Multi-bucket excavators class I
Study mode
Question of 238
1. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage not exceeding 1 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?
a) not less than 3 [m],
b) not less than 2 [m],c) not less than 5 [m].2. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?
a) not less than 5 [m],
b) not less than 15 [m],c) not less than 10 [m].3. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?
a) not less than 10 [m],
b) not less than 5 [m],c) not less than 15 [m].4. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?
a) not less than 10 [m],
b) not less than 15 [m],
c) not less than 20 [m]. Multi-bucket excavators Class I5. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?
a) not less than 30 [m],
b) not less than 10 [m],c) not less than 15 [m].6. Can workstations be organized in the danger zone under overhead power lines?
a) yes, but only after meeting additional requirements,
b) no, never,c) yes, always.
7. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [V]?
a) not less than 3 [m],
b) not less than 5 [m],c) not less than 30 [m].8. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV]?
a) not less than 5 [m],
b) not less than 10 [m],c) not less than 15 [m].9. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?
a) not less than 15 [m],
b) not less than 10 [m],
c) not less than 30 [m].10. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?
a) not less than 10 [m],
b) not less than 5 [m],c) not less than 15 [m].11. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV]?
a) not less than 50 [m],
b) not less than 15 [m],
c) not less than 30 [m].12. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV]?
a) not less than 10 [m],
b) not less than 30 [m],c) not less than 15 [m].13. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]?
a) not less than 40 [m],b) not less than 3 [m],
c) not less than 30 [m].
14. Work in the danger zone (overhead high voltage power line):
a) may be carried out provided that permission has been granted by the work manager,
b) may be carried out provided that the line has been disconnected from the voltage, work is performed in a zone limited by groundings and at least one grounding is visible from the work location,
c) may under no circumstances be carried out under electrical lines in the danger zone.15. The operator must perform work at a distance X from an active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [V]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 2 [m],
b) 5 [m],
c) 1 [m].16. The operator must perform work at a distance X from an active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 5 [m],b) 3 [m],
c) 15 [m].
17. The operator must perform work at a distance X from an active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 50 [m],
b) 15 [m],c) 5 [m].18. If the injured person has a detectable pulse but is not breathing, then:
a) chest compressions should be performed,
b) the airways should be cleared and artificial respiration started,
c) he should not be touched.19. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, it is essential to:
a) move away from the accident scene to call a doctor,
b) provide assistance to those in life-threatening situations,
c) give medication to the injured.20. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, it is essential to:
a) move away from the accident scene to call a doctor,b) provide assistance to those in life-threatening situations,
c) ensure your own safety.
21. The obligation to provide first aid to accident victims rests with:
a) everyone, as it is always possible to perform part of the rescue tasks,
b) only those who have medical training,c) everyone, but for any mistakes, there is always a risk of criminal liability.22. The accident victim regained consciousness after a few minutes and wants to go home. In this situation, one should:
a) give her something to drink and painkillers,b) allow her to go home, recommending a visit to the doctor,
c) persuade her to stay and call for medical help.
23. First aid in a situation where a foreign body has entered the eye of the injured person consists of:
a) rinsing with clean water directing the stream from the nose outward from the eye,
b) rinsing the eye with eye drops,c) rinsing with distilled water directing the stream into the eye.24. The injured person cut their leg on an unsecured sharp element. Providing first aid in this situation is:
a) applying sterile gauze, wrapping the wound with a bandage,
b) sticking a plaster directly on the wound,c) using a tourniquet.25. Suspecting spinal injury in a person who has fallen from a height and is conscious, one should:
a) place her in a stable side position,
b) not move her and wait for medical services to arrive,
c) sit her in a semi-reclining position.26. To move away from the place where the electric wire was interrupted and the area is under voltage, one should:
a) slowly step away from this place, taking small steps, trying to maintain continuous contact of the feet with the ground,
b) run as fast as possible to a place that we assess as safe,c) quickly step away from the source of electric shock, lifting the feet high.27. First aid in the case of a first-degree burn is:
a) pouring cold water on the burned area,
b) applying greasy cream to the burned area,c) applying ointment to the burned area.28. During work, a high voltage power line was torn down, as a result of which a colleague was electrocuted. In this situation, the correct behavior is:
a) call other colleagues for help with the injured person,b) approach the injured person to provide first aid,
c) turn off the power source as quickly as possible.
