Back
Testy UDT

Single-bucket excavators class I

Study mode

Question of 404

1. The presence of people between the wall of the excavation and the excavator, even when stationary, is:

a) allowed,

b) prohibited,

c) allowed for a short time.

2. What is the minimum allowable distance of the machine from the reach of the failure wedge?

a) 0.4 [m],

b) 0.6 [m],

c) 0.8 [m].

3. The safe distance of the machine from the excavation is:

a) 1.6 [m],b) depth of the excavation + 0.6 [m],

c) reach of the failure wedge + 0.6 [m].

Question 4 - illustration

4. Based on the provided table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] made in cohesive soils:

a) 1 [m],b) 2.6 [m],

c) 1.6 [m].

Question 5 - illustration

5. Based on the provided table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] made in fractured rocks:

a) 2.6 [m],b) 4.6 [m],

c) 3.6 [m]. Single-bucket excavators Class I

Question 6 - illustration

6. Based on the presented table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] made in slightly cohesive soils:

a) 2.6 [m],b) 3.6 [m],

c) 3.1 [m].

7. What is the minimum safe distance from the UPPER edge of the embankment that the machine can approach, for the following data: Soil category - I (dry sand), height of the embankment - h = 2 [m], horizontal distance between the upper and lower edges of the embankment - a = 2.5 [m]?

a) 1.1 [m],

b) 3.6 [m],c) 0.6 [m].

8. What is the minimum safe distance from the UPPER edge of the embankment that the machine can approach, for the following data: Soil category - II (slightly cohesive soils), height of the embankment - h = 4 [m], horizontal distance between the upper and lower edges of the embankment - a = 2.5 [m]?

a) 0.6 [m],

b) 3.1 [m],

c) 5.6 [m].

9. What is the horizontal distance measured from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage not exceeding 1 [kV] in which the operation of a machine or technical device is permitted?

a) not less than 3 [m],

b) not less than 2 [m],c) not less than 5 [m].

10. What is the horizontal distance measured from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV] in which the operation of a machine or technical device is permitted?

a) not less than 5 [m],

b) not less than 15 [m],c) not less than 10 [m].

11. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?

a) not less than 15 [m],

b) not less than 10 [m],

c) not less than 5 [m].

12. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?

a) not less than 20 [m],b) not less than 10 [m],

c) not less than 15 [m].

13. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?

a) not less than 10 [m],

b) not less than 30 [m],

c) not less than 15 [m].

14. Is it possible to organize workstations in the danger zone under overhead power lines?

a) yes, but only after meeting additional requirements,

b) yes, always,c) no, never.
Question 15 - illustration

15. What is the safe distance X for the operation of a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [V]?

a) not less than 30 [m],

b) not less than 3 [m],

c) not less than 5 [m].
Question 16 - illustration

16. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV]?

a) at least 10 [m],b) at least 15 [m],

c) at least 5 [m].

Question 17 - illustration

17. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?

a) at least 30 [m],b) at least 15 [m],

c) at least 10 [m].

Question 18 - illustration

18. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?

a) at least 5 [m],

b) at least 10 [m],

c) at least 15 [m].
Question 19 - illustration

19. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV]?

a) at least 15 [m],

b) at least 50 [m],c) at least 30 [m].
Question 20 - illustration

20. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV]?

a) at least 30 [m],b) at least 15 [m],

c) at least 10 [m].

Question 21 - illustration

21. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]?

a) at least 3 [m],b) at least 40 [m],

c) at least 30 [m].

22. Work in the danger zone (overhead high voltage power line):

a) may be carried out provided that the line is disconnected from the voltage, work is performed in an area limited by groundings and at least one grounding is visible from the work site,

b) may be carried out provided that permission from the work manager has been granted,c) may not be carried out under any circumstances under electric lines in the danger zone.
Question 23 - illustration

23. The operator is to perform work at a distance X from an active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [V]. He can start work if this distance is:

a) 2 [m],b) 1 [m],

c) 5 [m].

Question 24 - illustration

24. The operator is to perform work at a distance X from an active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]. He can start work if this distance is:

a) 15 [m],

b) 5 [m],c) 3 [m].
Question 25 - illustration

25. The operator is to perform work at a distance X from an active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]. He can start work if this distance is:

a) 5 [m],b) 15 [m],

c) 50 [m].

26. If the injured person has a detectable pulse but is not breathing, then:

a) chest compressions should be performed,

b) the airways should be cleared and artificial respiration should be started,

c) they should not be touched.

27. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, one should primarily:

a) give the injured medication,b) move away from the accident scene to call a doctor,

c) provide assistance to those in life-threatening situations.

28. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, one should primarily:

a) provide assistance to those in life-threatening situations,b) move away from the accident scene to call a doctor,

c) ensure one's own safety.

29. The obligation to provide first aid to accident victims rests with:

a) everyone, but criminal liability always threatens for mistakes made,

b) everyone, as part of the rescue tasks can always be performed,

c) only those who have medical training.

30. The accident victim regained consciousness after a few minutes and wants to go home. In such a situation, one should:

a) encourage them to stay and call for medical help,

b) give them something to drink and pain relief medication,c) allow them to go home, recommending a visit to a doctor.

31. First aid in a situation where a foreign body has entered the eye of the injured person consists of:

a) rinsing with clean water directing the stream from the nose outward from the eye,

b) rinsing the eye with eye drops,c) rinsing with distilled water directing the stream into the eye.

32. The injured person has cut their leg on an unsecured sharp object. Providing first aid in this situation is:

a) using sterile gauze, wrapping the wound with a bandage,

b) using a tourniquet,c) sticking a plaster directly on the wound.

33. Suspecting spinal injury in a person who has fallen from a height and is conscious, one should:

a) place them in a stable side position,b) sit them in a semi-reclining position,

c) not move them and wait for medical services to arrive.

34. To move away from the place where the electric wire has been broken and the area is under voltage, one should:

a) quickly, with large steps, move away from the source of electric shock lifting feet high,

b) leave the place slowly, with small steps, trying to maintain continuous contact of the feet with the ground,

c) run as fast as possible to a place that we assess as safe.

35. First aid in the case of a first-degree burn is:

a) pouring cold water on the burned area,

b) applying greasy cream to the burned area,c) applying ointment to the burned area.

36. During work, a high voltage power line was torn down, as a result of which a colleague was electrocuted. In this situation, the correct behavior is:

a) approach the injured person to provide first aid,b) call other colleagues for help with the injured person,

c) turn off the power source as quickly as possible.

37. We perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation until:

a) the fire brigade arrives and secures the area,

b) we have determined that the victim has started breathing and circulation has returned,

c) 10 minutes have passed.

38. Immediate action in the case of severe bleeding from an injured upper limb includes:

a) lowering the limb below the level of the heart,

b) applying a dressing, directly compressing the bleeding site, and elevating the limb,

c) disinfecting the wound with salicylic alcohol.

39. In the case of a nosebleed, one should:

a) lay the injured person on their back,b) tilt the head back and place a cold compress on the neck,

c) lean the bleeding person's head forward and pinch the nostrils.

40. The first step in dealing with a victim of carbon monoxide poisoning in a closed room is:

a) assessing ABC,

b) the quickest possible evacuation of the injured person from that room,

c) conducting a preliminary examination.

41. First aid during seizures caused by an epileptic attack consists of:

a) placing a wooden object in the injured person's mouth to prevent biting the tongue,b) seating the injured person in a semi-sitting position and giving them something to drink,

c) protecting the injured person's head from injuries.

42. In case of suspected spinal injury in the cervical region in a conscious person, one should:

a) place the injured person in a lateral position,b) seat the injured person on a chair with a high backrest,

c) not allow the injured person to move their head.

43. The most important thing when a person is buried under earth, sand, or gravel is:

a) locating the injured person,

b) waiting for the ambulance to arrive,c) notifying the family.

44. First aid for a person with a metal rod embedded in their lower leg consists of calling for help and:

a) securing the rod to prevent movement,

b) moving the rod to check if the artery has been damaged,c) removing the embedded rod.

45. The indication for using an AED defibrillator is:

a) severe chest pain,

b) absence of detectable breath and pulse in the injured person,

c) severe dizziness.

46. During the operation of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam, the prohibited activities are:

a) performing daily technical service (OTC),b) changing the working tool,

c) making structural changes to the machine/technical device.

47. During the operation of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam, the prohibited activities are:

a) cleaning the machine/technical device using a product compliant with the operating and maintenance instructions,b) refueling the machine/technical device from a canister,

c) cleaning the machine/technical device using gasoline or solvents whose vapors can create flammable/explosive gas mixtures with air.

48. During earthworks with the machine for which you are taking the exam, it is unacceptable to:

a) extend the machine's blade towards the excavation,

b) position the machine within the reach of the debris wedge,

c) use the machine's blade at a safe distance from the excavation.

49. During earthworks with the machine for which you are taking the exam, it is unacceptable to:

a) use the machine on clay soils at air temperatures above 30°C,

b) use the machine on clay soils during heavy rain,

c) use the machine on clay soils at air temperatures below -5°C.

50. During earthworks with the machine for which you are taking the exam, it is acceptable to:

a) activate the machine's rotation mechanism while filling the working container with soil,b) create overhangs when performing excavations,

c) perform deep excavations if the machine is at a safe distance from the excavation.

51. During earthworks with the machine for which you are taking the exam, it is unacceptable to:

a) have people nearby the machine during technical service operations,

b) have people within the range of the machine's working tool,

c) have people at a distance greater than the maximum reach of the working tool plus 6 meters.

52. During work, it is unacceptable to:

a) work near active overhead power lines at a distance less than specified by regulations,

b) work near an active power line with a rated voltage of 20 [kV] at a distance of 15 [m],c) work near an active power line with a rated voltage of 10 [kV] at a distance of 10 [m].

