Single-bucket excavators class III
Study mode
Question of 394
1. The presence of people between the wall of the excavation and the excavator, even when stationary, is:
a) prohibited,
b) allowed for a short time,c) allowed.2. What is the minimum allowable distance of the machine from the reach of the failure wedge?
a) 0.6 [m],
b) 0.8 [m],c) 0.4 [m].3. The safe distance of the machine from the excavation is:
a) 1.6 [m],
b) the reach of the failure wedge + 0.6 [m],
c) the depth of the excavation + 0.6 [m].
4. Based on the provided table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] made in cohesive soils:
a) 2.6 [m],b) 1 [m],
c) 1.6 [m].
5. Based on the provided table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] made in fractured rocks:
a) 2.6 [m],
b) 3.6 [m],
c) 4.6 [m]. Single-bucket excavators Class III6. Based on the presented table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] made in slightly cohesive soils:
a) 3.6 [m],
b) 3.1 [m],
c) 2.6 [m].7. What is the minimum safe distance from the UPPER edge of the embankment that the machine can approach, for the following data: Soil category - I (dry sand), height of the embankment - h = 2 [m], horizontal distance between the upper and lower edges of the embankment - a = 2.5 [m]?
a) 0.6 [m],b) 3.6 [m],
c) 1.1 [m].
8. What is the minimum safe distance from the UPPER edge of the embankment that the machine can approach, for the following data: Soil category - II (slightly cohesive soils), height of the embankment - h = 4 [m], horizontal distance between the upper and lower edges of the embankment - a = 2.5 [m]?
a) 0.6 [m],b) 5.6 [m],
c) 3.1 [m].
9. At what horizontal distance from the outermost wires for power lines with a rated voltage not exceeding 1 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 3 [m],
b) not less than 2 [m],c) not less than 5 [m].10. At what horizontal distance from the outermost wires for power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 10 [m],
b) not less than 5 [m],
c) not less than 15 [m].11. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?
a) not less than 15 [m],b) not less than 5 [m],
c) not less than 10 [m].
12. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?
a) not less than 10 [m],b) not less than 20 [m],
c) not less than 15 [m].
13. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?
a) not less than 10 [m],
b) not less than 30 [m],
c) not less than 15 [m].14. Is it possible to organize workstations in the danger zone under overhead power lines?
a) yes, always,b) no, never,
c) yes, but only after meeting additional requirements.
15. What is the safe distance X for the operation of a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [V]?
a) not less than 30 [m],b) not less than 5 [m],
c) not less than 3 [m].
16. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV]?
a) at least 15 [m],
b) at least 5 [m],
c) at least 10 [m].17. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?
a) at least 15 [m],b) at least 30 [m],
c) at least 10 [m].
18. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?
a) at least 10 [m],
b) at least 15 [m],c) at least 5 [m].19. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV]?
a) at least 15 [m],
b) at least 30 [m],c) at least 50 [m].20. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV]?
a) at least 10 [m],
b) at least 30 [m],c) at least 15 [m].21. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]?
a) at least 40 [m],
b) at least 30 [m],
c) at least 3 [m].22. Work in the danger zone (overhead high voltage power line):
a) may be carried out provided that the line is disconnected from the voltage, work is performed in an area limited by groundings and at least one grounding is visible from the work site,
b) may be carried out provided that permission from the site manager has been granted,c) may not be carried out under any circumstances under power lines in the danger zone.23. The operator is to perform work at a distance X from an active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [V]. He may start work if this distance is:
a) 5 [m],
b) 2 [m],c) 1 [m].24. The operator is to perform work at a distance X from an active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]. He may start work if this distance is:
a) 5 [m],
b) 15 [m],
c) 3 [m].25. The operator is to perform work at a distance X from an active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]. He may start work if this distance is:
a) 5 [m],
b) 50 [m],
c) 15 [m].26. If the injured person has a detectable pulse but is not breathing, then:
a) chest compressions should be performed,
b) the airways should be cleared and artificial respiration should be started,
c) they should not be touched.27. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, one should primarily:
a) move away from the accident scene to call a doctor,b) give the injured medication,
c) provide assistance to those in life-threatening situations.
28. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, one should primarily:
a) move away from the accident scene to call a doctor,b) provide assistance to those in life-threatening situations,
c) take care of one's own safety.
29. The obligation to provide first aid to accident victims rests with:
a) everyone, but criminal liability always threatens for mistakes made,
b) everyone, as part of the rescue tasks can always be performed,
c) only those who have medical training.30. The accident victim regained consciousness after a few minutes and wants to go home. In this situation, one should:
a) give them something to drink and painkillers,
b) encourage them to stay and call for medical help,
c) allow them to go home, recommending a visit to a doctor.31. First aid in a situation where a foreign body has entered the eye of the injured person consists of:
a) rinsing with distilled water directing the stream to the inside of the eye,b) rinsing the eye with eye drops,
c) rinsing with clean water directing the stream from the nose to the outside of the eye.
32. The injured person has cut their leg on an unsecured sharp object. Providing first aid in this situation is:
a) using a tourniquet,b) applying a plaster directly on the wound,
c) using sterile gauze, wrapping the wound with a bandage.
33. Suspecting spinal injury in a person who has fallen from a height and is conscious, one should:
a) place them in a stable lateral position,
b) not move them and wait for medical services to arrive,
c) seat them in a semi-reclining position.34. To move away from the place where the electric wire has been broken and the area is under voltage, one should:
a) leave the place slowly, taking small steps, trying to maintain continuous contact of the feet with the ground,
b) quickly, taking large steps, move away from the source of electric shock by lifting the feet high,c) run as fast as possible to a place that we assess as safe.35. First aid in the case of a first-degree burn is:
a) pouring cold water on the burned area,
b) applying a greasy cream to the burned area,c) applying ointment to the burned area.36. During work, a high voltage power line was torn down, as a result of which a colleague was electrocuted. In this situation, the correct behavior is:
a) call other colleagues for help with the injured,
b) turn off the power source as quickly as possible,
c) approach the injured person to provide first aid.37. We perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation until:
a) the fire brigade arrives and secures the area,b) 10 minutes have passed,
c) we have determined that the victim has started to breathe and circulation has returned.
38. Immediate action in the case of severe bleeding from an injured upper limb includes:
a) applying a dressing, directly compressing the bleeding site, and elevating the limb,
b) disinfecting the wound with salicylic alcohol,c) lowering the limb below heart level.39. In the case of a nosebleed, one should:
a) lean the bleeding person's head forward, pinch the nostrils,
b) lay the injured person on their back,c) tilt the head back and place a cold compress on the neck.40. The first step in dealing with a victim of carbon monoxide poisoning in a closed room is:
a) conducting a preliminary examination,
b) the quickest possible evacuation of the injured person from that room,
c) assessing ABC.41. First aid during seizures caused by an epileptic attack (epilepsy) consists of:
a) seating the injured person in a semi-sitting position and giving them something to drink,
b) securing the injured person's head from injuries,
c) placing a wooden object in the injured person's mouth to prevent biting their tongue.42. In case of suspected spinal injury in the cervical region in a conscious person, one should:
a) place the injured person in a lateral position,b) seat the injured person in a chair with a high back,
c) not allow the injured person to move their head.
43. The most important thing when a person is buried under earth, sand, or gravel is:
a) locating the injured person,
b) notifying the family,c) waiting for the arrival of the ambulance.44. First aid for a person with a metal rod embedded in their lower leg consists of calling for help and:
a) securing the rod from movement,
b) removing the embedded rod,c) moving the rod to check if the artery has been damaged.45. The indication for using an AED defibrillator is:
a) severe dizziness,b) severe chest pain,
c) lack of detectable breath and pulse in the injured person.
46. During the operation of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam, the prohibited activities are:
a) performing daily technical service (OTC),
b) making structural changes to the machine/technical device,
c) replacing the working tool.47. During the operation of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam, the prohibited activities are:
a) cleaning the machine/technical device using a substance compliant with the operating and maintenance instructions,
b) cleaning the machine/technical device using gasoline or solvents whose vapors can create flammable/explosive gas mixtures with air,
c) refueling the machine/technical device from a canister.48. During earthworks with the machine for which you are taking the exam, it is unacceptable to:
a) position the machine within the reach of the falling wedge,
b) use the machine's blade at a safe distance from the excavation,c) extend the machine's blade towards the excavation.49. During earthworks with the machine for which you are taking the exam, it is unacceptable to:
a) use the machine on clay soils during heavy rain,
b) use the machine on clay soils at air temperatures below -5°C,c) use the machine on clay soils at air temperatures above 30°C.50. During earthworks with the machine for which you are taking the exam, it is acceptable to:
a) perform deep excavations if the machine is at a safe distance from the excavation,
b) activate the machine's rotation mechanism while filling the working container with soil,c) create overhangs when performing excavations.51. During earthworks with the machine for which you are taking the exam, it is unacceptable to:
a) have people within a distance greater than the sum of the maximum reach of the working tool plus 6 meters,
b) have people within the working range of the machine's working tool,
c) have people near the machine during technical service operations.52. During work, it is unacceptable to:
a) work near active overhead power lines at a distance less than specified by regulations,
b) work near an active power line with a rated voltage of 10 [kV] at a distance of 10 [m],c) work near an active power line with a rated voltage of 20 [kV] at a distance of 15 [m].53. During narrow-space excavations with the machine for which you are taking the exam, it is unacceptable to:
a) have cooperating persons in the secured part of the excavation,b) use hand tools for excavations by cooperating persons,
c) have cooperating persons in the unsecured part of the excavation, even if they have personal protective equipment.
