in the crawler chassis of the pile driver is:
a) to maintain the appropriate tension of the track to prevent it from slipping off,
b) to protect the frame from mechanical damage,c) to transfer power from the engine to the track.189. The so-called 'basic machine' in the structure of the pile driver consists of:
a) the body and chassis, without mounted working equipment,
b) the body along with a full set of working equipment,c) only the running gear with the main frame.190. The basic element of the pile driver that performs the driving of the pile is:
a) tensioning wheel,
b) ram,
c) tower.191. The counterweight placed in the body of the hammer:
a) ensures the stability of the machine during pile driving,
b) drives the working equipment components,c) strengthens the structure of the chassis frame.192. The flow and direction of hydraulic fluid in the system are regulated by:
a) hydraulic motors,
b) hydraulic valves,
c) hydraulic pumps.193. Components of the system, such as actuators and hydraulic motors, convert hydraulic energy into:
a) mechanical energy,
b) electrical energy,c) pressure in the tank.194. The primary task of the hydraulic accumulator in the hydrostatic system is:
a) storing energy in the form of pressure of the working fluid,
b) regulating the temperature of the working fluid,c) evenly distributing oil to the system receivers.195. In the hydrostatic system, the energy of the fluid pressure is transmitted to:
a) hydraulic motors or hydraulic actuators,
b) oil coolers and pressure gauges,c) thermostatic, overflow, and check valves.196. The function of the FOPS protective structure is:
a) protection of the operator from the effects of exhaust fumes and noise,
b) protection of the operator from falling objects,
c) protection of the operator from the consequences of the machine overturning.197. The FOPS protective structure must necessarily be used in:
a) underwater work,b) all earthworks,
c) work where heavy elements may fall on the cabin (e.g., demolition work, in quarries, etc.).
198. In a machine equipped with a ROPS or FOPS protective structure, there must exist and be used by the operator an additional safety system, which is:
a) seat belts,
b) protective footwear, hearing protectors, respiratory protection,c) safety helmet, protective footwear.199. The ROPS protective structure in a machine:
a) is not required when only qualified machine operators are employed,b) is not required when it is not technically possible, and there is a low risk of the machine overturning (possibility of support with a boom),
c) is always required.
200. Optimal damping of shocks and vibrations of the operator's seat is ensured by:
a) adjusting the seat to the weight of the operator,
b) as flexible a seat adjustment as possible,c) setting the seat rigidly.201. The mandatory equipment used for the operator to observe the area directly behind the machine is:
a) rear camera,
b) external mirror,
c) sound signal when reversing.202. Together with the operator, other people can ride in the machine's cabin if:
a) the machine is moving at a low speed,
b) the manufacturer has installed an additional seat,
c) they have undergone health and safety training with the operator and there are a maximum of 2 people.203. The most important element of the operator's cabin equipment from the perspective of his safety is:
a) emergency STOP button,b) mirror or camera,
c) seat belt.
204. Mirrors and the reversing camera in the machine are used for:
a) improving the operator's visibility and increasing safety,
b) checking the technical condition of the machine,c) facilitating the maneuvering of working equipment.205. In ROPS-type cabins, additional equipment such as phone holders can be installed independently:
a) provided that there is no interference with the cabin structure,
b) but this equipment must be permanently screwed to the cabin structure,c) remembering that installation is only possible on the cabin posts.206. The green flash lamp located on the machine cabin signals, among other things:
a) the machine's eco mode is activated,
b) the seat belts are properly fastened,
c) no operator in the cabin.207. In a parallel connection of two identical batteries, the voltage of such a system is:
a) the sum of the voltages of the individual batteries,
b) equal to the voltage of a single battery,
c) the product of the voltages of the individual batteries.208. In a series connection of two identical batteries, the voltage of such a system is:
a) equal to the voltage of a single battery,
b) the sum of the voltages of the individual batteries,
c) the product of the voltages of the individual batteries.209. Fuses in the electrical installation of the machine protect it from the effects of:
a) short circuits and overloads,
b) high temperature,c) low voltage.210. One of the elements of the electrical system that protects the motor from seizing is:
a) engine oil pressure sensor,
b) speed regulator,c) main fuse.211. Gel batteries that are part of the electrical system do not require:
a) charging with a rectifier,
b) replenishing the electrolyte,
c) replacement when the housing is damaged.212. Electrical systems of machines and technical devices should be equipped with a device that causes emergency stop in at least the amount of:
a) three emergency stop devices, according to the European machinery directive,b) two emergency stop devices placed on both sides of the machine, according to the European machinery directive,
c) one emergency stop device, according to the European machinery directive.