53. During narrow-space excavations with the machine for which you are taking the exam, it is unacceptable to:

a) have cooperating persons in the secured part of the excavation,b) use hand tools for excavations by cooperating persons,

c) have cooperating persons in the unsecured part of the excavation, even if they have personal protective equipment.

54. During earthworks in marshy or waterlogged areas:

a) the machine is placed in the same way as on other grounds,

b) the machine is placed on stable and permanently connected supports,

c) the machine is placed as on other grounds, only we do not consider the distance from the failure wedge.

55. The machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam may only be operated by:

a) a person who has completed training and obtained a positive result in the test conducted by the commission appointed by the Łukasiewicz Research Network – Warsaw Institute of Technology,

b) a person with written confirmation of course completion in the form of a plastic card,c) any adult person with technical education and a driver's license of the appropriate category.

56. The permissions to operate machines/technical devices for which you are taking the exam are issued by:

a) The County Office appropriate for the address of the person applying for the permissions,b) The Office of Technical Inspection (UDT),

c) The Research Network Łukasiewicz - Warsaw Institute of Technology (SBŁ - WIT).

57. The permissions to operate machines/technical devices for which you are taking the exam:

a) are valid for 10 years from the date of issue,

b) are valid indefinitely,

c) are valid for 5 years from the date of issue.

58. A person holding permissions to operate: "Single-bucket excavators class I" based on them:

a) can operate a single-bucket excavator with an operational mass exceeding 25 [t] and a single-bucket excavator up to 25 [t] operational mass,

b) can operate a single-bucket excavator with an operational mass exceeding 25 [t] and a backhoe loader up to 8 [t] operational mass,c) can operate only a single-bucket excavator with an operational mass exceeding 25 [t].

59. An employee operating a machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam can start work provided that:

a) has a valid category D driving license,

b) has permissions to operate this type of machine/technical device,

c) the machine/technical device has a valid UDT inspection.

60. In the event of a threat to life, health, property, or the environment caused by a malfunction of the machine/technical device, the operator:

a) continues working but informs the supervisor about the situation at the end of the shift,b) continues working but makes an appropriate entry in the maintenance book at the end of the shift,

c) immediately stops work and informs the supervisor about this fact.

61. Lifting and transporting people using working equipment:

a) is possible, but only outside the public road area,b) requires the consent of the construction manager,

c) is always prohibited.

62. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam has the right to refuse to work when:

a) there is an overhead power line with a rated voltage of 110 [kV] at a distance of 35 meters,

b) this work requires special psychophysical fitness, and his psychophysical state does not ensure its safe performance and poses a threat to others,

c) he has the required personal protective equipment.

63. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is obliged to stop work when:

a) he has the required personal protective equipment,

b) the work he is performing poses an immediate threat to the health or life of others,

c) there is an overhead power line at a distance of 35 meters.

64. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is obliged to:

a) independently perform all current repairs of the machine/technical device,

b) comply with the provisions of the operating and maintenance instructions for the machine/technical device,

c) always have a category B driving license.

65. The person directly responsible for the safe operation of the machine for which you are taking the exam is:

a) the machine operator,

b) the construction manager,c) the owner of the machine.

66. The operator's book and qualifications for the machine/technical device you are taking the exam for are issued by:

a) Research Network Łukasiewicz - Warsaw Institute of Technology,

b) Office of Technical Inspection (UDT),c) Transport Technical Supervision (TDT).

67. The obligation to use personal protective equipment:

a) arises from the operating and maintenance instructions and health and safety regulations,

b) does not apply on hot days,c) arises only from internal regulations.

68. An employee who witnesses an accident at work:

a) is obliged to assist the victims and then immediately leave the accident site,b) it is enough to notify the supervisor,

c) is obliged to assist the victims, notify the supervisor, and if necessary secure the accident site.

69. What elements of the machine you are taking the exam for protect the operator in case of the machine overturning:

a) machine seat,

b) ROPS-type machine cabin and safety belts,

c) certified protective helmet and reflective vest.

70. In the event of loss of stability by a machine equipped with a ROPS-type cabin, the operator should:

a) quickly turn left and raise the working equipment as high as possible,

b) maintain a sitting position while holding on tightly to the steering wheel or other stable elements in the cabin,

c) try to leave the cabin as quickly as possible (before the machine overturns).

71. In the case of loss of stability by a machine equipped with a ROPS cabin, the operator should:

a) turn on the warning/hazard lights,b) immediately jump out of the cabin,

c) stay in the cabin.

72. We define the danger zone as:

a) a place where there are threats to the health and life of people,

b) a place where work requiring specialized equipment is carried out, and the presence of people is only allowed at night,c) a place where employees must only wear protective helmets.

73. The danger zone on a construction site:

a) is designated and/or fenced and marked in a way that prevents access to unauthorized persons,

b) is designated after the construction work has started,c) is always designated by a surveyor.

74. The area that the operator should check and secure before starting work with a machine/technical device (because there are threats to the health and life of people) is called:

a) a high-risk zone,

b) a danger zone,

c) a blind spot.
Question 75 - illustration

75. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:

a) "turn the machine",b) "lower down",

c) "raise up".

Question 76 - illustration

76. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:

a) "turn the machine",b) "lift up",

c) "lower down".

Question 77 - illustration

77. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:

a) "turn the machine",

b) "movement in the indicated direction",

c) "lift up".
Question 78 - illustration

78. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:

a) "lift up",

b) "movement in the indicated direction",

c) "turn the machine".
Question 79 - illustration

79. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:

a) "stop",

b) "horizontal distance",

c) "end of operation".
Question 80 - illustration

80. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:

a) "move backward",

b) "move forward",

c) "fast movement".
Question 81 - illustration

81. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:

a) "movement backward",

b) "slow movement",c) "movement forward".
Question 82 - illustration

82. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:

a) "end of operation",b) "stop",

c) "vertical distance".

Question 83 - illustration

83. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:

a) "STOP. Emergency stop",

b) "movement backward",c) "horizontal distance".
Question 84 - illustration

84. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:

a) "movement backward",b) "STOP. Emergency stop",

c) "START. Beginning of directing".

Question 85 - illustration

85. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:

a) "STOP. Break - end of movement",

b) "STOP. Emergency stop",c) "movement backward".
Question 86 - illustration

86. The manual signal shown in the drawing means:

a) "horizontal distance",b) "lower down",

c) "END. Stop operation".

87. During the charging of batteries, a gas with very explosive properties is released. This gas is:

a) hydrogen,

b) methane,c) ethane.

88. Firefighting foam can be used to extinguish fires of group:

a) C and D,b) only C,

c) A and B.

89. Improper use of a snow extinguisher can result in:

a) burns from the extinguisher components,b) fainting,

c) frostbite caused by the extinguishing agent.

90. Water, fire blanket, powder extinguisher, carbon dioxide, sand are extinguishing agents that we will use to extinguish:

a) liquids,b) oils,

c) solids.

91. Sorbents can be called:

a) fire blankets,b) petroleum substances,

c) materials made of natural or synthetic polymers that absorb liquids.

92. Group A fires concern:

a) solid bodies, whose normal combustion occurs with the formation of glowing coals, e.g. wood, paper, etc.,

b) flammable gases,c) flammable liquids.

93. Group B fires concern:

a) metals, e.g. magnesium, sodium, potassium, aluminum, titanium, etc.,b) flammable gases,

c) liquids and solid materials that melt, e.g. plastics, fuels, oils, etc..

94. Group C fires concern:

a) gases, e.g. methane, propane, acetylene, hydrogen,

b) flammable liquids,c) solid bodies.
Question 95 - illustration

95. Seeing such a pictogram you are informed about:

a) danger zone,

b) assembly point during evacuation,

c) a larger number of people in a given area.
Question 96 - illustration

96. During work, you noticed a sign marked 'Zone 0'. It informs about:

a) the zone of existing fire load in the building,

b) the space where an explosive atmosphere exists,

c) the zone of existing fire hazard category.
Question 97 - illustration

97. The presented pictogram informs about:

a) a set of fire protection equipment,

b) an internal hydrant,c) the main power switch.
Question 98 - illustration

98. Seeing such a pictogram, you are informed about:

a) the assembly point during evacuation,b) the location of first aid,

c) the emergency exit.

Question 99 - illustration

99. Seeing such a pictogram, you are informed about:

a) high temperature affecting the extinguisher,b) the prohibition of using the extinguisher,

c) the location of the extinguisher.

100. You see a person whose clothing is on fire and who is fleeing in panic. Your reaction is:

a) you wave your arms or outer covering strongly next to him to extinguish the burning clothing,

b) you try to stop him, lay him on the ground, and start extinguishing,

c) you tell him to wait in an upright position for the arrival of rescue services.

101. Electrical devices and installations can be extinguished using:

a) water,b) foam extinguishers,

c) powder or snow extinguishers.

102. Burning fuel can be extinguished using:

a) low-octane ethylene,b) water,

c) powder, foam, or snow extinguishers.

103. Clothing burning on a person can be extinguished using:

a) water mist extinguisher or fire blanket,

b) snow or powder extinguisher,c) plastic material.

104. What obligations does an employee have when they decide to refrain from work due to health and safety regulations?

a) They should organize work for others,b) They have no obligations in this situation,

c) They must immediately notify their supervisor.

105. How can an operator prevent hazards in the workplace?

a) By ignoring health and safety rules,b) By not reporting faults in machines,

c) By using personal protective equipment to minimize risk.

106. Which of the following situations is prohibited while operating a machine?

a) Carrying loads over people,

b) Reporting machine faults at regular intervals,c) Working near machines with appropriate signage.

107. It is not permissible to position the workplace directly under active overhead power lines or at a horizontal distance from the outermost conductors of less than:

a) for all voltages - 1 [m] from the power line,b) for lines: 1 [kV] - 1 [m], 15 [kV] - 3 [m], 30 [kV] - 5 [m], 110 [kV] - 10 [m],

c) for lines: 1 [kV] - 3 [m], 15 [kV] - 5 [m], 30 [kV] - 10 [m], 110 [kV] - 15 [m], 400 [kV] - 30 [m].