54. During earthworks in marshy or waterlogged areas:
a) the machine is placed in the same way as on other grounds,b) the machine is placed as on other grounds, only we do not consider the distance from the edge of the excavation,
c) the machine is placed on stable and permanently connected supports.
55. The machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam may only be operated by:
a) a person who has completed training and obtained a positive result in the test conducted by the commission appointed by the Łukasiewicz Research Network – Warsaw Institute of Technology,
b) any adult person with technical education and a driver's license of the appropriate category,c) a person with written confirmation of course completion in the form of a plastic card.56. The rights to operate machines/technical devices for which you are taking the exam are issued by:
a) The County Office appropriate for the address of the person applying for the rights,b) The Office of Technical Inspection (UDT),
c) The Research Network Łukasiewicz - Warsaw Institute of Technology (SBŁ - WIT).
57. The rights to operate machines/technical devices for which you are taking the exam:
a) are valid for 5 years from the date of issue,b) are valid for 10 years from the date of issue,
c) are valid indefinitely.
58. A person holding the rights to operate: "Single-bucket excavators class III" based on them:
a) can work only with a single-bucket excavator up to 25 [t] operating mass,
b) can work with a single-bucket excavator up to 25 [t] operating mass and a bulldozer up to 4 [t] operating mass,c) can work with a single-bucket excavator up to 25 [t] operating mass and a backhoe loader up to 8 [t] operating mass.59. An employee operating a machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam can start work provided that:
a) has a valid category D driving license,b) the machine/technical device has a valid UDT inspection,
c) has the rights to operate this type of machine/technical device.
60. In the event of a threat to life, health, property, or the environment caused by a malfunction of the machine/technical device, the operator:
a) continues working but informs the supervisor about the situation at the end of the shift,
b) immediately stops work and informs the supervisor about this fact,
c) continues working but makes an appropriate entry in the maintenance book at the end of the shift.61. Lifting and transporting people using working equipment:
a) is always prohibited,
b) requires the consent of the construction manager,c) is possible, but only outside the public road area.62. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam has the right to refuse to work when:
a) this work requires special psychophysical fitness, and his psychophysical condition does not ensure its safe performance and poses a threat to others,
b) he has the required personal protective equipment,c) there is an overhead power line with a rated voltage of 110 [kV] at a distance of 35 meters.63. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is obliged to stop work when:
a) he has the required personal protective equipment,b) there is an overhead power line at a distance of 35 meters,
c) the work he is performing poses an immediate threat to the health or life of others.
64. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is obliged to:
a) always have a category B driving license,
b) comply with the provisions of the operating and maintenance instructions for the machine/technical device,
c) independently perform all current repairs of the machine/technical device.65. The person directly responsible for the safe operation of the machine for which you are taking the exam is:
a) the construction manager,b) the owner of the machine,
c) the operator of the machine.
66. The operator's book and the qualifications for the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam are issued by:
a) Office of Technical Inspection (UDT),b) Transport Technical Inspection (TDT),
c) Łukasiewicz Research Network - Warsaw Institute of Technology.
67. The obligation to use personal protective equipment:
a) arises only from internal regulations,b) does not apply on hot days,
c) arises from the operating and maintenance instructions and health and safety regulations.
68. An employee who witnesses an accident at work:
a) is obliged to provide assistance to the victims and then immediately leave the accident site,
b) is obliged to provide assistance to the victims, notify the supervisor, and if necessary secure the accident site,
c) it is enough to notify the supervisor.69. What elements of the machine for which you are taking the exam protect the operator in the event of the machine overturning:
a) a certified safety helmet and a reflective vest,
b) a ROPS type machine cabin and safety belts,
c) the machine seat.70. In the event of loss of stability by a machine equipped with a ROPS type cabin, the operator should:
a) maintain a seated position holding firmly to the steering wheel or other stable elements in the cabin,
b) try to exit the cabin as quickly as possible (before the machine overturns),c) quickly turn left and raise the working equipment as high as possible.71. In the case of loss of stability by a machine equipped with a ROPS cabin, the operator should:
a) turn on the warning/hazard lights,b) immediately jump out of the cabin,
c) remain in the cabin.
72. We define the danger zone as:
a) a place where there are threats to the health and life of people,
b) a place where employees must only wear protective helmets,c) a place where work requiring specialized equipment takes place, and the presence of people is only allowed at night.73. The danger zone on a construction site:
a) is always designated by a surveyor,
b) is designated and/or fenced and marked in a way that prevents access to unauthorized persons,
c) is designated after the construction work has started.74. The area that the operator should check and secure before starting work with a machine/technical device (because there are threats to the health and life of people) is called:
a) danger zone,
b) area of increased risk,c) blind spot.
75. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:
a) "raise up",
b) "lower down",c) "turn the machine".
76. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:
a) "raise up",b) "rotate the machine",
c) "lower down".
77. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:
a) "movement in the indicated direction",
b) "rotate the machine",c) "raise up".
78. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:
a) "movement in the indicated direction",
b) "raise up",c) "rotate the machine".
79. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:
a) "horizontal distance",
b) "stop",c) "end of operation".
80. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:
a) "fast movement",
b) "move forward",
c) "move backward".
81. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "movement backward",
b) "slow movement",c) "movement forward".
82. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "vertical distance",
b) "end of operation",c) "stop".
83. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "movement backward",b) "horizontal distance",
c) "STOP. Emergency stop".
84. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "START. Beginning of direction",
b) "STOP. Emergency stop",c) "movement backward".
85. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "STOP. Break - end of movement",
b) "STOP. Emergency stop",c) "movement backward".
86. The manual signal shown in the drawing means:
a) "horizontal distance",
b) "END. Stop operation",
c) "lower down".87. During the charging of batteries, a gas with very explosive properties is released. This gas is:
a) methane,
b) hydrogen,
c) ethane.88. Firefighting foam can be used to extinguish fires of group:
a) A and B,
b) only C,c) C and D.89. Improper use of a snow extinguisher can result in:
a) frostbite caused by the extinguishing agent,
b) burns from the extinguisher components,c) fainting.90. Water, fire blanket, powder extinguisher, carbon dioxide, sand are extinguishing agents that we will use to extinguish:
a) liquids,b) oils,
c) solids.
91. We can call sorbents:
a) petroleum substances,
b) materials made of natural or synthetic polymers that absorb liquids,
c) fire blankets.92. Group A fires concern:
a) solid bodies, whose normal combustion occurs with the formation of glowing coals, e.g. wood, paper, etc.,
b) flammable liquids,c) flammable gases.93. Group B fires concern:
a) liquids and solid materials that melt, e.g. plastics, fuels, oils, etc.,
b) flammable gases,c) metals, e.g. magnesium, sodium, potassium, aluminum, titanium, etc..94. Group C fires concern:
a) solid bodies,
b) gases, e.g. methane, propane, acetylene, hydrogen,
c) flammable liquids.
95. Seeing such a pictogram you are informed about:
a) danger zone,
b) assembly point during evacuation,
c) a larger number of people in a given area.
96. During work, you noticed a sign marked 'Zone 0'. It informs about:
a) a space where an explosive atmosphere occurs,
b) a zone of existing fire load in the building,c) a zone of existing fire hazard category.
97. The presented pictogram informs about:
a) the main power switch,b) the internal hydrant,
c) the set of fire protection equipment.
98. Seeing such a pictogram, you are informed about:
a) the assembly point during evacuation,b) the location of first aid,
c) the emergency exit.
99. Seeing such a pictogram, you are informed about:
a) the prohibition of using the fire extinguisher,b) the high temperature affecting the fire extinguisher,
c) the location of the fire extinguisher.
100. You see a person whose clothing is on fire and who is fleeing in panic. Your reaction is:
a) you wave your arms or outer covering strongly next to him to extinguish the burning clothing,b) you tell him to wait in an upright position for the arrival of rescue services,
c) you try to stop him, lay him on the ground, and start extinguishing.
101. Electrical devices and installations can be extinguished using:
a) foam extinguishers,
b) powder or snow extinguishers,
c) water.102. Burning fuel can be extinguished using:
a) water,
b) powder, foam or snow extinguishers,
c) low-octane ethylene.103. Clothing burning on a person can be extinguished using:
a) snow or powder extinguisher,b) plastic material,
c) water mist extinguisher or fire blanket.
104. What obligations does an employee have when they decide to refrain from work due to health and safety regulations?
a) They must immediately inform their supervisor,
b) They should organize work for others,c) They have no obligations in this situation.105. How can an operator prevent hazards in the workplace?
a) By ignoring health and safety rules,b) By not reporting faults in machines,
c) By using personal protective equipment to minimize risk.
106. Which of the following situations is prohibited while operating a machine?
a) Reporting machine faults at regular intervals,b) Working near machines with appropriate signage,
c) Carrying loads over people.