29. We perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation until:
a) the fire brigade arrives and secures the area,b) 10 minutes pass,
c) we have determined that the victim has started to breathe and circulation has returned.
30. Immediate action in the case of severe bleeding from an injured upper limb includes:
a) lowering the limb below the level of the heart,b) disinfecting the wound with salicylic alcohol,
c) applying a dressing, directly compressing the bleeding site, and elevating the limb.
31. In case of a nosebleed, one should:
a) lean the bleeding person's head forward, pinch the nostrils,
b) lay the injured person on their back,c) tilt the head back and place a cold compress on the neck.32. The first step in dealing with a victim of carbon monoxide poisoning in a closed room is:
a) conducting a preliminary examination,b) assessing ABC,
c) the quickest possible evacuation of the injured person from that room.
33. First aid during seizures caused by an epileptic attack consists of:
a) placing a wooden object in the injured person's mouth to prevent biting the tongue,
b) protecting the injured person's head from injuries,
c) seating the injured person in a semi-sitting position and giving them something to drink.34. In case of suspected cervical spine injury in a conscious person, one should:
a) seat the injured person in a chair with a high back,
b) not allow the injured person to move their head,
c) place the injured person in a lateral position.35. The most important thing when a person is buried under earth, sand, or gravel is:
a) locating the injured person,
b) notifying the family,c) waiting for the arrival of the ambulance.36. First aid for a person with a metal rod embedded in their lower leg involves calling for help and:
a) moving the rod to check if the artery is damaged,b) removing the embedded rod,
c) securing the rod to prevent movement.
37. The indication for using an AED defibrillator is:
a) severe dizziness,
b) absence of detectable breath and pulse in the injured person,
c) severe chest pain.38. During the operation of a machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam, the prohibited actions are:
a) changing the working tool,b) performing daily technical service (OTC),
c) making structural changes to the machine/technical device.
39. During the operation of a machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam, the prohibited actions are:
a) cleaning the machine/technical device using gasoline or solvents whose vapors can create flammable/explosive gas mixtures with air,
b) refueling the machine/technical device from a canister,c) cleaning the machine/technical device using a product in accordance with the operating and maintenance instructions.40. When performing earthworks with a machine for which you are taking the exam, it is unacceptable to:
a) have people within the working range of the machine's working tool,
b) have people near the machine during technical service operations,c) have people at a distance greater than the sum of the maximum reach of the working tool plus 6 meters.41. During work, it is unacceptable to:
a) work near an active power line with a rated voltage of 10 [kV] at a distance of 10 [m],
b) work near active overhead power lines at a distance less than specified by regulations,
c) work near an active power line with a rated voltage of 20 [kV] at a distance of 15 [m].42. The machine/technical device you are taking the exam for can only be operated by:
a) any adult person with technical education and a driving license of the appropriate category,b) a person with written confirmation of course completion in the form of a plastic card,
c) a person who has completed training and obtained a positive result from the test conducted by the commission appointed by the Łukasiewicz Research Network – Warsaw Institute of Technology.