108. How does the operator know what personal protective equipment is required for a given machine/technical device?

a) The operator must independently choose the appropriate protective measures,

b) Information about the necessary personal protective equipment is included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine,

c) The choice of personal protective equipment depends on the opinion of colleagues at work.

109. The operator should refuse to perform a task when:

a) the work requires familiarization with the location of underground and above-ground utilities,b) the work is performed at night,

c) the work is inconsistent with the intended use of the machine/technical device.

110. The operator can prevent hazards while operating a machine/technical device by:

a) adhering to health and safety rules and following the operating instructions,

b) limiting the use of personal protective equipment,c) inattention and routine.

111. Which of the following situations is unacceptable during the use of a machine/technical device?

a) Operating the machine without supervision,b) Reporting faults directly to the supervisor,

c) Unauthorized persons being in the danger zone caused by the operation of the machine/technical device.

112. An accident at work is considered to be:

a) a sudden event, unrelated to the work being performed, caused by an external factor, resulting in injury or death,

b) a sudden event, related to the work being performed, caused by an external factor, resulting in injury or death,

c) a prolonged event, related to the work being performed, caused by an internal factor, resulting in equipment damage.

113. A fatal accident at work is considered to be an accident in which death occurred:

a) within a period not exceeding 6 months from the date of the accident,

b) after a period exceeding 6 months from the date of the accident,c) only at the moment of the accident.

114. It is prohibited to:

a) allow unauthorized persons within the reach of the machine's operation and work on slopes exceeding the permissible incline,

b) operate the machine after completing training and obtaining the appropriate qualifications,c) report noticed faults to the supervisor before starting work.

115. When getting on and off the machine, it is prohibited to:

a) intensively use handrails and steps,

b) use the control lever as support,

c) face the machine while getting on and off.

116. Occupational health and safety regulations require:

a) securing the working machine during breaks in its operation against accidental activation by unauthorized persons,

b) performing a warranty inspection of the working machine before the end of one year from its purchase,c) scrapping the old working machine within the time specified in its operating and maintenance manual, while complying with the requirements for the disposal of hazardous materials.

117. In the event of a person being electrocuted:

a) do not touch the injured person until the power source is disconnected,

b) immediately begin resuscitation, regardless of whether the power source has been disconnected,c) it is recommended to use any tools to disconnect the power, regardless of their actual purpose.

118. In the event of a person being buried under earth or sand:

a) they should be dug out as quickly as possible, if it is safe for the person undertaking the rescue action,

b) they should be dug out as quickly as possible regardless of one's own safety - it is about their life,c) we always calmly wait for rescue services - any attempt to help would be too dangerous.

119. Seeing a person whose clothing is on fire, the first thing to do is:

a) leave the injured person standing to facilitate air access and extinguish the flames faster,b) use a fire extinguisher, preferably a snow one, to extinguish the burning clothing, and then try to quickly tear off the melted clothing,

c) cut off the air supply by rolling the injured person or wrapping them in a fire blanket, wet clothing, or a wet blanket.

120. If during earthworks, objects difficult to identify are discovered, then:

a) earthworks can continue if a distance of at least 1 [m] is maintained from such an object,

b) further work is interrupted and the person supervising the earthworks is notified,

c) a danger zone with a radius of 6 [m] should be designated, beyond which normal work can resume.

121. In the case of finding an unexploded ordnance during earthworks, one should:

a) stop work, remove other workers from the danger zone, notify superiors, and secure the area,

b) try to carefully remove the unexploded ordnance from the workplace and continue working,c) ignore the unexploded ordnance if it does not pose a direct threat.

122. The wedge of soil collapse:

a) occurs when the slope of the embankment exceeds the angle of the natural slope of the soil,

b) occurs only when the soil is in a frozen state,c) is the area around the working machine extending a distance of 6 [m] beyond its farthest reach.

123. The reach of the soil collapse wedge:

a) depends on the speed of the machine's operation and the efficiency of the operator,

b) depends on the depth of the excavation and the category of the soil,

c) depends solely on the temperature of the soil.

124. The angle of the natural slope is:

a) the angle at which the soil will definitely slide by itself - depends solely on the temperature of that soil,b) the angle at which the machine can be safely operated - depends on the parameters of the given machine,

c) the maximum slope at which the soil can remain without sliding - depends, among other things, on the category of the soil.

125. The rules and method of marking works conducted on public roads 'under traffic':

a) is defined by the Temporary Traffic Organization Project, which presents the types and methods of placing road signs, traffic lights, sound signals, and traffic safety devices,

b) is defined solely by the decision of the construction manager, without the need to prepare an additional project,c) is defined by regulations concerning permanent road markings, which do not take into account temporary changes in traffic.

126. When carrying out work in the road lane:

a) one must familiarize oneself with the Safe Work Execution Instruction (IBWR) and use personal protective equipment such as hard hats, safety shoes, and high-visibility protective clothing,

b) employees can work without personal protective equipment as long as the work is short-term,c) vehicles used in the work can be unmarked if they are visible up close.

127. Soil block wedge:

a) is an area where the soil becomes unstable - its extent depends solely on the depth of the excavation, the type of soil does not matter here,

b) occurs when the slope angle exceeds the natural soil slope angle - its extent depends on the type of soil and the depth of the excavation or the height of the slope,

c) is the space around the machine, dependent on the working speed of the machine and its weight.

128. The natural slope angle is:

a) the maximum slope at which the soil can remain without sliding - it depends on the type of soil, e.g., moisture, cohesion, and grain size,

b) the slope at which any slope becomes unstable, regardless of the type of soil,c) the angle at which the machine can safely move on the embankment, regardless of the soil category.

129. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is performed:

a) only in the case of fainting and minor injuries, to improve blood circulation,b) when the injured person is breathing but unconscious, with no contact,

c) when the injured person is not breathing and there is no detectable pulse. For a non-professional rescuer, the absence of breathing is a sufficient basis to start resuscitation.

130. An employee has the right to refrain from performing work due to health and safety regulations, notifying their supervisor immediately in case:

a) working conditions pose an immediate threat to health or life,

b) working conditions do not pose a threat but are too difficult for them,c) the work they are performing has not been reported to the construction supervision.

131. Physical factors generating hazards in the workplace are:

a) lack of or inadequate training for employees,b) lack of appropriate medical examinations for the employee,

c) spilled lubricants, oils, and fuels.

132. Working with a machine/technical device is not allowed when:

a) its repair was carried out after dark,b) the second operator did not report an upcoming inspection,

c) it is malfunctioning.

133. Working near overhead power lines:

a) is possible without meeting additional requirements provided that certain distances depending on the rated voltage of the line are maintained,

b) always requires power to be turned off in the line,c) always requires double grounding of the line.

134. The operator is obliged to refuse to work if:

a) the working machine is malfunctioning,

b) they would have to work under power lines, and the power in them has been turned off and the line grounded,c) there is no construction manager or any other person authorized to supervise at the work site.

135. The danger zone from a machine/technical device is:

a) a place where the machine/technical device cannot be used,

b) a place where there are hazards to health or life of people,

c) always the entire fenced construction site.

136. Accidents at work can result from the poor technical condition of the working machine, for example:

a) injury to a limb, torso or head,

b) failure of the drive system,c) damage to the equipment.

137. Unacceptable behaviors are:

a) operating a faulty machine and working under the influence of alcohol,

b) working after dark in a well-lit place, with full concentration of the operator,c) performing daily maintenance of the machine after dark.

138. General rules for safely getting on and off the machine are:

a) a person should face the machine, remember the "three-point support" principle, and use only specially made steps and handrails,

b) using cables and levers as aids when getting on is permissible when the machine is turned off,c) one can descend backwards from the machine, but only when the steps are slippery.

139. The basic duties of an employee in terms of occupational health and safety are:

a) enforcing the provisions of the labor code regarding their rights, including payment for overtime worked,b) not being late for work, finishing on time, confirming presence at work in the manner accepted by the employer,

c) adhering to health and safety regulations and rules, taking care of the condition of machines and tools, maintaining order in the workplace, and using personal protective equipment.

140. In the case of a person electrocuted, after disconnecting the power source, one should:

a) move the injured person to another location as quickly as possible,

b) check the condition of the injured person, and if necessary: call for help, clear the airways, perform resuscitation, and use an AED if available,

c) leave the injured person alone if they have regained consciousness, without further action.

141. When a person buried under earth or sand is partially dug out, one should:

a) dig out the left arm as quickly as possible to check the pulse,b) focus on digging out the lower parts of the victim's body,

c) clear the airways as quickly as possible.

142. After extinguishing the flames on a person with burns and calling for help, one should:

a) use a snow extinguisher to cool the burn area,

b) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes without removing the fused clothing,

c) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes, first removing the fused clothing.

143. If the operator notices faults that may prevent the proper operation of the machine, then:

a) ignore the faults if the machine is currently working properly,

b) is obliged to refuse to start the machine and report this fact to the supervisor,

c) should continue working and repair the machine after completing the task.

144. For optical marking of works carried out in the road lane, the following are used:

a) traffic cones in red or orange color, and after dark, cones with white reflective stripes and separators,

b) only traffic lights, flashing,c) traffic cones in any clearly visible color and uniform red obstacles placed at the work site.

145. What markings should vehicles and machines used for work in the road lane have?

a) Vehicles should be equipped with yellow lights visible from at least 150 m, and machines on the roadway should be marked with road barriers with reflective elements and warning lights,

b) Vehicles should use lights of any color visible from a distance. Other machines do not need additional marking,c) Vehicles and machines should be marked only when working after dark. The method of marking is specified in the operating and maintenance instructions of the given machine.