107. It is not permissible to position the workplace directly under active overhead power lines or at a horizontal distance from the outermost wires of less than:
a) for lines: 1 [kV] - 1 [m], 15 [kV] - 3 [m], 30 [kV] - 5 [m], 110 [kV] - 10 [m],
b) for lines: 1 [kV] - 3 [m], 15 [kV] - 5 [m], 30 [kV] - 10 [m], 110 [kV] - 15 [m], 400 [kV] - 30 [m],
c) for all voltages - 1 [m] from the power line.108. How does the operator know what personal protective equipment is required for a given machine/technical device?
a) The operator must independently choose the appropriate protective measures,
b) Information about the necessary personal protective equipment is included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine,
c) The choice of personal protective equipment depends on the opinion of colleagues at work.109. The operator should refuse to perform a task when:
a) the work requires familiarization with the location of underground and above-ground utilities,b) the work is being performed at night,
c) the work is inconsistent with the purpose of the machine/technical device.
110. The operator can prevent hazards during the operation of the machine/technical device by:
a) adhering to health and safety rules and following the operating instructions,
b) inattention and routine,c) limiting the use of personal protective equipment.111. Which of the situations listed is unacceptable during the use of a machine/technical device?
a) Reporting faults directly to the supervisor,
b) Unauthorized persons being in the danger zone caused by the operation of the machine/technical device,
c) Operating the machine without supervision.112. An accident at work is considered to be:
a) a long-term event related to the work performed, caused by an internal reason, resulting in equipment damage,
b) a sudden event related to the work performed, caused by an external reason, resulting in injury or death,
c) a sudden event unrelated to the work performed, caused by an external reason, resulting in injury or death.113. A fatal accident at work is considered to be an accident in which death occurred:
a) more than 6 months after the date of the accident,b) only at the moment of the accident,
c) within a period not exceeding 6 months from the date of the accident.
114. It is prohibited to:
a) allow unauthorized persons within the reach of the machine's operation and work on slopes exceeding the permissible incline,
b) report noticed faults to the supervisor before starting work,c) undertake work with the machine after completing training and obtaining the appropriate qualifications.115. When getting on and off the machine, it is prohibited to:
a) intensively use the handrails and steps,b) face the machine when getting on and off,
c) use the control lever as support.
116. Occupational health and safety regulations require:
a) scrapping the old working machine within the time specified in its operating and maintenance manual, while adhering to the requirements for the disposal of hazardous materials,
b) securing the working machine during breaks in its operation against accidental activation by unauthorized persons,
c) performing a warranty inspection of the working machine before the end of one year from its purchase.117. In the event of a person being electrocuted:
a) it is recommended to use any tools to disconnect the power, regardless of their actual purpose,b) one should immediately begin resuscitation, regardless of whether the power source has been disconnected,
c) one must not touch the victim until the power source has been disconnected.
118. In the event of a person being buried under earth or sand:
a) one should dig them out as quickly as possible, provided it is safe for the person undertaking the rescue action,
b) we always calmly wait for rescue services - any attempt to help would be too dangerous,c) one should dig them out as quickly as possible regardless of their own safety - it is about their life.119. Seeing a person whose clothes are on fire, one should first:
a) use a fire extinguisher, preferably a snow extinguisher, to extinguish the burning clothing, and then try to quickly tear off the melted clothing,
b) cut off the air supply by rolling the victim or wrapping them in a fire blanket, wet clothing, or a wet blanket,
c) leave the victim standing to facilitate air access and extinguish the flames more quickly.120. If during earthworks unidentified objects are discovered, then:
a) earthworks can continue if a distance of at least 1 [m] is maintained from such an object,
b) further work is interrupted and the person supervising the earthworks is notified,
c) a danger zone with a radius of 6 [m] should be designated, beyond which normal work can resume.121. In the case of finding an unexploded ordnance during earthworks, one should:
a) stop work, remove other workers from the danger area, notify superiors and secure the site,
b) try to carefully remove the unexploded ordnance from the work site and continue working,c) ignore the unexploded ordnance if it does not pose a direct threat.122. The wedge of soil collapse:
a) is the area around the working machine extending to a distance of 6 [m] beyond its farthest reach,b) occurs only when the soil is in a frozen state,
c) occurs when the slope angle exceeds the natural slope angle of the soil.
123. The reach of the soil collapse wedge:
a) depends solely on the soil temperature,
b) depends on the depth of the excavation and the category of the soil,
c) depends on the speed of the machine's operation and the efficiency of the operator.124. The natural slope angle is:
a) the angle at which the machine can be safely operated - it depends on the parameters of the given machine,b) the angle at which the soil will definitely slide by itself - it depends solely on the temperature of that soil,
c) the maximum slope at which the soil can remain without sliding - it depends, among other things, on the category of the soil.
125. The wedge of soil collapse:
a) is the space around the machine, dependent on the speed of the machine's operation and its weight,b) is the zone where the soil becomes unstable - its reach depends solely on the depth of the excavation, the type of soil does not matter here,
c) occurs when the slope angle exceeds the natural slope angle of the soil - its reach depends on the type of soil and the depth of the excavation or the height of the slope.
126. The angle of a natural slope is:
a) the maximum slope at which the soil can remain without sliding - it depends on the type of soil, e.g. moisture, cohesion, and grain size,
b) the slope at which any embankment becomes unstable, regardless of the type of soil,c) the angle at which a machine can safely move on the embankment, regardless of the soil category.127. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is performed:
a) when the victim is not breathing and there is no detectable pulse. For a non-professional rescuer, the absence of breathing is a sufficient basis to start resuscitation,
b) only in the case of fainting and minor injuries, to improve blood circulation,c) when the victim is breathing but is unconscious and unresponsive.128. An employee has the right to refrain from performing work due to health and safety regulations, notifying their supervisor immediately when:
a) working conditions pose an immediate threat to health or life,
b) working conditions do not pose a threat but are too difficult for them,c) the work they are performing has not been reported to the construction supervision.129. Physical factors generating hazards in the workplace are:
a) lack of or inadequate training for employees,b) lack of appropriate medical examinations for the employee,
c) spilled lubricants, oils, and fuels.
130. Working with a machine/technical device is not allowed when:
a) it is malfunctioning,
b) the second operator has not reported an upcoming inspection,c) its repair was carried out after dark.131. Working near overhead power lines:
a) is possible without meeting additional requirements provided that certain distances depending on the rated voltage of the line are maintained,
b) always requires double grounding of the line,c) always requires power to be turned off in the line.132. The operator is obliged to refuse to work if:
a) they would have to work under power lines, and the voltage in them has been turned off and the line grounded,
b) the working machine is malfunctioning,
c) there is no construction manager or any other person authorized to supervise at the work site.133. The danger zone from a machine/technical device is:
a) a place where the machine/technical device cannot be used,
b) a place where there are threats to the health or life of people,
c) always the entire fenced construction site.134. Accidents at work can result from the poor technical condition of the working machine, for example:
a) injury to a limb, torso, or head,
b) damage to the equipment,c) failure of the drive system.135. Unacceptable behaviors are:
a) operating a malfunctioning machine and working under the influence of alcohol,
b) working after dark in a well-lit place, with full concentration of the operator,c) performing daily maintenance of the machine after dark.136. General rules for safely getting on and off a machine are:
a) you can step down backwards from the machine, but only if the steps are slippery,b) using cables and levers as aids for getting on is permissible when the machine is turned off,
c) a person should face the machine, remember the "three-point support" rule, and use only specially made steps and handrails.
137. Basic employee responsibilities regarding occupational health and safety are:
a) enforcing labor code regulations regarding their rights, including payment for overtime worked,b) not being late for work, finishing on time, confirming presence at work in the manner accepted by the employer,
c) adhering to health and safety regulations, taking care of the condition of machines and tools, maintaining order in the workplace, and using personal protective equipment.
138. In the case of a person electrocuted, after disconnecting the power source, one should:
a) move the injured person to another location as quickly as possible,b) leave the injured person alone if they have regained consciousness, without further actions,
c) check the condition of the injured person, and if necessary: call for help, clear the airways, perform resuscitation, and use an AED if available.
139. When a person buried under earth or sand is partially dug out, one should:
a) focus on digging out the lower parts of the injured person's body,
b) clear the airways as quickly as possible,
c) dig out the left arm as quickly as possible to check for a pulse.140. After extinguishing flames on a person with burns and calling for help, one should:
a) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes, first removing any melted clothing,
b) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes, without removing any melted clothing,
c) use a snow extinguisher to cool the burn areas.141. The statement: "The operator's qualifications for the machine you are taking the exam for are sufficient to operate such a machine on public roads" is:
a) true, but only under normal air visibility conditions,b) true,
c) false.
142. Seeing such a pictogram you are informed about:
a) the location where an external automatic defibrillator is available,
b) the location where a first aid kit is available,c) the location for performing AED.143. Properly performed cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) consists of:
a) connecting the external automatic defibrillator (AED) and following its instructions; CPR is not performed without AED,
b) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 100-120 times per minute to a depth of 5–6 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 30 compressions (breaths are not mandatory),
c) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 30-60 times per minute to a depth of 1–3 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 15 compressions (breaths are mandatory).144. Material must not be stored in the danger zone of the natural soil collapse wedge:
a) when the excavation is deeper than 1.5 [m] regardless of its support,
b) when the walls of the excavation are unsupported,
c) always when the soil is sandy.145. The abbreviation IBWR stands for:
a) Instruction for Non-Failure Execution of Works,b) Instruction for Non-Failure Execution of Works,
c) Instruction for Safe Execution of Works.