213. The emergency stop device of a machine is a part of:
a) the electrical system,
b) the fuel system,c) the drive system.214. The main parameters of an internal combustion engine that affect work efficiency are:
a) type of carburetor, type of ignition system,b) compression ratio, displacement,
c) torque, rotational speed.
215. The crank-piston system of an internal combustion engine is designed to:
a) convert mechanical energy into hydraulic energy,
b) convert the reciprocating motion of the piston into the rotational motion of the crankshaft,
c) ensure the effective operation of the clutch.216. The lubrication system in an internal combustion engine:
a) is responsible for removing hazardous substances generated in the combustion process of the mixture,
b) is responsible for the proper lubrication of the moving parts of the engine that work together,
c) provides regulation of the rotational speed and reduces engine vibrations during operation.217. The engine timing system is used for:
a) damping noise and minimizing engine vibrations during operation,
b) controlling the filling of the combustion chamber with air or air-fuel mixture and controlling the emptying of this chamber of exhaust gases,
c) ensuring the optimal composition of the fuel-oil-air mixture for combustion.218. Systems present in internal combustion engines include, among others:
a) crankshaft-piston system, fuel supply system, cooling system,
b) hydraulic system, intake system,c) exhaust system, pneumatic system, closed system.219. The low-pressure part of the fuel supply system in a diesel engine is:
a) fuel tank, supply pump, filters, fuel lines,
b) fuel lines, high-pressure pump, common rail,c) fuel tank and injectors.220. The element controlling the flow of coolant in the so-called "large circuit" is:
a) thermocouple,
b) thermostat,
c) thermophore.221. Intercooler is:
a) a charged air cooler,
b) another name for the engine coolant radiator,c) a device for burning solid particles in exhaust gases.222. DPF filter:
a) is used to reduce NOx (nitrogen oxides) emissions,
b) is a dry particulate filter responsible for capturing soot from exhaust gases,
c) is a precise cabin filter protecting the operator while working in high dust conditions.223. The part of the hammer that acts as a striking hammer is:
a) the hammer pin,
b) the hammer head,
c) the hammer stump.224. "Hammer head" is:
a) the base of the hammer,b) the platform of the hammer,
c) the hammer itself.
225. The frequency and scope of periodic maintenance of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam:
a) are included in the IBWR documentation,
b) are included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine,
c) is determined by the owner of the machine/technical device.226. The operating and maintenance manual for a machine/technical device is:
a) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device, which includes, among others, IBWR,
b) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device,
c) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by the health and safety services on the construction site.227. The operator of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam must not:
a) use the machine/technical device contrary to its intended purpose,
b) during operation, check the technical condition of the machine/technical device,c) make any repairs or maintenance.228. A symptom of too low a level of hydraulic oil may be:
a) "jerky" intermittent movement of hydraulic actuators,
b) uneven operation of the diesel engine,c) loud operation of the starter.229. If the warning light for too low engine oil pressure comes on, the operator:
a) does not have to take any action,
b) should stop working and turn off the engine,
c) can continue working if the hydraulic system is functioning properly.230. The operating and maintenance manual for a machine/technical device:
a) is established by the owner or user of the machine,
b) includes, among other things, information about hazards during the operation of the machine/technical device,
c) is used to record information about faults.231. The CE Declaration of Conformity is a document:
a) confirming that the product was manufactured in the countries of the European Union,
b) in which the manufacturer confirms that their product meets all applicable EU requirements regarding safety, health protection, and the environment,
c) issued by institutions that test machines for resistance to weather conditions.232. The operator can find information on the use of personal protective equipment and ways to reduce occupational risk:
a) in the service book,b) in the CE Declaration of Conformity,
c) in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device.
233. The operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device:
a) is created by institutions that conduct testing and accreditation of machine/technical device prototypes before allowing them for serial production,b) is created by the construction manager based on information from the manufacturer,
c) is developed by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device or the entity that places the machine/technical device on the market.