146. The statement: "The operator's qualifications for the machine you are taking the exam for are sufficient to operate such a machine on public roads" is:

a) true, but only under normal air visibility conditions,

b) false,

c) true.
Question 147 - illustration

147. Seeing such a pictogram you are informed about:

a) the location where a first aid kit is available,

b) the location where an external automatic defibrillator is available,

c) the location for performing AED.

148. Properly performed cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) consists of:

a) connecting an external automatic defibrillator (AED) and following its instructions; CPR is not performed without AED,

b) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 100-120 times per minute to a depth of 5–6 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 30 compressions (breaths are not mandatory),

c) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 30-60 times per minute to a depth of 1–3 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 15 compressions (breaths are mandatory).

149. Material must not be stored in the natural wedge zone of the ground collapse:

a) when the excavation is deeper than 1.5 [m] regardless of its support,

b) when the walls of the excavation are unsupported,

c) always when the soil is sandy.

150. The Instruction for Safe Execution of Construction Works is:

a) a document confirming qualifications for operating machines and technical devices in earthworks, construction, and road works,

b) a document containing information regarding safety on the construction site,

c) a road plan in construction works.

151. The BIOZ plan means:

a) plan of the Safe Health Protection Instruction,

b) plan of Safety and Health Protection,

c) plan of Safety and Resource Definition.

152. A vehicle performing cleaning, repair, or modernization work on the road should send:

a) orange flashing signals,b) red flashing signals,

c) yellow flashing signals.

153. To be able to direct traffic during work in the road lane, it is required to:

a) have a valid certificate of completion of a traffic management course and be visible from a sufficient distance,

b) have qualifications to operate all machines working on the section to which traffic management applies,c) have qualifications to operate at least one of the machines and appropriate personal protective equipment.
Question 154 - illustration

154. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:

a) 1 [m],

b) 4 [m],c) 1.6 [m].
Question 155 - illustration

155. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:

a) 1 [m],b) 1.6 [m],

c) 1.5 [m].

Question 156 - illustration

156. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:

a) 1 [m],

b) 0.5 [m],

c) 1.6 [m].
Question 157 - illustration

157. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:

a) 1.6 [m],b) 2 [m],

c) 1 [m].

Question 158 - illustration

158. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:

a) 2 [m],

b) 1 [m],c) 1.6 [m].
Question 159 - illustration

159. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:

a) 3 [m],

b) 1 [m],c) 2 [m].
Question 160 - illustration

160. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:

a) 3 [m],b) 2.6 [m],

c) 4 [m].

Question 161 - illustration

161. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:

a) 1.6 [m],

b) 1 [m],c) 2.6 [m].
Question 162 - illustration

162. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:

a) 2.1 [m],

b) 6.6 [m],c) 3.6 [m].
Question 163 - illustration

163. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:

a) 4.6 [m],b) 2 [m],

c) 2.6 [m].

Question 164 - illustration

164. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:

a) 1.1 [m],

b) 2 [m],c) 2.6 [m].
Question 165 - illustration

165. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:

a) 2.6 [m],

b) 1.6 [m],

c) 2 [m].
Question 166 - illustration

166. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category III (cracked rocks) is:

a) 2 [m],b) 4.6 [m],

c) 2.6 [m].

Question 167 - illustration

167. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category III (cracked rocks) is:

a) 3.6 [m],

b) 2.1 [m],c) 3 [m].
Question 168 - illustration

168. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category III (cracked rocks) is:

a) 2.6 [m],b) 4 [m],

c) 4.6 [m].

169. Traffic safety devices used during work conducted in the road strip can be colored:

a) red, yellow-red, blue,b) white, green, blue,

c) white, red, yellow, and black.

170. Traffic safety devices used to secure and mark the location of work in the road strip should be visible:

a) only during the day,b) only at night,

c) during the day and at night.

171. Persons performing work in the area of 2-lane roads and highways should have:

a) red warning clothing,

b) class III high visibility clothing,

c) orange flashing lights.

172. Fencing with warning tape is permissible only for excavations up to a depth of:

a) 1.2 [m],

b) 0.5 [m],

c) 1.0 [m].

173. In the case of providing pedestrians with a passage over excavations during work in the road lane, pedestrian walkways with a handrail height of should be used:

a) 0.9 [m],b) 1.0 [m],

c) at least 1.1 [m].

174. In the case of the necessity to provide pedestrians with a passage over excavations during work in the road lane, pedestrian walkways with a width of should be used:

a) from 0.8 [m] to 1.0 [m],

b) at least 1.0 [m],

c) not greater than 1 [m].

175. During excavations in places accessible to persons not employed in these works, excavations should be secured at dusk and at night by:

a) railings equipped with red warning lights,

b) white-red warning tapes and orange warning lights,c) white-red warning tapes and warning cones.

176. Guardrails for protective barriers around excavations in areas accessible to persons not employed in these works should be located at a distance:

a) not less than 1.0 [m] from the edge of the uncovered excavation,

b) equal to at least the depth of the excavation from the edge of the uncovered excavation,c) not less than 1.0 [m] from the axis of the uncovered excavation.

177. Approaching the machine from the side of the boom by other persons is dangerous because:

a) the operator is required to observe the work area from the other side,b) the machine usually rotates to the right,

c) the boom limits the operator's field of vision from the cabin.

178. In a situation of danger, when the cabin doors cannot be opened:

a) one must not leave the cabin until help arrives,

b) the emergency/evacuation exit provided by the manufacturer should be used,

c) the space after removing the floor panel can be used as an emergency exit.

179. In the case of mechanical damage to the FOPS/ROPS cabin (e.g., denting of a cabin element) the operator:

a) can continue working if the cabin windows are intact,

b) should stop working and report the failure to the supervisor or the person responsible for machines in the company,

c) can repair the damage on their own without wasting time on downtime.

180. In the case of mechanical damage to the FOPS/ROPS cabin (e.g., denting of a cabin element) the operator:

a) can repair such damage on their own, but only based on the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine,b) can always repair such damage on their own,

c) cannot repair such damage on their own.

181. If the seat belt is damaged, you should:

a) report the damage and not start work until the belt is repaired or replaced,

b) exercise special caution while working,c) continue working and report the problem after finishing work.

182. The operator must wear a safety helmet while operating the machine when:

a) frequently leaning out of the cabin during work,b) working on demolition tasks using long booms,

c) working in a machine not equipped with a closed cabin.

183. Entering and exiting the machine should be done:

a) facing the machine, maintaining three points of contact,

b) backwards to the machine, using a three-step ladder,c) entering sideways while being careful of the devices in the cabin.

184. Prohibited activities during the operation and servicing of the machine or technical device include:

a) operating machines by persons without appropriate qualifications,

b) using machines on rocky ground during heavy rain,c) using machines with safety or signaling devices.

185. The site for earthworks should be:

a) permanently fenced,b) additionally compacted,

c) marked and designated.

186. Visible technical devices of underground infrastructure providing initial insight into their course are most often:

a) hydrant boxes, water shut-off boxes, manhole covers,

b) abandoned road frames where they pass through,c) graphic symbols applied to the road surface.

187. A construction excavation characterized by a width S ≤ 1.5 [m] and a length L>1.5 [m] is:

a) wide-space excavation,

b) narrow-space excavation,

c) pit excavation.

188. The correct position of the equipment of a crawler excavator when approaching an incline is:

a) equipment set as high as possible, no lower than 1 [m] from the ground,

b) equipment directed upwards about 0.2-0.5 [m] above the ground,

c) equipment directed downwards, close to the ground.

189. The operator can work, without the need for prior loosening, in soil:

a) of all categories above IV,b) categories V-VIII,

c) category I.

190. The minimum distance from the edge of the excavation with supported walls, in which spoil can be stored, is:

a) directly at the edge of the excavation, if the soil is dry,

b) 0.6 [m] from the edge of the excavation, if the spoil load has been taken into account in the selection of the support,

c) 0.3 [m] from the edge of the excavation, without additional conditions.

191. The optimal mutual positioning of the excavator and the transport vehicle during loading is:

a) the excavator should be slightly higher than the transport vehicle to minimize unnecessary movements, and the driver should remain outside the working area of the excavator,

b) the excavator and the transport vehicle should be positioned at the same height to prevent material movement,c) the transport vehicle should be positioned higher than the excavator to facilitate the unloading of the spoil.

192. A control excavation is:

a) an excavation carried out to determine the actual course of underground installations,

b) an excavation performed for the purpose of measuring the parameters of the construction machine,c) an excavation carried out solely to check the quality of the soil.

193. Examples of work classified as preparatory work before starting earthworks may include:

a) purchasing and storing materials and tools necessary for the work,b) daily operation of construction machines and technical devices,

c) preparing the area by removing obstacles, performing control trenches, and marking out the construction.

194. The basic methods of dewatering excavations are:

a) surface dewatering, deep dewatering, encircling drainage,

b) mechanical dewatering, natural dewatering, surface dewatering,c) extracting water by pumping, manual drying.

195. Soils, according to the degree of difficulty in their detachment, are divided into:

a) 10 categories,

b) 16 categories,

c) 4 categories.

196. The frontal method of performing an excavation with a machine equipped with a bucket attachment is used:

a) when the excavation has a cylindrical shape and a depth of more than 1.5 [m],b) when the machine works sideways along the edge of the excavation,

c) when the machine is positioned in the axis of the excavation and the excavation is performed linearly.

197. When overcoming inclines with a tracked excavator:

a) The drive wheel should be on the lower side, and the attachment directed according to the direction of ascent or descent,

b) The drive wheel should be positioned on the higher side, and the attachment always directed upwards,c) The drive wheel must be on the lower side only during descent; the attachment should always be as close to the ground as possible.

198. The operator of the machine should know the category of the soil on which they are working:

a) to know the requirements for operating the machine's chassis,

b) to calculate the safe distance for positioning the machine and the reach of the spoil wedge,

c) to be able to assess the depth of the excavation.

199. The correct positioning of the excavator's chassis relative to the excavation:

a) affects the efficiency and safety of work,

b) is only important for narrow-space excavations,c) allows for reduced fuel consumption.