146. Expand the abbreviation IBWR:
a) Implementation of Failure-Free Execution of Works,b) Information on Safe Execution of Works,
c) Instruction for Safe Execution of Works.
147. BIOZ plan means:
a) plan of Safety and Resource Specification,
b) plan of Safety and Health Protection,
c) plan of Safe Health Protection Instruction.148. When driving a machine for earthworks on a public road, the operator must:
a) be at least 20 years old and have operator qualifications for the specific earthworks machine,
b) have a driver's license of the appropriate category, operator qualifications for the specific machine, and liability insurance,
c) only have qualifications for the specific earthworks machine, there are no additional requirements.
149. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 4 [m],
b) 1 [m],
c) 1.6 [m].150. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 1.5 [m],
b) 1.6 [m],c) 1 [m].151. The reach of the wedge of the block for an excavation with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 1 [m],b) 1.6 [m],
c) 0.5 [m].
152. The reach of the wedge of the block for an excavation with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 1.6 [m],
b) 1 [m],
c) 2 [m].153. The reach of the wedge of the block for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 1 [m],
b) 2 [m],
c) 1.6 [m].154. The reach of the wedge of the block for an excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 1 [m],b) 2 [m],
c) 3 [m].
155. The reach of the wedge of the block for an excavation with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 2.6 [m],b) 3 [m],
c) 4 [m].
156. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 1 [m],b) 2.6 [m],
c) 1.6 [m].
157. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 6.6 [m],b) 3.6 [m],
c) 2.1 [m].
158. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 2.6 [m],
b) 2 [m],c) 4.6 [m].159. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 2 [m],
b) 1.1 [m],
c) 2.6 [m].160. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 2.6 [m],
b) 1.6 [m],
c) 2 [m].161. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category III (cracked rocks) is:
a) 2 [m],
b) 2.6 [m],
c) 4.6 [m].162. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category III (cracked rocks) is:
a) 3.6 [m],
b) 3 [m],c) 2.1 [m].163. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category III (cracked rocks) is:
a) 2.6 [m],b) 4 [m],
c) 4.6 [m].
164. Traffic safety devices used in road works conducted in the road strip can be colored:
a) white, green, blue,
b) white, red, yellow, and black,
c) red, yellow-red, blue.165. Traffic safety devices used to secure and mark the site of work in the road strip should be visible:
a) only at night,
b) during the day and at night,
c) only during the day.166. The use of warning tape is permissible only for excavations up to a depth of:
a) 1.2 [m],
b) 0.5 [m],
c) 1.0 [m].167. In the case of providing pedestrians with a passage over excavations during work in the road lane, pedestrian walkways with a handrail height of should be used:
a) at least 1.1 [m],
b) 1.0 [m],c) 0.9 [m].168. In the case of the necessity to provide pedestrians with a passage over excavations during work in the road lane, pedestrian walkways with a width of should be used:
a) at least 1.0 [m],
b) from 0.8 [m] to 1.0 [m],c) not greater than 1 [m].169. During the execution of excavations in places accessible to persons not employed in these works, excavations should be secured at dusk and at night by:
a) railings equipped with red warning lights,
b) white-red warning tapes and warning cones,c) white-red warning tapes and orange warning lights.170. The handrails of the railings securing excavations in places of work accessible to persons not employed in these works should be located at a distance of:
a) not less than 1.0 [m] from the edge of the uncovered excavation,
b) not less than 1.0 [m] from the axis of the uncovered excavation,c) equal to at least the depth of the excavation from the edge of the uncovered excavation.171. The approach of other people to the machine from the side of the boom is dangerous because:
a) the operator is obliged to observe the work area from the other side,
b) the boom limits the operator's field of vision from the cabin,
c) the machine usually rotates to the right.172. In a situation of danger, when the cabin doors cannot be opened:
a) one must not leave the cabin until help arrives,b) the space after removing the floor panel can be used as an emergency exit,
c) the emergency/escape exit provided by the manufacturer should be used.
173. In the case of mechanical damage to the FOPS/ROPS cabin (e.g., denting of a cabin element) the operator:
a) should stop working and report the failure to the supervisor or the person responsible for machines in the company,
b) can continue working if the cabin windows are intact,c) can repair the damage on their own without wasting time on downtime.174. In the case of mechanical damage to the FOPS/ROPS cabin (e.g., denting of a cabin element) the operator:
a) can repair such damage on their own, but only based on the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine,b) can always repair such damage on their own,
c) cannot repair such damage on their own.
175. If the seat belt is damaged, one should:
a) continue working and report the problem after finishing work,b) exercise special caution while performing work,
c) report the damage and not start working until the belt is repaired or replaced.
176. The operator must wear a safety helmet while working with the machine when:
a) frequently leaning out of the cabin during work,
b) working in a machine not equipped with a closed cabin,
c) working on demolition tasks using long booms.177. Entering and exiting the machine should be done:
a) sideways, being careful of the instruments in the cabin,
b) facing the machine, maintaining three points of contact,
c) backwards to the machine, using a three-step ladder.178. Prohibited activities during the operation and servicing of the machine or technical device are:
a) using machines with safety or signaling devices,
b) operating machines by individuals without the appropriate qualifications,
c) using machines on rocky terrain during heavy rain.179. The site for earthworks should be:
a) permanently fenced,
b) marked and designated,
c) additionally compacted.180. Visible underground infrastructure devices that provide initial insight into their layout are most often:
a) hydrant boxes, water shut-off boxes, manhole covers,
b) sunken road frames where they pass,c) graphic symbols marked on the road surface.181. A construction excavation characterized by a width S ≤ 1.5 [m] and a length L>1.5 [m] is:
a) narrow excavation,
b) wide excavation,c) cavity excavation.182. The correct position of the equipment of a crawler excavator when approaching an incline is:
a) equipment directed downwards, close to the ground,b) equipment set as high as possible, no lower than 1 [m] from the ground,
c) equipment directed upwards about 0.2-0.5 [m] above the ground.
183. The operator can work, without the need for prior loosening, in soil:
a) category V-VIII,b) all categories above IV,
c) category I.
184. The minimum distance from the edge of the excavation with supported walls, in which spoil can be stored, is:
a) 0.3 [m] from the edge of the excavation, without additional conditions,b) directly at the edge of the excavation, if the soil is dry,
c) 0.6 [m] from the edge of the excavation, if the spoil load has been taken into account in the selection of the support.
185. The optimal mutual positioning of the excavator and the transport vehicle during loading is:
a) the excavator and the transport vehicle should be positioned at the same height to prevent material movement,b) the transport vehicle should be positioned higher than the excavator to facilitate spoil dumping,
c) the excavator should be slightly higher than the transport vehicle to minimize unnecessary movements, and the driver should remain outside the working area of the excavator.
186. A control excavation is:
a) an excavation carried out to determine the actual course of underground installations,
b) an excavation carried out solely to check the quality of the soil,c) an excavation carried out for the purpose of measuring the parameters of a construction machine.187. Examples of work classified as preparatory work before starting earthworks may include:
a) purchasing and storing materials and tools necessary for the work,b) daily operation of construction machines and technical devices,
c) preparing the area by removing obstacles, performing control excavations, and marking out the construction.
188. Humus is:
a) a mineral used for soil stabilization,b) a deeper layer of soil, usually reaching a thickness of up to 1 [m],
c) the outer layer of soil rich in humus.
189. The basic methods of dewatering excavations are:
a) extracting water by pumping, manual drying,
b) surface dewatering, deep dewatering, ring drainage,
c) mechanical dewatering, natural dewatering, surface dewatering.190. Soils, according to the degree of difficulty in their detachment, are divided into:
a) 10 categories,b) 4 categories,
c) 16 categories.
191. The frontal method of performing an excavation with a machine equipped with a bucket attachment is used:
a) when the machine is positioned in the axis of the excavation and the excavation is performed linearly,
b) when the machine works sideways along the edge of the excavation,c) when the excavation is cylindrical in shape and deeper than 1.5 [m].192. When overcoming inclines with a tracked excavator:
a) The drive wheel must be on the lower side only when descending; the attachment should always be as close to the ground as possible,
b) The drive wheel should be on the lower side, and the attachment directed according to the direction of ascent or descent,
c) The drive wheel should be positioned on the higher side, and the attachment always directed upwards.193. The operator of the machine should know the category of the soil on which he works:
a) to know the requirements for operating the machine's chassis,
b) to calculate the safe distance for positioning the machine and the reach of the spoil wedge,
c) to be able to assess the depth of the excavation.194. The correct positioning of the excavator's chassis in relation to the excavation:
a) allows for reduced fuel consumption,
b) affects the efficiency and safety of work,
c) is only significant for narrow-space excavations.195. During the loading of spoil onto a vehicle, the operator:
a) can drop the spoil onto the transport vehicle from any height convenient for him,
b) should not move the bucket with spoil over the vehicle's cabin,
c) can move the bucket with spoil over the vehicle's cabin if it speeds up the loading.196. The recommended tools for performing a control excavation near electrical installations are:
a) hand tools, preferably insulated,
b) any mechanical tools without depth restrictions,c) only an excavator with standard equipment.197. An example of work classified as preparatory work for earthworks is:
a) performing control trenches, removing trees and shrubs, marking buildings on site,
b) laying asphalt surfaces and installing fences,c) installing lighting devices and designating places for heavy machines.198. Removing humus is:
a) the main stage of earthworks,b) work performed always after the completion of construction works,
c) one of the stages of preparatory works.