43. The qualifications to operate the machines/technical devices you are taking the exam for are issued by:
a) Łukasiewicz Research Network - Warsaw Institute of Technology (LRN - WIT),
b) The County Office appropriate for the residence address of the person applying for the qualifications,c) The Office of Technical Inspection (UTI).44. The qualifications to operate the machines/technical devices you are taking the exam for:
a) are valid indefinitely,
b) are valid for 5 years from the date of issue,c) are valid for 10 years from the date of issue.45. A person holding qualifications to operate: "Multi-bucket excavators class I" can operate based on them:
a) all multi-bucket excavators,
b) all multi-bucket excavators with a capacity of up to 500 [m³/h], including chain multi-bucket excavators for ditches,
c) all multi-bucket excavators, including chain multi-bucket excavators for ditches.46. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam may start work provided that:
a) the machine/technical device has a valid UDT inspection,
b) has the qualifications to operate this type of machine/technical device,
c) has a valid category D driving license.47. In the event of a threat to life, health, property, or the environment caused by a malfunction of the machine/technical device, the operator:
a) immediately stops work and informs the supervisor of this fact,
b) continues working but informs the supervisor of the situation at the end of the shift,c) continues working but makes the appropriate entry in the maintenance book at the end of the shift.48. Lifting and transporting people using working equipment:
a) requires the consent of the construction manager,
b) is always prohibited,
c) is possible, but only outside the public road area.49. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam has the right to refuse to start work when:
a) has the required personal protective equipment,
b) this work requires special psychophysical fitness, and his psychophysical condition does not ensure its safe performance and poses a threat to others,
c) there is an overhead power line with a rated voltage of 110 [kV] at a distance of 35 meters.50. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is obliged to stop work when:
a) there is an overhead power line at a distance of 35 meters,b) has the required personal protective equipment,
c) the work he is performing poses a direct threat to the health or life of others.
51. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is required to:
a) comply with the instructions for the operation and use of the machine/technical device,
b) independently perform all current repairs of the machine/technical device,c) always have a category B driving license.52. The person directly responsible for the safe operation of the machine for which you are taking the exam is:
a) the machine operator,
b) the construction manager,c) the owner of the machine.53. The operator's book and qualifications for the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam are issued by:
a) Transport Technical Supervision (TDT),
b) Łukasiewicz Research Network - Warsaw Institute of Technology,
c) Technical Supervision Office (UDT).54. The obligation to use personal protective equipment:
a) does not apply on hot days,
b) arises from the instructions for operation and use as well as health and safety regulations,
c) arises only from internal regulations.55. An employee who witnesses an accident at work:
a) only needs to inform their supervisor,b) is required to provide assistance to the victims and then immediately leave the accident site,
c) is required to provide assistance to the victims, inform their supervisor, and if necessary secure the accident site.
56. The danger zone is defined as:
a) a place where work requiring specialized equipment is carried out, and the presence of people is only allowed at night,b) a place where employees must only wear protective helmets,
c) a place where there are threats to the health and life of people.
57. The area that the operator should check and secure before starting work with a machine/technical device (because there are threats to the health and life of people) is called:
a) dead zone,b) area of increased risk,
c) danger zone.
58. Firefighting foam can be used to extinguish fires of group:
a) only C,
b) A and B,
c) C and D.59. Improper use of a snow extinguisher can result in:
a) fainting,b) burns from the extinguisher elements,
c) frostbite caused by the extinguishing agent.
60. Water, fire blanket, powder extinguisher, carbon dioxide, sand are extinguishing agents that we will use to extinguish:
a) oils,
b) solid bodies,
c) liquids.61. Sorbents can be called:
a) fire blankets,
b) materials made of natural or synthetic substances that absorb liquids,
c) petroleum substances.62. Group A fires concern:
a) solid bodies, whose normal combustion occurs with the formation of glowing coals, e.g. wood, paper, etc.,
b) flammable gases,c) flammable liquids.63. Group B fires concern:
a) metals, e.g. magnesium, sodium, potassium, aluminum, titanium, etc.,b) flammable gases,
c) liquids and solid materials that melt, e.g. plastics, fuels, oils, etc..
64. Group C fires concern:
a) gases, e.g. methane, propane, acetylene, hydrogen,
b) flammable liquids,c) solid bodies.
65. Seeing such a pictogram you are informed about:
a) a larger number of people in a given area,b) a danger zone,
c) a gathering place during evacuation.
66. During work, you noticed a sign marked 'Zone 0'. It informs about:
a) a zone of the current fire hazard category,b) a zone of the current fire load in the building,
c) a space where an explosive atmosphere exists.