200. During the loading of spoil onto the vehicle, the operator:

a) should not move the bucket with spoil over the vehicle's cabin,

b) can move the bucket with spoil over the vehicle's cabin if it speeds up the loading,c) can drop the spoil onto the transport medium from any height convenient for them.

201. The recommended tools for performing a control excavation near electrical installations are:

a) hand tools, preferably insulated,

b) only an excavator with standard equipment,c) any mechanical tools without depth restrictions.

202. An example of work classified as preparatory work for earthworks is:

a) installation of lighting devices and marking places for heavy machines,b) laying asphalt surfaces and installing fences,

c) performing control trenches, removing trees and shrubs, marking buildings on site.

203. Subsurface drainage consists of:

a) digging ditches around the excavation,

b) lowering the groundwater level using depression wells or needle filters,

c) pumping water from the bottom level of the excavation.

204. The term: "performance of a machine for earthworks" defines:

a) the level of engine load during the machine's operation over a unit of time,

b) the effect of the machine's work over a unit of time,

c) the amount of fuel consumed by the machine per hour of operation.

205. The performance of a machine for earthworks can be expressed:

a) in volume or mass units per unit of time e.g. [m³/h], [t/h],

b) in speed or revolutions per unit of time e.g. [km/h], [rpm], [rev./s],c) in pressure units [bar] or temperature [°C].

206. During the loading of large rock fragments onto a vehicle, a cushioning layer of rubble or sand should be used to:

a) balance the vehicle's load and improve its stability,b) speed up the later unloading of stones,

c) prevent the movement of stones and minimize the risk of damage to the cargo box.

207. When loading large stones onto a vehicle, one should remember to:

a) load stones directly onto the empty bottom of the cargo box and cover them with sand or rubble to stabilize them,b) drop stones from a great height to fit them into the sand or rubble spread on the bottom,

c) place a cushioning layer of sand or rubble at the bottom of the cargo box before loading the stones.

208. The pictograms that the operator should check before moving heavy objects refer to:

a) the maximum speed of the machine,

b) the maximum permissible loads for different positions of the machine,

c) the operating time of the machine on one tank of fuel.

209. A long-reach boom in excavator equipment is used, among other things, in:

a) performing narrow-space excavations,b) profiling low ditches,

c) demolition work at significant heights.

210. To ensure the stability of the machine while operating a single-bucket excavator with a long boom, one should:

a) perform working movements quickly, at maximum load,

b) smoothly control the machine,

c) work with the cylinders fully extended.

211. The tip of the hydraulic hammer when breaking the road surface should be:

a) pressed against the surface and raise the machine frame to a height of about 5 [cm],

b) set at a considerable distance from the surface to work more efficiently,c) raised to the maximum height to increase the impact force and improve stability.

212. The hydraulic hammer with the tip should be positioned relative to the forging surface:

a) at an angle of 45 [°],

b) at a right angle,

c) in a tilted position towards the machine to reduce stresses.

213. The lifespan of the tip of the hydraulic hammer can be increased by:

a) using it to lift heavy loads,

b) avoiding placing it in a crevice in the rock,

c) moving the tip away from the forged surface.

214. When working with a hydraulic hammer mounted on a single-bucket excavator arm, one should avoid:

a) forging hard materials, stones, and rocks,

b) moving objects or lifting loads,

c) forging perpendicularly to the surface.

215. When working with a hydraulic hammer, one should:

a) adjust the engine speed to typical - similarly to standard operation with excavator attachments,

b) increase the engine speed to maximum, which will increase the crushing force,c) increase the engine speed to maximum, which will lower the oil temperature and positively affect the hammer components.

216. Before starting work with a hydraulic hammer, one should:

a) briefly check the operation of the technical device working "dry" to warm up the chisel,b) perform proper daily maintenance and immediately proceed to work with the device,

c) warm up the machine and hydraulic system to ensure the oil reaches the required temperature.

217. For precise linear excavations in demanding terrain conditions, it is recommended to use:

a) a wide bucket to minimize excavation time,b) a perforated bucket,

c) a bucket that is about 40 [%] smaller in width than the nominal.

218. The operator during the vehicle loading cycle should:

a) fill the working container only halfway to avoid overload,b) avoid looking back while reversing the machine to continuously observe the material,

c) make smooth movements with the attachment and not move the working tool over the operator's cabin.

219. The soil obtained from the excavation is called a spoil:

a) regardless of future use,

b) when it is stored for later, e.g., for backfilling the excavation,

c) when it is used for compacting the area.

220. When working with a hydraulic hammer on a single-bucket crawler excavator, the operator should avoid:

a) working with the hammer set vertically and pressing the tool against the surface,

b) working with the hammer in a side position,

c) working with a lubricated chisel holder.

221. If the hydraulic hammer does not break the surface within 30 seconds of striking, you should:

a) move the hammer closer to the edge of the surface,

b) increase the striking speed while remaining in the same position,c) continue striking without changing position, increasing pressure on the tool.

222. If the machine is equipped with a hydraulic quick coupler to which the working equipment is connected, you should:

a) check the condition of the quick coupler and its connections to the working equipment daily,

b) periodically replace the quick coupler, at least once a month,c) check the quick coupler only when a leak appears at the connection.

223. Making sudden movements while working with a long boom can be dangerous because:

a) it causes excessive vibrations of the equipment, which can result in damage to the machine,

b) it can cause higher pressure in the cabin,c) it leads to a decrease in the load-bearing force of the working tool, which reduces the efficiency of the machine.

224. You can operate the machine with the cabin doors open:

a) only if the operating and maintenance manual of the machine allows for such possibility,

b) only when the air temperature exceeds 25 [°C],c) always.

225. The maximum load values that the operator can lift with the machine can be determined:

a) based on the information on the welded hook,b) through trial lifting,

c) based on the operating and maintenance manual.

226. The drive of hydraulic motors in the drive system of a single-bucket excavator is possible thanks to:

a) hydraulic accumulators,

b) the rotation column,

c) hydraulic actuators.

227. Disconnecting the working equipment with hydraulic drive from the quick coupler is related to:

a) bleeding the hydraulic system,

b) zeroing the hydraulic system,

c) relieving pressure from the central lubrication system.

228. Performing earthworks with excavator equipment using the under-bucket and over-bucket method with the same machine is possible thanks to:

a) replacing the working tool itself,b) replacing the arm of the working system,

c) rotating-tilting heads.

229. For the installation of rotating-tilting heads in the working system of an excavator, it is necessary to:

a) equip the boom arm with a reduction,b) install an additional tank with hydraulic oil,

c) equip the machine with additional free hydraulic lines.

230. The "floating" bucket/blade system:

a) operates on the principle of automatic adjustment to the terrain, which is possible thanks to a special hydraulic system,

b) protects the equipment from loss during drainage works,c) allows the machine to move smoothly on slopes.

231. The type of interchangeable working equipment used depends on whether:

a) the machine has undergone a periodic inspection,

b) the equipment is approved for use by the machine manufacturer,

c) the equipment has a CE certificate.

232. The course of underground land development must be marked before starting work in order to:

a) enable quick movement of machines in any direction,b) save time and reduce earthwork costs,

c) avoid the risk of damaging networks during work.

233. Which of the listed elements are not part of the hydraulic system:

a) starter, alternator,

b) pump, distributor, actuator,c) hydraulic lock, hydraulic oil tank.

234. The hydraulic lock in the machine is:

a) a valve that protects against uncontrolled movement of the element in a given line,

b) a valve responsible for controlling the entire hydraulic system,c) the closure of the hydraulic oil inlet at its tank.

235. The change in hydraulic oil pressure into mechanical movement is caused by:

a) hydraulic distributor,

b) hydraulic actuator and hydraulic motor,

c) hydraulic pump system.

236. The pressure in the hydraulic system is generated by:

a) hydraulic pump,

b) hydraulic motor,c) hydraulic actuator.

237. Directing the flow of hydraulic oil to individual systems is carried out by:

a) hydraulic lock,

b) hydraulic distributor,

c) relief valve.

238. The safety valve protects the hydraulic system from:

a) air in the hydraulic system,b) overheating of the hydraulic oil,

c) excessive pressure increase.

239. The relief valve in the hydraulic system is responsible for:

a) venting the system,

b) limiting the maximum working pressure in a given circuit,

c) maintaining a constant position of the working tool.

240. If the pressure in the hydraulic system increases excessively, the excess oil will be directed to:

a) hydraulic oil filter,

b) hydraulic oil tank,

c) distributor.

241. The basic parameters that characterize an electric battery are:

a) rated voltage [V], capacity [Ah], starting current [A],

b) rated voltage [V], resistance [Ω], power [W],c) rated voltage [V], power [W], weight [kg].

242. Lead-acid batteries can be charged:

a) in a place specifically designated for this purpose,

b) only in an air-conditioned room,c) in any room.

243. The pressure in the tires should be adjusted to:

a) the requirements of the landowner,

b) the values given in the operating and maintenance manual,

c) the preferences of the operator.

244. Uneven pressure in the tires:

a) reduces the stability of the machine,

b) improves the driving characteristics of the machine,c) does not affect the operation of the machine.

245. The front of the crawler excavator chassis:

a) is on the opposite side of the counterweight,

b) can be recognized by the location of the drive wheel,

c) can only be recognized while driving.

246. The key function of the boom actuator in the working system of a single-bucket excavator is:

a) system accumulator function,

b) enabling the lifting and lowering of the boom,

c) stabilizing the machine during transport.

247. The connecting elements essential for the functioning of the working system in a single-bucket excavator are:

a) flexible hydraulic hoses,b) hooks,

c) pins.

248. In the working machine, the reduction gear is most often located:

a) in the drive system near the driving wheels,

b) in the hydraulic system, close to the main pump,c) in the operator's cabin, near the travel controller.