199. Subsurface drainage consists of:
a) pumping water from the bottom level of the excavation,
b) lowering the groundwater level using depression wells or filter points,
c) digging ditches around the excavation.200. The term: "performance of a machine for earthworks" defines:
a) the effect of the machine's work over a unit of time,
b) the level of engine load during the machine's operation in a unit of time,c) the amount of fuel consumed by the machine per hour of operation.201. The performance of a machine for earthworks can be expressed as:
a) in units of volume or mass per unit time e.g. [m³/h], [t/h],
b) in pressure units [bar] or temperature [°C],c) in speed or revolutions per unit time e.g. [km/h], [rpm], [obr./s].202. Construction excavations are divided into:
a) small, medium, and deep,
b) narrow-space, wide-space, and cavernous,
c) underground, above ground, and intermediate.203. An excavation is classified as wide-space when:
a) its width is 1 [m], and length and depth are greater than 1.5 [m],
b) its width exceeds 1.5 [m], and length is greater than 1.5 [m],
c) its depth exceeds 2 [m] regardless of length.204. Pictograms that the operator should check before moving heavy objects refer to:
a) maximum allowable loads for different machine positions,
b) the maximum speed of the machine,c) the operating time of the machine on one tank of fuel.205. A major advantage of a tracked chassis in difficult terrain conditions is that:
a) it provides high ground pressure,
b) it provides low ground pressure,
c) it accelerates work on all surfaces.206. When working with a hydraulic hammer, one should:
a) increase the engine speed to maximum, which will lower the oil temperature and positively affect the hammer components,b) increase the engine speed to maximum, which will increase the crushing force,
c) adjust the engine speed to typical - similar to standard operation with excavator attachments.
207. Before starting work with a hydraulic hammer, one should:
a) briefly check the operation of the technical device by working "dry" to warm up the tip,b) perform proper daily maintenance and immediately proceed to work with the device,
c) warm up the machine and hydraulic system to ensure the oil reaches the required temperature.
208. For precise linear excavations in demanding terrain conditions, it is recommended to use:
a) a perforated bucket,
b) a bucket that is about 40 [%] smaller than the nominal width,
c) a wide bucket to minimize the excavation time.209. The operator during the vehicle loading cycle should:
a) make smooth movements with the attachment and not move the working tool over the operator's cabin,
b) fill the working container only halfway to avoid overload,c) avoid looking back while reversing the machine to continuously observe the material.210. The soil obtained from the excavation is called a spoil:
a) when it is stored for later use, e.g., for backfilling the excavation,
b) when it is used for soil compaction,c) regardless of future use.211. If the machine is equipped with a hydraulic quick coupler to which the working attachment is connected, it is necessary to:
a) check the condition of the quick coupler and its connection to the working attachment daily,
b) check the quick coupler only when a leak appears at the connection,c) periodically replace the quick coupler, at least once a month.212. It is possible to operate the machine with the cabin doors open:
a) only when the air temperature exceeds 25 [°C],
b) only if the operating and maintenance manual of the machine allows for such a possibility,
c) always.213. The operator can determine the maximum load values that can be lifted by the machine:
a) based on the information on the welded hook,b) through trial lifting,
c) based on the operating and maintenance manual.
214. The drive of hydraulic motors in the travel system of a single-bucket excavator is possible due to:
a) the rotation column,
b) hydraulic accumulators,c) hydraulic cylinders.215. Disconnecting the working attachment with hydraulic drive from the quick coupler is related to:
a) zeroing the hydraulic system,
b) venting the hydraulic system,c) relieving pressure from the central lubrication system.216. Performing earthworks with excavator equipment using the suction and digging method with the same machine is possible due to:
a) the exchange of the working arm,
b) rotating-tilting heads,
c) the exchange of the working tool itself.217. For the installation of rotating-tilting heads in the excavator's working system, it is necessary to:
a) equip the boom arm with a reduction,
b) equip the machine with additional free hydraulic lines,
c) install an additional tank with hydraulic oil.218. The "floating" bucket/blade system:
a) allows the machine to move smoothly on slopes,
b) works on the principle of automatic adjustment to the terrain, which is possible due to a special hydraulic system,
c) protects the equipment from loss during drainage work.219. The type of interchangeable working equipment used depends on whether:
a) the equipment is approved for use by the machine manufacturer,
b) the equipment has a CE certificate,c) the machine has undergone a periodic inspection.220. The course of underground infrastructure must be marked before starting work to:
a) allow for quick movement of machines in any direction,b) save time and reduce earthwork costs,
c) avoid the risk of damaging networks during work.
221. Which of the listed elements are not part of the hydraulic system:
a) hydraulic lock, hydraulic oil tank,b) pump, distributor, actuator,
c) starter, alternator.
222. The hydraulic lock in the machine is:
a) a valve responsible for controlling the entire hydraulic system,b) the closure of the hydraulic oil inlet at its tank,
c) a valve protecting against uncontrolled movement of the element located in a given line.
223. The change of hydraulic oil pressure into mechanical motion is the responsibility of:
a) hydraulic actuator and hydraulic motor,
b) hydraulic pump system,c) hydraulic distributor.224. The pressure in the hydraulic system is generated by:
a) hydraulic pump,
b) hydraulic motor,c) hydraulic actuator.225. Directing the flow of hydraulic oil to individual systems is carried out by:
a) hydraulic lock,
b) hydraulic distributor,
c) relief valve.226. The safety valve protects the hydraulic system from:
a) air in the hydraulic system,
b) excessive pressure increase,
c) overheating of the hydraulic oil.227. The relief valve in the hydraulic system is responsible for:
a) limiting the maximum working pressure in a given circuit,
b) maintaining a constant position of the working tool,c) venting the system.228. If the pressure in the hydraulic system increases excessively, the excess oil will be directed to:
a) the hydraulic oil tank,
b) the hydraulic oil filter,c) the distributor.229. The basic parameters that characterize an electric accumulator are:
a) rated voltage [V], power [W], weight [kg],b) rated voltage [V], resistance [Ω], power [W],
c) rated voltage [V], capacity [Ah], starting current [A].
230. Lead-acid batteries can be charged:
a) only in an air-conditioned room,b) in any room,
c) in a place specifically designated for this purpose.
231. The pressure in the tires should be adjusted to:
a) the requirements of the landowner,
b) the values given in the operating and maintenance manual,
c) the preferences of the operator.232. Uneven tire pressure:
a) does not affect the operation of the machine,
b) reduces the stability of the machine,
c) improves the driving properties of the machine.233. The front of the tracked excavator chassis:
a) can be recognized by the location of the drive wheel,
b) can only be recognized while driving,c) is on the opposite side of the counterweight.234. The key function of the boom actuator in the working system of a single-bucket excavator is:
a) to enable raising and lowering the boom,
b) to stabilize the machine during transport,c) the function of the system accumulator.235. The connecting elements essential for the functioning of the working system in a single-bucket excavator are:
a) flexible hydraulic hoses,
b) pins,
c) hooks.236. In a working machine, the reduction gear is most often located:
a) in the drive system near the drive wheels,
b) in the hydraulic system, close to the main pump,c) in the operator's cabin, near the drive controller.237. The element of the drive transmission system in a crawler excavator that allows the transfer of drive to the crawler wheels without limiting the rotation of the body is:
a) rotation column,
b) rotation mechanism,c) hydraulic distributor.238. The hydraulic distributor:
a) converts mechanical energy into hydraulic energy,
b) directs the flow of hydraulic oil to the appropriate sections,
c) increases the torque in the side transmission.239. The hydraulic distributor is a device that:
a) distributes oil between the engine and the hydraulic system,b) distributes oil between the small circuit and the large circuit,
c) allows control of individual hydraulic sections of the machine.
240. The ROPS cabin in construction machines protects the operator from:
a) dust in the operator's cabin,
b) crushing in the event of the machine overturning,
c) being hit by falling objects from above.241. The FOPS cabin in construction machines protects the operator from:
a) excessive noise in the operator's cabin,b) crushing in case the machine tips over,
c) being hit by falling objects from above.
242. The ROPS cabin in construction machines protects against:
a) the machine falling off a slope and rolling over,b) the machine tipping over,
c) crushing the operator in case the machine tips over.
243. The difference between the ROPS cabin and the FOPS cabin is that:
a) the ROPS cabin protects against noise, while the FOPS protects against the machine tipping over,b) the ROPS cabin protects against falling objects from above, while the FOPS protects against crushing,
c) the ROPS cabin protects against crushing, while the FOPS protects against falling objects from above.
244. The basic condition for the ROPS and FOPS cabins to provide effective protection to the operator is:
a) regular maintenance of the cabin,
b) the operator fastening the seat belts,
c) lubricating the cabin joints at least once a week.245. In order for a given excavator attachment to be used safely and effectively:
a) it must be approved for use in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine, ensuring compliance with the excavator's parameters,
b) it must have a certificate of conformity with standards for construction machines,c) it should be regularly lubricated and checked for wear at least once a month.246. Differential mechanism:
a) allows for the differentiation of the rotational speed of the drive wheels working on a single axle,
b) allows for an increase in speed on straight sections,c) regulates the flow of fluids in the differential system.247. Differential mechanism without engaged lock:
a) causes the wheels working on a single axle to rotate at the same speed,b) does not differentiate the rotational speed of the wheels,
c) allows the wheels working on a single axle to rotate at different speeds.