234. The operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device:
a) should be located in the machine or with the technical device, treated as part of the machine/technical device, and be available at all times,
b) does not matter where it is located, the most important thing is that the owner of the machine has it in case of resale of the machine,c) should be located in the office along with the company's documentation and be available in case of inspection.235. Identification data of the machine/technical device:
a) should be noted on the inner side of the protective helmet assigned to the given machine/technical device,b) due to their importance are always printed in red,
c) are located on the nameplate of the machine/technical device, and may additionally be in the marking places described in the manual.
236. To minimize the risk of machine/technical device failure, the operator should:
a) use the machine/technical device until the failure becomes serious,
b) regularly visually assess the condition of the machine/technical device and report any irregularities noticed,
c) perform maintenance activities only when the machine/technical device stops working.237. The rules for safely performing technical servicing on machines are:
a) the machine should be positioned on level ground, working equipment lowered to the ground, engine turned off, and the key removed from the ignition,
b) the machine can be left on a sloped area, provided the operator plans a short technical service,c) the engine may remain on to conduct servicing faster, especially if the machine is running idle.238. Breaking in a machine during the initial period of operation is:
a) the process of achieving optimal clearances and even wear of parts,
b) an intensive full load test of the machine,c) a stage of the machine's operation without load.239. The operator uses the operating and maintenance manual of the machine or technical device to:
a) record all faults of the machine or technical device noticed during operation,b) log the hours worked and fuel consumption of the machine,
c) learn the technical specifications, safety rules, and methods for repairing faults.
240. The maintenance section of the operating and maintenance manual of the machine or technical device includes:
a) a detailed description of the construction and operation of all elements of the machine/technical device,
b) instructions regarding, among others, controlling the machine/technical device,
c) a catalog of spare parts.241. The operating and maintenance manual must always be present with the machine/technical device because:
a) it minimizes the risk of it being lost,
b) its absence may be the reason for the operator not allowing the machine to work by the health and safety inspector,
c) it is essential for periodic technical inspections.242. As part of the servicing activities of the tracked chassis of the pile driver, it is necessary to regularly check:
a) only the condition of the brake and running rollers,
b) the tension of the tracks, the oil level in the gearboxes, the condition of the chassis, and leaks,
c) the fuel level and coolant in the engine.243. The SAE designation on the oil refers to:
a) the viscosity of the engine oil, that is, its ability to flow and lubricate,
b) the pressure of the engine oil,c) the multi-season qualification of the oil.244. Oil with the symbol SAE 15W-40 means that:
a) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 15W, and at positive temperatures of summer oil class SAE 40,
b) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40,c) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 15W.245. Oil with the symbol SAE 10W-30 means that:
a) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 30,
b) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W, and at positive temperatures of summer oil class SAE 30,
c) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W.246. The SAE 10W-30 symbol means:
a) multi-season engine oil with specified parameters,
b) hydraulic oil with specified parameters,c) a mixture of engine oil and hydraulic oil.247. Engine oil with the SAE 5W-40 symbol means that:
a) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40,b) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 5W,
c) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 5W, and at positive temperatures of summer oil class SAE 40.
248. The symbol of the warning light shown in the graphic means:
a) low engine oil pressure,
b) low engine oil level,
c) low coolant level.
249. The symbol of the warning light shown in the graphic means:
a) low coolant level,
b) low engine oil pressure,
c) low fuel level.
250. The symbol of the warning light shown means:
a) engine oil,
b) hydraulic oil,c) engine oil filter.
251. The presented symbol of the indicator means:
a) engine oil level,
b) engine coolant level,c) hydraulic oil level.252. Oils with designations 70W, 85W, 80W-90 are:
a) brake oils,b) engine oils,
c) gear oils.
253. In the case of the need to dismantle the cover/protection for maintenance, it is not allowed to:
a) reassemble the cover/protection,b) record such a fact in the documentation,
c) start working with the technical device without installing the cover/protection.
254. The lighting of the battery charging indicator signals to the operator of the construction machine a failure of:
a) the starter,b) the battery switch,
c) the V-belt and/or alternator.
255. The operator's seat cannot be adjusted when:
a) the seat is turned backwards,
b) the machine is in motion,
c) the engine is not started.256. If during daily technical service before work the operator notices that one of the windows in the cabin is cracked, then:
a) should not start work,
b) can start work if it is not the front window,c) can start work provided that the window is only cracked and has not "fallen out".257. Before starting work, the operator should:
a) open the windows for better communication,b) install sun shields on the windows,
c) clean the windows by removing snow, ice, and other contaminants.