249. The main function of the reduction gear (side gearbox) is:

a) reducing fuel consumption,

b) changing the torque and transferring drive to the driving wheels,

c) increasing the stability of the machine.

250. The element of the drive transmission system in a crawler excavator that allows the transfer of drive to the crawler wheels without limiting the rotation of the superstructure is:

a) rotation column,

b) rotation mechanism,c) hydraulic distributor.

251. Hydraulic distributor:

a) converts mechanical energy into hydraulic energy,

b) directs the flow of hydraulic oil to the appropriate sections,

c) increases the torque in the side gearbox.

252. A hydraulic distributor is a technical device that:

a) allows control of individual hydraulic sections of the machine,

b) distributes oil between the small and large circuits,c) distributes oil between the engine and the hydraulic system.

253. A ROPS cabin in construction machines protects the operator from:

a) being hit by falling objects from above,

b) crushing in the event of the machine overturning,

c) dust in the operator's cabin.

254. An FOPS cabin in construction machines protects the operator from:

a) being hit by falling objects from above,

b) excessive noise in the operator's cabin,c) crushing in the event of the machine overturning.

255. A ROPS cabin in construction machines protects against:

a) the machine falling from a slope and rolling over,

b) crushing the operator in the event of the machine overturning,

c) the machine overturning.

256. In ROPS and FOPS protective cabins, safety is ensured by structural elements such as:

a) reinforced shell in ROPS and strong frame in FOPS,

b) strong frame in ROPS and reinforced shell in FOPS,

c) ventilation system in ROPS and additional protective windows in FOPS.

257. The difference between a ROPS cabin and a FOPS cabin is that:

a) the ROPS cabin protects against crushing, while the FOPS protects against falling objects from above,

b) the ROPS cabin protects against noise, while the FOPS protects against the machine overturning,c) the ROPS cabin protects against falling objects from above, while the FOPS protects against crushing.

258. The basic condition for ROPS and FOPS cabins to provide effective protection to the operator is:

a) lubricating the cabin joints at least once a week,

b) fastening the seat belts by the operator,

c) regular maintenance of the cabin.

259. For a given excavator attachment to be used safely and effectively:

a) it must be approved for use in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine, ensuring compliance with the parameters of the excavator,

b) it should be regularly lubricated and checked for wear once a month,c) it must have a certificate of compliance with standards for construction machines.

260. The excavator attachment used for breaking very hard substrates is:

a) hydraulic hammer,

b) demolition shears,c) ripping tooth.

261. The automatic body rotation brake:

a) requires prior resetting of the hydraulic system for proper operation,b) regulates the rotation speed to increase work efficiency,

c) protects the body from uncontrolled rotation.

262. The automatic body rotation brake of the excavator remains active:

a) during standstill, operation, and transport,

b) only during the loading of the excavator,c) exclusively during intensive earthworks on uneven terrain.

263. The element of the hydrostatic drive system that converts the mechanical energy of the engine into hydraulic energy is:

a) hydraulic motor or hydraulic actuator,b) rotation column,

c) hydraulic oil pump.

264. The term body in earthmoving machines refers to:

a) the base of the machine,b) the upper part of the machine with the drive system,

c) the upper part of the machine.

265. The concept of the so-called "basic machine" in the context of earthmoving machines refers to:

a) the combined body with the chassis, without mounted working equipment,

b) the body and chassis connected with all hydraulic systems and equipment,c) working equipment along with stabilizing elements.

266. One of the functions of the slewing bearing in a single-bucket excavator is:

a) control of the excavator's rotational speed,b) ensuring the stability of the machine on uneven terrain,

c) transferring loads caused by the operation of working attachments to the chassis.

267. The main function of the rotation column in a single-bucket excavator is:

a) strengthening the structure of the excavator's body,

b) allowing the flow of hydraulic oil between the chassis and the body without limiting rotation,

c) controlling the rotation of the working tool.

268. Reducing speed while simultaneously increasing the torque transmitted to the drive wheels is achieved by:

a) wet brakes,b) hydraulic distributor,

c) planetary gears.

269. The stability and structural strength of the chassis of a tracked excavator are ensured by:

a) the swing wheel, shock absorbers, and cross beams,

b) a welded box frame with longitudinal beams,

c) the braking system, hydraulic cylinders, and slewing bearing.

270. The running rollers in the running system of a tracked excavator serve the function of:

a) increasing the tension of the tracks and transferring torque to the drive wheels,b) stabilizing the rotation column relative to the excavator frame,

c) evenly distributing the load over the entire surface of the track, which improves the stability of the machine on uneven terrain.

271. ROPS frame damage resulting in the need for replacement includes:

a) discoloration of the paint caused by weather conditions and the passage of time,b) minor surface scratches,

c) cracking or bending of the structure.

272. Drilling additional holes in the ROPS cabin structure is prohibited because:

a) it reduces the operator's comfort,b) it decreases the weight of the machine,

c) it causes a decrease in the strength of the structure.

273. The flow and direction of hydraulic fluid in the system are regulated by:

a) hydraulic pumps,

b) hydraulic valves,

c) hydraulic motors.

274. Components of the system, such as actuators and hydraulic motors, convert hydraulic energy into:

a) mechanical energy,

b) electrical energy,c) pressure in the tank.

275. A track that is too tightly tensioned can cause:

a) preventing the machine from turning,

b) excessive wear of the chain, drive wheels, and rollers,

c) immediate problems with the machine's movement.

276. Too loose a track can result in:

a) greater load on the hydraulic system,

b) falling off the running gear and accelerated wear of pins and drive wheels,

c) improved traction when working in marshy terrain.

277. The primary task of the hydraulic accumulator in the hydrostatic system is:

a) evenly distributing oil to the system receivers,

b) storing energy in the form of pressure of the working fluid,

c) regulating the temperature of the working fluid.

278. In the hydrostatic system, the energy of the pressure of the fluid is transmitted to:

a) thermostatic, overflow, and check valves,

b) hydraulic motors or hydraulic actuators,

c) oil coolers and pressure gauges.

279. The hydraulic rotator in working machines:

a) facilitates the rotation of the machine around its own axis,

b) allows the working tool to rotate around its own axis,

c) increases the stability of the machine when working on slopes.

280. The hydraulic rotator is used in working machines because:

a) it allows the working tool to operate in positions inaccessible without the rotator,

b) it reduces the weight of the hydraulic equipment,c) it increases the pressure force of the tool on the working surface.

281. The function of the FOPS protective structure is:

a) protection of the operator from the effects of exhaust fumes and noise,

b) protection of the operator from falling objects,

c) protection of the operator from the consequences of the machine overturning.

282. The FOPS protective structure must necessarily be used when:

a) performing work during which heavy elements may fall on the cabin (e.g. demolition work, in quarries, etc.),

b) all earthworks,c) underwater work.

283. In a machine equipped with a ROPS or FOPS protective structure, there must exist and be used by the operator an additional safety system, which is:

a) protective footwear, hearing protectors, respiratory protection,

b) seat belts,

c) safety helmet, protective footwear.

284. The ROPS protective structure in a machine:

a) is not required when only qualified machine operators are employed,b) is not required when it is not technically possible, and there is a low risk of the machine overturning (possibility of support with a boom),

c) is always required.

285. Optimal damping of shocks and vibrations of the operator's seat is ensured by:

a) as flexible a seat adjustment as possible,

b) adjusting the seat to the weight of the operator,

c) setting the seat rigidly.

286. The control panel for locking the working tool, when the machine is equipped with a quick-change device with hydraulic locking, is equipped with:

a) 16-ampere overload protection,b) protection against excessive engine speed,

c) protection against unintentional activation of the control panel.

287. Protective equipment that the machine must have during demolition work is:

a) a device warning against overload and protection against cable breakage on the boom,b) a signal lamp and white-red-white safety stickers,

c) a protective canopy – FOPS cabin.

288. The mandatory equipment for observing the area directly behind the machine by the operator is:

a) a rearview camera,b) an audible signal when reversing,

c) an external mirror.

289. Together with the operator in the machine's cabin, other people may ride if:

a) they have undergone health and safety training with the operator and there are a maximum of 2 people,

b) the manufacturer has installed an additional seat,

c) the machine is moving at a low speed.

290. The rotation of the superstructure of a single-bucket excavator occurs thanks to:

a) a hydraulic motor,

b) hydraulic rotary latches,c) a hydrokinetic transmission.

291. The most important element of the operator's cabin equipment from the perspective of his safety is:

a) emergency STOP button,b) mirror or camera,

c) seat belt.

292. Mirrors and rearview cameras in the machine are used for:

a) checking the technical condition of the machine,

b) improving the operator's visibility and increasing safety,

c) facilitating the maneuvering of working equipment.

293. In ROPS-type cabins, additional equipment such as phone holders can be installed independently:

a) provided that there is no interference with the cabin structure,

b) but this equipment must be permanently screwed to the cabin structure,c) remembering that installation is only possible on the cabin posts.

294. A green flashing light placed on the machine's cabin signals, among other things:

a) the machine's eco mode is activated,

b) the seat belts are properly fastened,

c) the absence of the operator in the cabin.

295. When two identical batteries are connected in parallel, the voltage of such a system is:

a) the sum of the voltages of the individual batteries,b) the product of the voltages of the individual batteries,

c) equal to the voltage of a single battery.

296. In a series connection of two identical batteries, the voltage of such a system is:

a) the sum of the voltages of the individual batteries,

b) the product of the voltages of the individual batteries,c) equal to the voltage of a single battery.

297. Fuses in the electrical installation of a machine protect it from the effects of:

a) short circuits and overloads,

b) low voltage,c) high temperature.

298. An alternator is:

a) a single-phase direct current generator,

b) a three-phase alternating current generator,

c) a two-phase direct current generator.

299. One of the elements of the electrical system protecting the motor from seizing is:

a) engine oil pressure sensor,

b) main fuse,c) speed controller.