248. Automatic body rotation brake:
a) for proper operation requires prior zeroing of the hydraulic system,b) regulates the rotation speed to increase work efficiency,
c) protects the body from uncontrolled rotation.
249. Joints in drive systems serve to:
a) reduce the rotational speed of the wheels,
b) transmit torque between shafts with inclined axes,
c) stabilize the machine on uneven terrain.250. Service of cross joints in drive systems consists of:
a) daily checking of clearances,b) checking the oil level in the joints as part of daily technical service,
c) keeping them clean and regularly lubricating.
251. The element of the hydrostatic drive system that converts the mechanical energy of the engine into hydraulic energy is:
a) hydraulic oil pump,
b) rotation column,c) hydraulic motor or hydraulic actuator.252. The term bodywork in earthmoving machines refers to:
a) the upper part of the machine with the drive system,
b) the upper part of the machine,
c) the base of the machine.253. The lifting and lowering of the entire excavator equipment is the responsibility of:
a) arm actuator,b) bucket actuator,
c) boom actuator.
254. Reducing speed while simultaneously increasing the torque transmitted to the drive wheels is achieved by:
a) planetary gears,
b) wet brakes,c) hydraulic distributor.255. The differential mechanism allows the transmission of torque to the wheels:
a) while the wheels are rotating at different speeds,
b) of two different axes,c) ensuring their rotation always at the same speeds.256. In vehicles with a differential mechanism while turning:
a) the inner wheel rotates slower than the outer one,
b) the inner wheel rotates faster than the outer one,c) the load is transferred exclusively to the inner wheel.257. The stability and structural strength of the crawler excavator's chassis are ensured by:
a) the braking system, hydraulic cylinders, and slewing bearing,b) the swing wheel, shock absorbers, and cross beams,
c) the welded box frame with longitudinal beams.
258. The running rollers in the crawler excavator's running gear serve the function of:
a) increasing the tension of the tracks and transferring torque to the drive wheels,b) stabilizing the rotation column relative to the excavator frame,
c) evenly distributing the load over the entire surface of the track, which improves the stability of the machine on uneven terrain.
259. Damage to the ROPS frame that necessitates its replacement includes:
a) minor surface scratches,b) discoloration of the paint caused by weather conditions and the passage of time,
c) cracking or bending of the structure.
260. Drilling additional holes in the ROPS type cabin structure is prohibited because:
a) it causes a decrease in the strength of the structure,
b) it reduces the operator's comfort,c) it decreases the weight of the machine.261. The flow and direction of hydraulic fluid in the system are regulated by:
a) hydraulic valves,
b) hydraulic pumps,c) hydraulic motors.262. Elements of the system, such as actuators and hydraulic motors, convert hydraulic energy into:
a) pressure in the tank,
b) mechanical energy,
c) electrical energy.263. A too tightly tensioned track can cause:
a) immediate problems with the movement of the machine,b) preventing the machine from turning,
c) excessive wear of the chain, drive wheels, and rollers.
264. A too loose track can result in:
a) greater load on the hydraulic system,b) improved traction when working in marshy terrain,
c) falling off the undercarriage and accelerated wear of pins and drive wheels.
265. The primary task of the hydraulic accumulator in the hydrostatic system is:
a) storing energy in the form of pressure of the working fluid,
b) evenly distributing oil to the system receivers,c) regulating the temperature of the working fluid.266. In the hydrostatic system, the energy of the liquid pressure is transmitted to:
a) thermostatic, overflow, and check valves,b) oil coolers and pressure gauges,
c) hydraulic motors or hydraulic actuators.
267. The hydraulic rotator in working machines:
a) facilitates the rotation of the machine around its own axis,
b) allows the working tool to rotate around its own axis,
c) increases the stability of the machine when working on slopes.268. The hydraulic rotator is used in working machines because:
a) it allows the working tool to operate in positions inaccessible without the rotator,
b) it increases the pressure force of the tool on the working surface,c) it reduces the weight of the hydraulic equipment.269. The function of the FOPS protective structure is:
a) to protect the operator from the effects of the machine overturning,b) to protect the operator from the effects of exhaust fumes and noise,
c) to protect the operator from falling objects.
270. The FOPS protective structure must be used when:
a) performing work where heavy elements may fall on the cabin (e.g., demolition work, in quarries, etc.),
b) all earthworks,c) underwater work.271. In a machine equipped with a ROPS or FOPS protective structure, there must be an additional safety system used by the operator, which is:
a) safety helmet, safety footwear,
b) seat belts,
c) safety footwear, hearing protectors, respiratory protection.272. The ROPS protective structure in a machine:
a) is not required when only qualified machine operators are employed,b) is not required when it is not technically possible, and there is a low risk of the machine overturning (possibility of support with a boom),
c) is always required.
273. Optimal shock and vibration damping of the operator's seat is achieved by:
a) setting the seat rigidly,
b) adjusting the seat to the weight of the operator,
c) as flexible adjustment of the seat as possible.274. The control panel for locking the working tool, when the machine is equipped with a quick-change device with hydraulic locking, is equipped with:
a) protection against unintentional activation of the control panel,
b) protection against excessively high engine speed,c) 16-amp overload protection.275. Protective equipment that a machine must have during demolition work is:
a) a device warning against overload and protection against cable breakage on the boom,
b) protective canopy – FOPS cabin,
c) a signal lamp and white-red-white safety stickers.276. The mandatory equipment used for the operator to observe the area directly behind the machine is:
a) rear camera,b) sound signal when reversing,
c) external mirror.
277. Together with the operator in the machine's cabin, other people can ride if:
a) the machine is moving at a low speed,b) they have undergone health and safety training with the operator and there are a maximum of 2 people,
c) the manufacturer has installed an additional seat.
278. The rotation of the body of a single-bucket excavator occurs thanks to:
a) hydraulic rotary latches,b) hydrokinetic transmission,
c) hydraulic motor.
279. The most important element of the operator's cabin equipment from the perspective of his safety is:
a) seat belt,
b) emergency STOP button,c) mirror or camera.280. Mirrors and the reversing camera in the machine are used for:
a) checking the technical condition of the machine,b) facilitating the maneuvering of the working equipment,
c) improving the operator's visibility and increasing safety.
281. In ROPS-type cabins, additional equipment can be installed independently, e.g., phone holders:
a) but this equipment must be permanently screwed to the cabin structure,b) remembering that installation is only possible on the cabin posts,
c) provided that there is no interference with the cabin structure.
282. In machines that do not have closed cabins, ROPS protection can be implemented using:
a) additional barriers mounted on the machine's body,
b) rollover protection bars,
c) a machine stabilization system or ballasting.283. A green flashing light placed on the machine's cabin signals, among other things:
a) the machine's ecological operating mode is activated,b) no operator in the cabin,
c) correct fastening of the seat belts.
284. In a parallel connection of two identical batteries, the voltage of such a system is:
a) the sum of the voltages of the individual batteries,b) the product of the voltages of the individual batteries,
c) equal to the voltage of a single battery.
285. In a series connection of two identical batteries, the voltage of such a system is:
a) the product of the voltages of the individual batteries,
b) the sum of the voltages of the individual batteries,
c) equal to the voltage of a single battery.286. Fuses in the electrical installation of the machine protect it from the effects of:
a) low voltage ,b) high temperature,
c) short circuits and overloads.
287. One of the elements of the electrical system protecting the motor from seizing is:
a) speed controller,b) main fuse,
c) engine oil pressure sensor.
288. Gel batteries, which are elements of the electrical system, do not require:
a) electrolyte replenishment,
b) replacement in case of housing damage,c) charging with a rectifier.289. Electrical systems of machines and devices should be equipped with a device that causes emergency stop in at least the amount of:
a) one device causing emergency stop, in accordance with the European machinery directive,
b) two devices causing emergency stop placed on both sides of the machine, in accordance with the European machinery directive,c) three devices causing emergency stop, in accordance with the European machinery directive.290. The emergency stop device of the machine is an element of:
a) fuel system,b) drive system,
c) electrical system.
291. The main parameters of the internal combustion engine affecting work efficiency are:
a) type of carburetor, type of ignition system,b) compression ratio, displacement,
c) torque, rotational speed.
292. The crank-piston system of the internal combustion engine is designed to:
a) convert mechanical energy into hydraulic energy,
b) convert the reciprocating motion of the piston into the rotational motion of the crankshaft,
c) ensure the effective operation of the clutch.293. The lubrication system in the internal combustion engine:
a) is responsible for removing hazardous substances generated in the combustion process of the mixture,b) provides regulation of rotational speed and reduces engine vibrations during operation,
c) is responsible for the proper lubrication of the moving elements of the engine that work together.