258. When changing hydraulic oils, one should:
a) use any type of oil,b) always use only biodegradable oils,
c) use only types of oils that are recommended by the machine manufacturer.
259. To ensure the technical efficiency of the working machine, one should:
a) use the machine/technical device only under full load,b) use the machine/technical device not exceeding 50% of the permissible load,
c) adhere to technical service and maintenance according to the operating and maintenance instructions.
260. At the construction site, empty containers of lubricants, oil filters, and used oils should be:
a) thrown into the mixed waste container,
b) placed in a properly marked hazardous waste container,
c) thrown into any waste container.261. Stickers (pictograms) located on the machine/technical device serve to:
a) indicate places where one can stay without any risk,
b) convey important information about safety and the use of the machine/technical device,
c) inform about the prohibition of approaching the machine/technical device.262. Lubrication points in the machine should be serviced:
a) according to the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine,
b) during all breaks in work,c) always after 10 hours of operation.263. Engine oil with parameters 5W-50 is:
a) only summer oil,b) only winter oil,
c) multi-season oil.
264. Before starting work on a new type of machine/technical device, the operator should:
a) perform a test run,b) conduct a periodic inspection,
c) familiarize themselves with the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine/technical device.
265. OTC service is:
a) temporary technical service,b) round-the-clock technical service,
c) daily technical service.
266. Basic types of service are:
a) visual service, active, passive,b) round-the-clock service, multi-seasonal, annual, technological,
c) daily service, periodic, warehouse, transport.
267. Batteries, when starting the machine using a supporting battery, should be connected:
a) in series,
b) in parallel,
c) crosswise.268. In the case of electrolyte loss caused by spillage through a cracked battery casing, one should:
a) add electrolyte to the proper level and charge the battery,b) add demineralized water to a level 10 mm above the upper edges of the plates,
c) secure the leak area in terms of environmental protection, and then replace the battery.
269. The activities performed by the operator as part of daily service during work are:
a) replenishing operating fluids and daily lubrication,b) cleaning the machine,
c) auditory control of the machine's operation and observation of indicators.
270. If the manufacturer has provided for operational running-in, it should be carried out:
a) with maximum load,b) without load,
c) with the recommended load in the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine/technical device.
271. During the loading of the machine onto the transport vehicle, the operator should:
a) know the maximum speed allowed for the given transport vehicle,b) perform the approach at a speed of at least 5 [km/h],
c) know the permissible angle of inclination of the approach plates for the given machine.
272. The responsibility for the placement and securing of the machine on the transport vehicle lies with:
a) the owner or the person responsible for the machines in the company,
b) the carrier (e.g. driver),
c) the machine operator.273. When storing the machine, one should ensure that:
a) no machine documents are left in the cabin,b) the machine is facing the exit,
c) there are no leaks of operating fluids.
274. Securing the machine during storage downtime involves:
a) disassembling all filters and protecting them from moisture,b) filling the hydraulic oil tank to the top,
c) cleaning the machine of dirt and corrosion.
275. The rods of hydraulic cylinders, during the technical maintenance of the stored machine, should be:
a) disassembled and cleaned,
b) protected against corrosion,
c) disassembled and the seals replaced.276. During the loading of the machine onto the transport vehicle:
a) assistance from a second person is recommended only when loading onto a low-loader trailer,b) the operator should drive onto the transport vehicle independently,
c) assistance from a second person is recommended.
277. The recommended method for loading heavy working machines onto low-loader trailers is:
a) loading on ropes,b) loading using other machines,
c) mechanized loading from the front ramp.
278. During longer storage of the machine, the fuel tank should be:
a) empty, to avoid fire hazards,
b) filled to the top, to prevent condensation of water vapor inside the tank,
c) filled to 1/3 of its capacity and left open.279. During daily operation of the machine, the condition of should be checked:
a) the working pressure values in the hydraulic system,b) tools and equipment,
c) connections and tightness of the hydraulic system.
280. If the machine's engine has not been running for a longer time during daily operation, you should:
a) check the oil level and other operating fluids,
b) start the engine and gently increase the RPM to reach the operating temperature faster,c) replace the fuel pre-filter.281. Information regarding faults, their codes, and methods of removal can be found in the document titled:
a) construction machine book,b) daily report,
c) operating and maintenance manual.