300. Gel batteries, which are part of the electrical system, do not require:

a) charging with a rectifier,

b) electrolyte replenishment,

c) replacement when the casing is damaged.

301. Electrical systems of machines and technical devices should be equipped with a device that causes emergency stop in at least the following quantity:

a) two emergency stop devices placed on both sides of the machine, in accordance with the European Machinery Directive,b) three emergency stop devices, in accordance with the European Machinery Directive,

c) one emergency stop device, in accordance with the European Machinery Directive.

302. The emergency stop device of the machine is a component of:

a) the fuel system,

b) the electrical system,

c) the drive system.

303. The main parameters of the internal combustion engine affecting work efficiency are:

a) torque, rotational speed,

b) type of carburetor, type of ignition system,c) compression ratio, displacement.

304. The crank-piston system of the internal combustion engine is designed to:

a) convert the reciprocating motion of the piston into the rotational motion of the crankshaft,

b) convert mechanical energy into hydraulic energy,c) ensure the effective operation of the clutch.

305. The engine timing system is used to:

a) ensure the optimal composition of the fuel-oil-air mixture for combustion,b) dampen noise and minimize engine vibrations during operation,

c) control the filling of the combustion chamber with air or fuel-air mixture and control the emptying of this chamber of exhaust gases.

306. The systems present in internal combustion engines include, among others:

a) crankshaft-piston system, fuel system, cooling system,

b) hydraulic system, intake system,c) exhaust system, pneumatic system, closed system.

307. The low-pressure part of the fuel system of a diesel engine is:

a) fuel tank and injectors,b) fuel lines, high-pressure pump, common rail,

c) fuel tank, feed pump, filters, fuel lines.

308. The element controlling the flow of coolant in the so-called "large circuit" is:

a) thermostat,

b) thermos,c) thermocouple.

309. An intercooler is:

a) a device for burning solid particles in exhaust gases,b) another name for the engine coolant radiator,

c) an air cooler for turbocharged engines.

310. DPF filter:

a) is a dry particulate filter responsible, among other things, for capturing soot from exhaust gases,

b) is a precise cabin filter protecting the operator while working in high dust conditions,c) is used to reduce NOx (nitrogen oxides) emissions.

311. The frequency and scope of periodic maintenance of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam:

a) is determined by the owner of the machine/technical device,b) is included in the IBWR documentation,

c) is included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine.

312. The operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device is:

a) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device, which includes among others IBWR,

b) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device,

c) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by the health and safety services on the construction site.

313. The operator of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is not allowed to:

a) check the technical condition of the machine/technical device during operation,

b) use the machine/technical device contrary to its intended purpose,

c) make any repairs or maintenance.

314. When operating a machine with interchangeable attachments/working tools, the operator should:

a) follow only the provisions of the operating and maintenance manual of the mounted attachment/working tool,b) follow only the provisions of the operating and maintenance manual of the machine,

c) follow the provisions of the operating and maintenance manual of the machine and the mounted attachment/working tool.

315. A symptom of too low a level of hydraulic oil may be:

a) loud operation of the starter,

b) "jerky" intermittent movement of hydraulic actuators,

c) uneven operation of the diesel engine.

316. In the event of detecting tire damage that may pose a threat, the operator should:

a) notify the supervisor and cautiously continue working,

b) stop working,

c) continue working while reducing the speed and load of the machine.

317. If the low engine oil pressure warning light comes on, the operator:

a) can continue working if the hydraulic system is functioning properly,b) does not have to take any action,

c) should stop working and turn off the engine.

318. The cause of the machine's loss of stability may be:

a) too low tire pressure,

b) driving on a hardened surface,c) operating the machine in a suitable location.

319. The cause of the machine's loss of stability may be:

a) driving with the working tool lowered to the transport height,

b) driving with the working tool raised high,

c) driving on a hardened surface.

320. The operating and maintenance manual for the machine/technical device:

a) is used to record information about faults,

b) includes information about hazards during the operation of the machine/technical device,

c) is established by the owner or user of the machine.

321. The CE Declaration of Conformity is a document:

a) issued by institutions dealing with testing machines for resistance to weather conditions,

b) in which the manufacturer confirms that their product meets all applicable EU requirements regarding safety, health protection, and the environment,

c) confirming that the product was manufactured in the countries of the European Union.

322. Information regarding the use of personal protective equipment and ways to limit the occupational risk the operator can find:

a) in the service book,b) in the CE Declaration of Conformity,

c) in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device.

323. The operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device:

a) is developed by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device or the entity that places the machine/technical device on the market,

b) is created by institutions that conduct testing and accreditation of prototypes of machines/technical devices before allowing them for serial production,c) is created by the construction manager based on information from the manufacturer.

324. The operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device:

a) does not matter where it is located, the most important thing is that the owner of the machine has it in case of resale of the machine,b) should be located in the office along with the company's documentation and be available in case of inspection,

c) should be located in the machine or with the technical device, treated as part of the machine/technical device and be available at any time.

325. Identification data of the machine/technical device:

a) are located on the nameplate of the machine/technical device, additionally they may be in the marking places described in the manual,

b) due to their importance are always printed in red,c) should be noted on the inner side of the protective helmet assigned to the given machine/technical device.

326. To minimize the risk of machine/technical device failure, the operator should:

a) perform maintenance activities only when the machine/technical device stops working,

b) regularly visually assess the condition of the machine/technical device and report any noticed irregularities,

c) use the machine/technical device until the failure becomes serious.

327. Key activities for the safe technical operation of a machine are:

a) performing technical service without securing the working equipment to save time,b) using latex gloves, without the need for other personal protective equipment,

c) securing the equipment, covers, and doors against accidental closure and using personal protective equipment.

328. The principles of safe technical servicing of machines are:

a) the machine can be left on a sloped surface as long as the operator plans a short technical service,

b) the machine should be positioned on a level surface, working equipment lowered to the ground, engine turned off, and the key removed from the ignition,

c) the engine may remain on to conduct service faster, especially if the machine is running idle.

329. Breaking in a machine during the initial period of operation is:

a) an intensive full load test of the machine,

b) the process of achieving optimal clearances and even wear of parts,

c) the stage of the machine's operation without load.

330. When driving on public roads, the following steering mode should be used:

a) only the front wheels steer,

b) all wheels steer simultaneously (AWS),c) only the rear wheels steer.

331. The main advantage of AWS mode (steering with all wheels simultaneously) is that:

a) it allows for achieving small turning radii,

b) it reduces tire wear during long-distance driving,c) it increases the stability of the machine on uneven terrain.

332. The operator uses the operating and maintenance manual of the machine or technical device to:

a) record the hours worked and fuel consumption by the machine,

b) learn the technical specifications, safety rules, and methods for repairing faults,

c) record all faults of the machine or technical device noticed during operation.

333. The service part of the operating and maintenance manual of the machine or technical device includes:

a) a catalog of spare parts,b) a detailed description of the construction and operation of all elements of the machine/device,

c) instructions regarding, among others, controlling the machine/device.

334. The operating and maintenance manual must always be present with the machine/device because:

a) its absence may be a reason for the machine to be deemed unfit for work by the safety inspector,

b) it minimizes the risk of it being lost,c) it is essential for periodic technical inspections.

335. During normal operation, the rotation column in a single-bucket excavator:

a) requires daily checking of its oil level,

b) does not require servicing by the operator,

c) requires regular lubrication of seals and hydraulic connections.

336. The correct operation of the rotation mechanism in a single-bucket excavator is:

a) weekly replacement of hydraulic oil in the rotation system,

b) regular lubrication of the crown gear,

c) washing the rotation mechanism with high-pressure water.

337. The elements of excavator equipment during operation with a hydraulic hammer should be lubricated or checked:

a) every morning before starting work, regardless of the load,b) only once a week to prevent excessive lubrication,

c) at least twice a day, depending on the load and working conditions.

338. The SAE designation on oil refers to:

a) the multi-season qualification of the oil,b) the pressure of the engine oil,

c) the viscosity of the engine oil, that is, its ability to flow and lubricate.

339. Oil with the symbol SAE 15W-40 means that:

a) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 15W,b) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40,

c) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 15W, and at positive temperatures of summer oil class SAE 40.

340. Oil with the symbol SAE 10W-30 means that:

a) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W,

b) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W, and at positive temperatures of summer oil class SAE 30,

c) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 30.

341. The SAE 10W-30 symbol means:

a) hydraulic oil with specified parameters,

b) multi-season engine oil with specified parameters,

c) a mixture of engine oil and hydraulic oil.

342. Engine oil with the SAE 5W-40 symbol means that:

a) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 5W, and at positive temperatures of summer oil class SAE 40,

b) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40,c) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 5W.
Question 343 - illustration

343. The symbol of the warning light shown in the graphic means:

a) low engine oil pressure,b) low coolant level,

c) low engine oil level.

Question 344 - illustration

344. The symbol of the warning light shown in the graphic means:

a) low engine oil pressure,

b) low coolant level,c) low fuel level.
Question 345 - illustration

345. The symbol shown means:

a) hydraulic oil,b) engine oil filter,

c) engine oil.

Question 346 - illustration

346. The presented symbol of the indicator means:

a) engine coolant level,

b) engine oil level,

c) hydraulic oil level.

347. Oils with designations 70W, 85W, 80W-90 are:

a) brake oils,b) engine oils,

c) transmission oils.

348. In case of the need to dismantle the cover/protection for maintenance, it is not allowed to:

a) reattach the cover/protection,

b) start working with the technical device without the cover/protection installed,

c) record such a fact in the documentation.

349. The lighting of the battery charging indicator signals to the operator of the construction machine a failure of:

a) the starter,

b) the V-belt and/or alternator,

c) the battery switch.

350. The operator's seat cannot be adjusted when:

a) the seat is turned backwards,

b) the machine is in motion,

c) the engine is not started.

351. If during daily technical service before work the operator notices that one of the windows in the cabin is cracked, then:

a) may start work if it is not the front window,b) may start work provided that the window is only cracked and has not "fallen out",

c) should not start work.