294. Systems present in internal combustion engines include, among others:
a) crank-piston system, fuel system, cooling system,
b) exhaust system, pneumatic system, closed system,c) hydraulic system, intake system.295. The low-pressure part of the fuel system of a diesel engine is:
a) fuel lines, high-pressure pump, common rail,
b) fuel tank, supply pump, filters, fuel lines,
c) fuel tank and injectors.296. The element controlling the flow of coolant in the so-called "large circuit" is:
a) thermostat,
b) thermocouple,c) hot water bottle.297. An intercooler is:
a) an air cooler for turbocharged engines,
b) a device for burning solid particles in exhaust gases,c) another name for the engine coolant radiator.298. DPF filter:
a) is a dry particulate filter responsible, among other things, for capturing soot from exhaust gases,
b) is used to reduce NOx (nitrogen oxides) emissions,c) is a precise cabin filter protecting the operator while working in high dust conditions.299. The frequency and scope of periodic maintenance of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam:
a) is determined by the owner of the machine/technical device,
b) is included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine,
c) is included in the IBWR documentation.300. The operating and maintenance manual for the machine/technical device is:
a) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device, which includes, among others, IBWR,
b) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device,
c) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by the health and safety services on the construction site.301. The operator of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam must not:
a) use the machine/technical device contrary to its intended purpose,
b) check the technical condition of the machine/technical device during operation,c) make any repairs or maintenance.302. When operating a machine with interchangeable attachments/working tools, the operator should:
a) follow the instructions for the operation and maintenance of the machine and the mounted attachments/working tools,
b) follow only the instructions for the operation and maintenance of the mounted attachments/working tools,c) follow only the instructions for the operation and maintenance of the machine.303. A symptom of too low a level of hydraulic oil may be:
a) uneven operation of the diesel engine,b) loud operation of the starter,
c) "jerky" intermittent movement of the hydraulic actuators.
304. In the event of detecting damage to the tires that may pose a threat, the operator should:
a) stop work,
b) notify the supervisor and cautiously continue working,c) continue working while reducing the speed and load of the machine.305. If the warning light for too low engine oil pressure comes on, the operator:
a) may continue working if the hydraulic system is functioning properly,
b) should stop working and turn off the engine,
c) does not need to take any action.306. The cause of the machine's instability may be:
a) driving on a hardened surface,
b) too low tire pressure,
c) operating the machine in the appropriate place.307. The cause of the machine's instability may be:
a) driving with the working tool raised high,
b) driving with the working tool lowered to the transport height,c) driving on a hardened surface.308. The operating and maintenance manual for the machine/technical device:
a) is used to record information about faults,
b) includes, among other things, information about hazards when operating the machine/technical device,
c) is established by the owner or user of the machine.309. The CE Declaration of Conformity is a document:
a) issued by institutions that test machines for resistance to weather conditions,
b) in which the manufacturer confirms that their product meets all applicable EU requirements regarding safety, health protection, and environmental protection,
c) confirming that the product was manufactured in the countries of the European Union.310. Information regarding the use of personal protective equipment and ways to reduce occupational risk can be found by the operator:
a) in the operating and maintenance manual for the machine/technical device,
b) in the CE Declaration of Conformity,c) in the service book.311. The operating and maintenance instructions for the machine/technical device:
a) are developed by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device or the entity that introduces the machine/technical device to the market,
b) are created by the construction manager based on information from the manufacturer,c) are created by institutions that conduct research and accreditation of machine/technical device prototypes before allowing them for serial production.312. The operating and maintenance instructions for the machine/technical device:
a) should be located in the machine or with the technical device, treated as part of the machine/technical device, and be available at all times,
b) should be located in the office along with the company's documentation and be available in case of inspection,c) does not matter where it is located, the most important thing is that the owner of the machine has it in case of resale of the machine.313. Identification data of the machine/technical device:
a) should be recorded on the inner side of the protective helmet assigned to the given machine/technical device,
b) are located on the nameplate of the machine/technical device, additionally they may be in the marking places described in the instructions,
c) due to their importance are always printed in red.314. To minimize the risk of malfunction of the machine/technical device, the operator should:
a) regularly visually assess the condition of the machine/technical device and report any noticed irregularities,
b) use the machine/technical device until the failure becomes serious,c) perform maintenance activities only when the machine/technical device stops working.315. Key activities for the safe technical operation of the machine are:
a) securing equipment, covers, and doors against accidental closure and using personal protective equipment,
b) using latex gloves, without the need for other personal protective equipment,c) performing technical service without securing working equipment to save time.316. The rules for safely performing technical service on machines are:
a) the machine should be positioned on level ground, working equipment lowered to the ground, engine turned off, and the key removed from the ignition,
b) the machine can be left on a sloped area, as long as the operator plans a short technical service,c) the engine may remain on to conduct service more quickly, especially if the machine is running idle.317. Breaking in a machine during the initial period of operation is:
a) an intensive full load test of the machine,b) a stage of the machine's operation without load,
c) the process of achieving optimal clearances and even wear of parts.
318. During the break-in of the machine, the operator should pay attention to:
a) operate at maximum load,
b) limit the machine's load to the level specified in the operation and maintenance manual,
c) always turn off the lubrication systems before operation.319. When driving on public roads, the following steering mode should be used:
a) only the rear wheels steer,
b) only the front wheels steer,
c) all wheels steer simultaneously (AWS).320. The main advantage of the AWS mode (all wheels steer simultaneously) is that:
a) it allows for achieving small turning radii,
b) it reduces tire wear when driving on long stretches,c) it increases the stability of the machine on uneven terrain.321. The operator uses the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine or technical device to:
a) learn the technical specifications, health and safety rules, and methods of repairing faults,
b) record all faults of the machine or technical device noticed during operation,c) record the hours worked and fuel consumption by the machine.322. The operational part of the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine or technical device includes:
a) a catalog of spare parts,b) a detailed description of the construction and operation of all elements of the machine/technical device,
c) instructions regarding, among others, controlling the machine/technical device.
323. The operating and maintenance instructions must always be present with the machine/technical device because:
a) it minimizes the risk of losing it,
b) its absence may be the reason for the inspector not allowing the machine to operate,
c) it is essential for periodic technical inspections.324. Basic maintenance of hydraulic hoses in the excavator working system consists of:
a) regular oil replacement in the hoses,b) daily tightening of hose connections to ensure their tightness,
c) visually checking their tightness and condition to prevent oil leaks.
325. The elements of the working system that require regular lubrication are:
a) pins connecting individual parts of the equipment,
b) flexible hydraulic hoses,c) side surfaces of hydraulic cylinders.326. The SAE designation on oil refers to:
a) engine oil pressure,b) multi-season qualification of the oil,
c) engine oil viscosity, that is, its ability to flow and lubricate.
327. Oil with the SAE 15W-40 symbol means that:
a) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40,b) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 15W,
c) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 15W, and at positive temperatures of summer oil class SAE 40.
328. Oil with the SAE 10W-30 symbol means that:
a) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W,
b) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W, and at positive temperatures of summer oil class SAE 30,
c) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 30.329. The SAE 10W-30 symbol means:
a) hydraulic oil with specified parameters,
b) multi-season engine oil with specified parameters,
c) a mixture of engine oil and hydraulic oil.330. Engine oil with the SAE 5W-40 symbol means that:
a) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 5W, and at positive temperatures of summer oil class SAE 40,
b) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40,c) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 5W.
331. The symbol of the warning light shown in the graphic means:
a) low coolant level,
b) low engine oil level,
c) low engine oil pressure.
332. The symbol of the warning light shown in the graphic means:
a) low engine oil pressure,
b) low fuel level,c) low coolant level.
333. The symbol of the light shown means:
a) engine oil,
b) hydraulic oil,c) engine oil filter.
334. The symbol of the light shown means:
a) hydraulic oil level,
b) engine oil level,
c) engine coolant level.335. Oils with designations 70W, 85W, 80W-90 are:
a) engine oils,b) brake oils,
c) gear oils.
336. In the case of the need to dismantle the cover/protection for maintenance, one must not:
a) reinstall the cover/protection,
b) start working with the machine without installing the cover/protection,
c) record such a fact in the documentation.337. The lighting of the battery charging indicator signals to the operator of the construction machine a malfunction of:
a) the battery switch,b) the starter,
c) the V-belt and/or alternator.
338. The operator's seat cannot be adjusted when:
a) the engine is not started,b) the seat is turned backwards,
c) the machine is in motion.
339. If during daily technical maintenance before work the operator notices that one of the windows in the cabin is cracked, then:
a) he can start work if it is not the front window,b) he can start work provided that the window is only cracked and has not "fallen out",
c) he should not start work.
340. Before starting work, the operator should:
a) install sun visors on the windows,
b) clean the windows by removing snow, ice, and other contaminants,
c) open the windows for better communication.341. When changing hydraulic oils, it is necessary to:
a) always use only biodegradable oils,b) use any type of oil,
c) use only types of oils recommended by the machine manufacturer.
342. To ensure the technical efficiency of the working machine, it is necessary to:
a) operate the machine/technical device without exceeding 50% of the permissible load,
b) follow technical service and maintenance according to the operating and maintenance instructions,
c) operate the machine/technical device only under full load.343. On the construction site, empty containers of lubricants, oil filters, and used oils should be:
a) placed in a properly marked container for hazardous waste,
b) thrown into any waste container,c) thrown into a mixed waste container.344. Stickers (pictograms) located on the machine/technical device serve to:
a) convey essential information about safety and the use of the machine/technical device,
b) indicate places where one can stay without any risk,c) inform about the prohibition of approaching the machine/technical device.345. Lubrication points in the machine should be serviced:
a) always after 10 hours of operation,
b) according to the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine,
c) during all breaks in operation.346. Engine oil with parameters 5W-50 is:
a) summer oil only,b) winter oil only,
c) multi-season oil.