67. The presented pictogram informs about:
a) a set of fire protection equipment,
b) an internal hydrant,c) the main power switch.
68. Seeing such a pictogram, you are informed about:
a) an emergency exit,
b) a first aid station,c) a gathering point during evacuation.
69. Seeing such a pictogram, you are informed about:
a) a high temperature affecting the extinguisher,b) a ban on using the extinguisher,
c) the location of the extinguisher.
70. You see a person whose clothing is on fire and who, in panic, is running away. Your reaction is:
a) you try to stop him, lay him down, and start extinguishing,
b) you tell him to wait in an upright position for the arrival of rescue services,c) you wave your arms or outer covering strongly next to him to extinguish the burning clothing.71. Electrical devices and installations can be extinguished using:
a) foam extinguishers,b) water,
c) powder or snow extinguishers.
72. Burning fuel can be extinguished using:
a) low-octane ethylene,b) water,
c) powder, foam or snow extinguishers.
73. Clothing burning on a person can be extinguished using:
a) water mist extinguisher or fire blanket,
b) snow or powder extinguisher,c) plastic material.74. What obligations does an employee have when they decide to refrain from work due to health and safety regulations?
a) They should organize work for others,b) They have no obligations in this situation,
c) They must immediately notify their supervisor.
75. How can an operator prevent hazards in the workplace?
a) By using personal protective equipment to minimize risk,
b) By ignoring health and safety rules,c) By not reporting faults in machines.76. It is not permissible to position the workplace directly under active overhead power lines or at a horizontal distance from the outermost wires of less than:
a) for lines: 1 [kV] - 1 [m], 15 [kV] - 3 [m], 30 [kV] - 5 [m], 110 [kV] - 10 [m],b) for all voltages - 1 [m] from the power line,
c) for lines: 1 [kV] - 3 [m], 15 [kV] - 5 [m], 30 [kV] - 10 [m], 110 [kV] - 15 [m], 400 [kV] - 30 [m].
77. How does the operator know what personal protective equipment is required for a given machine/technical device?
a) Information about the necessary personal protective equipment is included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine,
b) The operator must independently choose the appropriate protective measures,c) The choice of personal protective equipment depends on the opinion of colleagues at work.78. The operator should refuse to perform a task when:
a) the work requires familiarization with the location of underground and above-ground utilities,
b) the work is inconsistent with the purpose of the machine/technical device,
c) the work is being performed at night.79. The operator can prevent hazards during the operation of the machine/technical device by:
a) adhering to health and safety rules and following the operating instructions,
b) limiting the use of personal protective equipment,c) inattention and routine.80. Which of the following situations is unacceptable during the use of the machine/technical device?
a) The presence of unauthorized persons in the danger zone caused by the operation of the machine/technical device,
b) Operating the machine without supervision,c) Reporting faults directly to the supervisor.81. An accident at work is considered:
a) a sudden event, unrelated to the work being performed, caused by an external factor, resulting in injury or death,b) a prolonged event, related to the work being performed, caused by an internal factor, resulting in equipment damage,
c) a sudden event, related to the work being performed, caused by an external factor, resulting in injury or death.
82. A fatal accident at work is considered to be an accident in which death occurred:
a) only at the moment of the accident,
b) within a period not exceeding 6 months from the date of the accident,
c) after a period exceeding 6 months from the date of the accident.83. Health and safety regulations require:
a) securing the working machine during breaks in its operation against accidental start-up by unauthorized persons,
b) scrapping the old working machine within the time specified in its operating and maintenance manual, while adhering to the requirements for the disposal of hazardous materials,c) performing a warranty inspection of the working machine before the end of one year from its purchase.84. In the case of a person being electrocuted:
a) it is recommended to use any tools to disconnect the power, regardless of their actual purpose,b) one should immediately begin resuscitation, regardless of whether the power source has been disconnected,
c) one must not touch the victim until the power source has been disconnected.