352. Before starting work, the operator should:

a) open the windows for better communication,b) install sun shields on the windows,

c) clean the windows by removing snow, ice, and other contaminants.

353. The seat belt should be replaced:

a) during every periodic service,

b) after a collision or overturning of the machine,

c) when it has become contaminated.

354. When changing hydraulic oils, one should:

a) use any type of oil,b) always use only biodegradable oils,

c) use only types of oils that are recommended by the machine manufacturer.

355. To ensure the technical efficiency of the working machine, one should:

a) follow technical services and maintenance according to the operating and maintenance instructions,

b) operate the machine/technical device only under full load,c) operate the machine/technical device not exceeding 50% of the permissible load.

356. On the construction site, empty containers for lubricants, oil filters, and used oils should be:

a) placed in a properly marked container for hazardous waste,

b) thrown into any waste container,c) thrown into a mixed waste container.

357. Stickers (pictograms) located on the machine/technical device serve to:

a) indicate places where one can stay without any risk,b) inform about the prohibition of approaching the machine/technical device,

c) convey important information about safety and the use of the machine/technical device.

358. Lubrication points in the machine should be serviced:

a) according to the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine,

b) during all breaks in work,c) always after 10 hours of operation.

359. Engine oil with parameters 5W-50 is:

a) oil only for winter,b) oil only for summer,

c) multi-season oil.

360. Before starting work on a new type of machine/technical device, the operator should:

a) perform a periodic inspection,

b) familiarize themselves with the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine/technical device,

c) perform a trial work.

361. OTC service is:

a) daily technical service,

b) round-the-clock technical service,c) temporary technical service.

362. The basic types of services are:

a) round-the-clock, multi-seasonal, annual, technological service,

b) daily, periodic, warehouse, transport service,

c) visual, active, passive service.

363. Batteries, when starting the machine using a supporting battery, should be connected:

a) crosswise,

b) in parallel,

c) in series.

364. In the case of electrolyte loss caused by spillage through a cracked battery casing, one should:

a) add demineralized water to a level 10 mm above the upper edges of the plates,

b) secure the leak area in terms of environmental protection, and then replace the battery,

c) add electrolyte to the proper level and charge the battery.

365. The activities performed by the operator as part of daily service during operation are:

a) replenishing operating fluids and daily lubrication,

b) auditory control of the machine's operation and monitoring indicators,

c) cleaning the machine.

366. When inflating the tire of the machine's wheel, one should:

a) check the condition of the inflated wheel by bending the side of the tire,

b) not stand directly next to the inflated wheel,

c) stand next to the inflated wheel provided that a safety helmet is used.

367. If the manufacturer has provided for operational run-in, it should be carried out:

a) with the load recommended in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device,

b) without load,c) with the maximum load.

368. During the storage of the machine on a wheeled chassis, the machine's wheels should be:

a) removed from the machine,

b) unloaded,

c) secured with wedges.

369. Driving the machine on public roads should be done in the position:

a) transport position,

b) transfer position,c) working position.

370. When loading the machine onto the transport vehicle, the operator should:

a) know the permissible angle of inclination of the loading ramps for the given machine,

b) perform the approach at a speed of at least 5 [km/h],c) know the maximum speed allowed for the given transport vehicle.

371. The responsibility for the placement and securing of the machine on the transport vehicle lies with:

a) the machine operator,b) the owner or the person responsible for machines in the company,

c) the carrier (e.g. driver).

372. When storing the machine, one must ensure that:

a) there are no leaks of operating fluids,

b) the machine is facing the exit,c) no documents of the machine are left in the cabin.

373. Securing the machine during storage downtime involves:

a) cleaning the machine of dirt and corrosion,

b) disassembling all filters and protecting them from moisture,c) filling the hydraulic oil tank to the top.

374. The rods of hydraulic cylinders, during technical service of the stored machine, should be:

a) disassembled and the seals replaced,b) disassembled and cleaned,

c) protected against corrosion.

375. During the transport of the machine:

a) for short distances, tools and other items can be transported in the working tool,

b) tools and other items cannot be transported in the working tool,

c) tools and other items can be transported in the bucket if it is free.

376. During the loading of the machine onto the transport vehicle:

a) assistance from a second person is recommended only when loading onto a low-loader trailer,b) the operator should drive onto the transport vehicle independently,

c) assistance from a second person is recommended.

377. The recommended method for loading heavy working machines onto low-loader trailers is:

a) mechanized loading from the front ramp,

b) loading with ropes,c) loading using other machines.

378. During longer storage of the machine, the fuel tank should be:

a) empty, to avoid fire hazards,

b) filled to the top, to prevent condensation of water vapor inside the tank,

c) filled to 1/3 of its capacity and left open.

379. During daily operation of the machine, the condition of should be checked:

a) the working pressure values in the hydraulic system,b) tools and equipment,

c) connections and tightness of the hydraulic system.

380. If the machine's engine has not been running for a longer time during daily operation, it is necessary to:

a) replace the fuel pre-filter,b) start the engine and gently increase the RPM to reach the operating temperature faster,

c) check the oil level and other operating fluids.

381. During the charging of the battery, a flammable gas is released, which is:

a) sulfur dioxide,b) carbon dioxide,

c) hydrogen.

382. Information regarding faults, their codes, and methods of removal can be found in a document called:

a) operating and maintenance manual,

b) daily report,c) construction machine book.

383. The correct order for connecting the auxiliary battery to the discharged battery in the machine is as follows:

a) negative terminal of the battery in the machine, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, machine frame,

b) positive terminal of the battery in the machine, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, machine frame,

c) machine frame, positive terminal of the battery in the machine, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery.

384. In the event of electrolyte loss in the battery, one should:

a) top it up with distilled or demineralized water,

b) top it up with DOT-3 fluid,c) top it up with water other than distilled.

385. Checking the charge state of the starting battery 12 [V] by "sparking" poses a risk of:

a) electric shock from high voltage,b) seizing the alternator,

c) explosion of hydrogen escaping from the battery.

386. The scope of daily technical service of a machine does not include:

a) control and adjustment of valve clearances,

b) checking the oil level in the engine,c) checking the condition of tires and tire pressure.

387. When cleaning the radiator, to avoid damaging it, you should:

a) use a strong stream of water under high pressure,b) use sharp tools for cleaning,

c) keep the compressed air nozzle at an appropriate distance from the radiator.

388. The purpose of lubrication in working machines is:

a) to raise the temperature of cooperating elements,b) to increase the engine speed,

c) to reduce friction.

389. The most commonly used type of fuses in the electrical installations of working machines is:

a) residual current devices,b) automatic fuses,

c) cartridge fuses.

390. The phenomenon of electrostatic charge during refueling a machine can lead to:

a) fire,

b) poisoning,c) short circuit of the electrical installation.

391. In the case of connecting two batteries in parallel with different rated voltages:

a) both batteries may discharge,b) thicker cables should be used than with batteries of the same rated voltages,

c) there may be an explosion of the battery with the lower rated voltage.

392. The correct way to connect a battery to a charger during charging is:

a) the positive terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger, the negative terminal of the battery to the negative terminal of the charger,

b) the positive terminal of the battery to the negative terminal of the charger, the negative terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger,c) the positive terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger, the negative terminal of the charger to the "ground" of the machine.

393. After connecting the battery, the terminals are lubricated with:

a) technical vaseline,

b) graphite grease,c) grease containing molybdenum disulfide.

394. One of the goals of warehouse management is:

a) to protect the machine from corrosion and other harmful factors during long-term storage,

b) to repair damaged parts of the machine before the next season,c) to prepare the machine for transport for the future user.

395. If during daily technical service the operator notices a leak in the cooling system, he should:

a) organize fluid and refill to the minimum level if the leak is small,b) refill the coolant and continue working,

c) report the leak and not use the machine until it is repaired.

396. The level of coolant in the expansion tank should be checked:

a) only during periodic technical service,

b) during every daily technical service,

c) only in case of engine overheating.

397. If the operator notices a hydraulic fluid leak during daily technical service, he should:

a) top up the oil and continue working,b) reduce the RPM and continue working,

c) report the leak and not use the machine until it is repaired.

398. The frequency of performing periodic technical service depends on:

a) the number of hours worked (engine hours),

b) the production date of the machine,c) the number of completed working cycles.

399. If during daily technical service the operator notices a low level of engine oil, he should:

a) top up the level with any available oil, even if it is of a different type,

b) top up the oil to the appropriate level,

c) start working if the level is not very low and the warning light is not on.

400. A characteristic activity for seasonal technical service is:

a) replacing the coolant with one suitable for the season,

b) checking the working pressure values of the hydraulic system,c) checking the charging voltage values.

401. Basic servicing tasks that must be performed before starting a diesel engine are:

a) checking the oil level in the gearbox, checking the operation of the working system, checking the operation of the brakes,

b) checking the oil level in the engine, checking the coolant level, checking the condition of the air filter,

c) bleeding the fuel system, checking the oil level in the transmission, checking the starter.

402. Tasks performed as part of daily technical service (OTC) carried out during the operation of the machine are:

a) observing control and measuring instruments and monitoring the proper operation of the machine using sight, hearing, and smell,

b) primarily organoleptic control of the proper functioning of the machine's working system,c) observing only control and measuring indicators such as: oil pressure, engine temperature, hydraulic oil temperature.

403. We distinguish, among others, the following types of technical services:

a) running-in, daily, periodic, seasonal, storage, emergency, night,

b) transport, running-in, daily, periodic, seasonal, storage,

c) transport, running-in, storage, operational-repair (ON), catalog.

404. We perform technical services in order to:

a) extend the lifespan and ensure the safe operation of the machine or technical device,

b) maintain the value of the machine or technical device at a constant, unchanged level,c) ensure quiet operation of the machine or technical device.
We only use essential cookies