347. Before starting work on a new type of machine/technical device, the operator should:
a) familiarize themselves with the operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device,
b) perform a test run,c) conduct a periodic inspection.348. OTC service is:
a) daily technical service,
b) temporary technical service,c) round-the-clock technical service.349. The basic types of services are:
a) daily, periodic, warehouse, transport service,
b) round-the-clock, multi-season, annual, technological service,c) visual, active, passive service.350. Batteries, when starting the machine using a supporting battery, should be connected:
a) crosswise,
b) in parallel,
c) in series.351. In the case of electrolyte loss caused by spillage through a cracked battery casing, one should:
a) add electrolyte to the proper level and charge the battery,b) add demineralized water to a level 10 mm above the upper edges of the plates,
c) secure the leak area in terms of environmental protection, and then replace the battery.
352. The activities performed by the operator as part of daily maintenance during operation are:
a) auditory control of the machine's operation and observation of indicators,
b) replenishing operating fluids and daily lubrication,c) cleaning the machine.353. When inflating a tire of the machine's wheel, one should:
a) check the condition of the inflated wheel by bending the side of the tire,b) stand by the inflated wheel provided that a safety helmet is worn,
c) not stand directly next to the inflated wheel.
354. If the manufacturer has provided for operational run-in, it should be carried out:
a) without load,b) with maximum load,
c) with the load recommended in the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine/technical device.
355. During the storage of the machine on a wheeled chassis, the machine's wheels should be:
a) secured with wedges,b) removed from the machine,
c) unloaded.
356. Driving a machine on public roads should be done in the position:
a) working,
b) transport,
c) transfer.357. When loading the machine onto the transport vehicle, the operator should:
a) know the permissible angle of inclination of the loading ramps for the given machine,
b) know the maximum speed allowed for the given transport vehicle,c) perform the approach at a speed of at least 5 [km/h].358. The responsibility for the placement and securing of the machine on the transport vehicle lies with:
a) the carrier (e.g. driver),
b) the owner or the person responsible for the machines in the company,c) the machine operator.359. When storing the machine, one should ensure that:
a) there are no leaks of operating fluids,
b) no documents of the machine are left in the cabin,c) the machine is facing the exit.360. Securing the machine during storage involves:
a) filling the hydraulic oil tank to the top,
b) cleaning the machine of dirt and corrosion,
c) disassembling all filters and protecting them from moisture.361. The hydraulic cylinder rods, during the technical service of the storage machine, should:
a) be disassembled and cleaned,
b) be protected against corrosion,
c) be disassembled and have their seals replaced.362. During the transport of the machine:
a) over short distances, tools and other items can be transported in the working tool,b) tools and other items can be transported in the bucket if it is free,
c) tools and other items cannot be transported in the working tool.
363. When loading the machine onto the transport vehicle:
a) assistance from a second person is recommended,
b) assistance from a second person is recommended only when loading onto a low-loader trailer,c) the operator should drive onto the transport vehicle independently.364. The recommended method for loading heavy working machines onto low-loader trailers is:
a) loading using other machines,
b) mechanized loading from the front ramp,
c) loading on ropes.365. During longer storage of the machine, the fuel tank should be:
a) filled to 1/3 of its capacity and left open,b) empty to avoid fire hazards,
c) filled to the top to prevent condensation of water vapor inside the tank.
366. During the daily operation of the machine, the condition of should be checked:
a) connections and tightness of the hydraulic system,
b) the value of working pressure in the hydraulic system,c) tools and equipment.367. If the machine's engine has not been running for a long time during daily operation, you should:
a) check the oil level and other operating fluids,
b) start the engine and gently increase the RPM to reach the operating temperature faster,c) replace the fuel pre-filter.368. When inflating tires on a working machine, the operator should:
a) stand directly in front of the tire to monitor the pressure,
b) stand to the side of the tire tread or on the other side of the machine,
c) ensure that bystanders are nearby.369. Information regarding faults, their codes, and methods of removal can be found in the document titled:
a) construction machine book,
b) operating and maintenance manual,
c) daily report.370. The correct order for connecting the auxiliary battery to the discharged battery in the machine is as follows:
a) negative terminal of the battery in the machine, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, machine frame,b) machine frame, positive terminal of the battery in the machine, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery,
c) positive terminal of the battery in the machine, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, machine frame.
371. In case of electrolyte loss in the battery, one should:
a) top it up with DOT-3 fluid,b) top it up with water other than distilled,
c) top it up with distilled or demineralized water.
372. Checking the charge level of a 12 [V] starter battery by "sparking" poses a risk of:
a) an explosion of hydrogen escaping from the battery,
b) electric shock from high voltage,c) seizing of the alternator.373. Before storing wheels in a wheeled machine, one should:
a) relieve the load to prevent tire deformation,
b) loosen to reduce the static load on the mounting screws,c) inflate to maximum pressure to prevent tire deformation.374. The scope of daily technical service of the machine does not include:
a) checking the oil level in the engine,
b) checking and adjusting valve clearances,
c) checking the condition of the tires and tire pressure.375. When cleaning the radiator, to avoid damaging it, one should:
a) use a strong stream of water under high pressure,b) use sharp tools for cleaning,
c) keep the compressed air nozzle at an appropriate distance from the radiator.
376. The purpose of lubrication in working machines is:
a) to raise the temperature of cooperating elements,
b) to reduce friction,
c) to increase the engine's rotational speed.377. The most commonly used type of fuses in electrical installations of working machines is:
a) fuse links,
b) automatic fuses,c) residual current devices.378. The phenomenon of electrostatic discharge during refueling a machine can lead to:
a) a short circuit in the electrical installation,b) poisoning,
c) a fire.
379. In the case of connecting two batteries in parallel with different rated voltages:
a) thicker cables should be used than with batteries of the same rated voltages,
b) there may be an explosion of the battery with the lower rated voltage,
c) both batteries may discharge.380. When checking the pressure in a tire, the machine should be:
a) loaded to make the measurement more accurate,b) running and warmed up,
c) unloaded, and the tire should be cold.
381. The correct way to connect a battery to a charger during charging is:
a) positive terminal of the battery to the negative terminal of the charger, negative terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger,b) positive terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger, negative terminal of the charger to the "ground" machine,
c) positive terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger, negative terminal of the battery to the negative terminal of the charger.
382. After connecting the battery, the terminals are lubricated with:
a) graphite grease,b) grease containing molybdenum disulfide,
c) technical vaseline.
383. To safely inflate a tire, one should:
a) use a short pneumatic hose with a manometer,
b) stand to the side of the tire tread and use a long pneumatic hose,
c) stand opposite the tire valve while inflating.384. One of the goals of warehouse management is:
a) repairing damaged machine parts before the next season,b) preparing the machine for transport for the future user,
c) protecting the machine from corrosion and other harmful factors during long-term storage.
385. If during daily technical service the operator notices a leak in the cooling system, they should:
a) top up the coolant and continue working,b) organize the fluid and top up to the minimum level if the leak is small,
c) report the leak and not use the machine until it is repaired.
386. The level of coolant in the expansion tank should be checked:
a) only in case of engine overheating,
b) during every daily technical service,
c) only during periodic technical service.387. If the operator notices a hydraulic fluid leak during daily technical service, he should:
a) report the leak and not use the machine until it is repaired,
b) top up the oil and continue working,c) reduce the RPM and continue working.388. The frequency of performing periodic technical service depends on:
a) the production date of the machine,b) the number of completed working cycles,
c) the number of hours worked (engine hours).
389. If during daily technical service the operator notices a low level of engine oil, he should:
a) start working if the level is not very low and the warning light is not on,
b) top up the oil to the appropriate level,
c) top up the level with any available oil, even if it is of a different type.390. A characteristic activity for seasonal technical service is:
a) checking the charging voltage value,
b) replacing the coolant with one suitable for the season,
c) checking the working pressure value of the hydraulic system.391. Basic servicing tasks that must be performed before starting a diesel engine are:
a) checking the oil level in the engine, checking the coolant level, checking the condition of the air filter,
b) bleeding the fuel system, checking the oil level in the transmission, checking the starter,c) checking the oil level in the gearbox, checking the operation of the working system, checking the operation of the brakes.392. Tasks performed as part of daily technical service (OTC) carried out during the operation of the machine are:
a) primarily the organoleptic control of the proper operation of the machine's working system,b) observation only of control and measurement indicators such as: oil pressure, engine temperature, hydraulic oil temperature,
c) observation of control and measurement instruments and checking the proper operation of the machine using sight, hearing, and smell.
393. We distinguish, among others, the following types of technical services:
a) transport, commissioning, daily, periodic, seasonal, storage,
b) commissioning, daily, periodic, seasonal, storage, emergency, night,c) transport, commissioning, storage, operational-repair (ON), catalog.394. We perform technical services in order to:
a) ensure quiet operation of the machine or technical device,b) maintain the value of the machine or technical device at a constant, unchanged level,