282. The correct sequence for connecting the auxiliary battery to the discharged battery in the machine is as follows:
a) negative terminal of the battery in the machine, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, machine frame,
b) positive terminal of the battery in the machine, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, machine frame,
c) machine frame, positive terminal of the battery in the machine, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery.283. In the event of electrolyte loss in the battery, one should:
a) replenish it with DOT-3 fluid,b) replenish it with water other than distilled,
c) replenish it with distilled or demineralized water.
284. Checking the charge state of the 12 [V] starter battery by "sparking" poses a risk of:
a) explosion of hydrogen escaping from the battery,
b) electric shock from high voltage,c) seizure of the alternator.285. The scope of daily technical service of the machine does not include:
a) checking and adjusting valve clearances,
b) checking the oil level in the engine,c) checking the condition of the tires and tire pressure.286. When cleaning the radiator, to avoid damaging it, one should:
a) use a strong stream of water under high pressure,
b) keep the compressed air nozzle at an appropriate distance from the radiator,
c) use sharp tools for cleaning.287. The purpose of lubrication in working machines is:
a) to raise the temperature of cooperating elements,
b) to reduce friction,
c) to increase the engine's rotational speed.288. The most commonly used type of fuses in electrical installations of working machines is:
a) fuse links,
b) residual current devices,c) automatic fuses.289. The phenomenon of electrostatic discharge during refueling a machine can lead to:
a) fire,
b) poisoning,c) short circuit of the electrical installation.290. In the case of parallel connection of two batteries with different rated voltages:
a) thicker cables should be used than with batteries of the same rated voltages,b) both batteries may discharge,
c) the battery with the lower rated voltage may explode.
291. The correct way to connect the battery to the charger during charging is:
a) positive terminal of the battery to the negative terminal of the charger, negative terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger,b) positive terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger, negative terminal of the charger to the "ground" machine,
c) positive terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger, negative terminal of the battery to the negative terminal of the charger.
292. After connecting the battery, the terminals are lubricated with:
a) graphite grease,b) grease containing molybdenum disulfide,
c) technical vaseline.
293. One of the goals of warehouse management is:
a) to protect the machine from corrosion and other harmful factors during long-term storage,
b) to repair damaged machine components before the next season,c) to prepare the machine for transport for the future user.294. If during daily technical service the operator notices a leak in the cooling system, they should:
a) organize fluid and refill to the minimum level if the leak is small,b) refill the coolant and continue working,
c) report the leak and not use the machine until it is repaired.
295. The level of coolant in the expansion tank should be checked:
a) only during periodic technical service,
b) during every daily technical service,
c) only in case of engine overheating.296. If the operator notices a hydraulic fluid leak during daily technical service, he should:
a) report the leak and not use the machine until it is repaired,
b) top up the oil and continue working,c) reduce the RPM and continue working.297. The frequency of performing periodic technical service depends on:
a) the number of hours worked (engine hours),
b) the number of completed working cycles,c) the production date of the machine.298. If during daily technical service the operator notices a low level of engine oil, he should:
a) start working if the level is not very low and the warning light is not on,b) top up the level with any available oil, even if it is of a different type,
c) top up the oil to the appropriate level.
299. A characteristic activity for seasonal technical service is:
a) checking the charging voltage value,
b) replacing the coolant with one suitable for the season,
c) checking the working pressure value of the hydraulic system.300. The basic service activities that should be performed before starting a diesel engine are:
a) bleeding the fuel system, checking the level of transmission oil, checking the starter,b) checking the level of oil in the gearbox, checking the operation of the working system, checking the operation of the brakes,
c) checking the level of oil in the engine, checking the level of coolant, checking the condition of the air filter.
301. Activities performed as part of daily technical service (OTC) carried out during the operation of the machine are:
a) observation of control and measurement instruments and monitoring the proper operation of the machine using sight, hearing, and smell,
b) primarily organoleptic control of the proper functioning of the machine's working system,c) observation only of control and measurement indicators such as: oil pressure, engine temperature, hydraulic oil temperature.302. We distinguish, among others, the following types of technical services:
a) transport, arrival, storage, service-repair (ON), catalog,