85. In the case of a person being buried under earth or sand:
a) one should dig them out as quickly as possible regardless of their own safety - it is about their life,
b) one should dig them out as quickly as possible, provided it is safe for the person undertaking the rescue action,
c) we always calmly wait for rescue services - any attempt to help would be too dangerous.86. Seeing a person whose clothes are on fire, the first thing to do is:
a) use a fire extinguisher, preferably a snow extinguisher, to extinguish the burning clothing, and then try to quickly remove the fused clothing,b) leave the victim in a standing position to facilitate air access and extinguish the flames faster,
c) cut off the air supply by rolling the victim or wrapping them in a fire blanket, wet clothing, or a wet blanket.
87. If during earthworks unidentified objects are discovered, then:
a) further work is interrupted and the supervising person for the earthworks is notified,
b) a danger zone with a radius of 6 [m] should be designated, outside of which normal work can continue,c) earthworks can continue if a distance of at least 1 [m] is maintained from such an object.88. In the case of finding an unexploded ordnance during earthworks, one should:
a) ignore the unexploded ordnance if it does not pose an immediate threat,b) try to carefully remove the unexploded ordnance from the work area and continue working,
c) stop work, remove other workers from the danger area, notify superiors, and secure the site.
89. The wedge of soil collapse:
a) is the area around the working machine extending a distance of 6 [m] beyond its farthest reach,b) occurs only when the soil is in a frozen state,
c) occurs when the slope angle exceeds the natural slope angle of the soil.
90. The reach of the soil collapse wedge:
a) depends on the speed of the machine's operation and the efficiency of the operator,
b) depends on the depth of the excavation and the category of the soil,
c) depends solely on the temperature of the soil.91. The angle of natural slope is:
a) the maximum slope at which the soil can remain without sliding - it depends, among other things, on the soil category,
b) the angle at which it is safe to operate the machine - it depends on the parameters of the given machine,c) the angle at which the soil will definitely slide by itself - it depends solely on the temperature of that soil.92. The wedge of soil collapse:
a) is the space around the machine, dependent on the working speed of the machine and its weight,b) is the zone where the soil becomes unstable - its extent depends solely on the depth of the excavation, the type of soil does not matter here,
c) occurs when the slope exceeds the angle of natural slope of the soil - its extent depends on the type of soil and the depth of the excavation or the height of the slope.
93. The angle of natural slope is:
a) the angle at which the machine can safely move on the embankment, regardless of the soil category,
b) the maximum slope at which the soil can remain without sliding - it depends on the type of soil, e.g. moisture, cohesion, and grain size,
c) the slope at which any embankment becomes unstable, regardless of the type of soil.94. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is performed:
a) when the injured person is breathing but unconscious, with no contact,b) only in the case of fainting and minor injuries, to improve blood circulation,
c) when the injured person is not breathing and there is no detectable pulse. For a person who is not a professional rescuer, the absence of breathing is a sufficient basis to start resuscitation.
95. An employee has the right to refrain from performing work due to health and safety regulations, notifying their supervisor immediately if:
a) the work they are performing has not been reported to the construction supervision,b) the working conditions do not pose a threat, but are too difficult for them,
c) the working conditions pose an immediate threat to health or life.
96. Physical factors generating hazards in the workplace are:
a) spilled lubricants, oils, and fuels,
b) lack of appropriate medical examinations for the employee,c) lack of or improper training for employees.97. Working with a machine/technical device is not allowed when:
a) it is malfunctioning,
b) its repair was carried out after dark,c) the second operator did not report an upcoming inspection.98. Working near overhead power lines:
a) always requires de-energizing the line,b) always requires double grounding of the line,
c) is possible without meeting additional requirements provided that specific distances depending on the rated voltage of the line are maintained.
99. The operator is obliged to refuse to work if:
a) there is no site manager or any other person authorized to supervise at the work site,b) they would have to work under power lines, and the voltage in them has been turned off and the line grounded,
c) the working machine is malfunctioning.
100. The danger zone from a machine/technical device is:
a) a place where there are hazards to health or life of people,
b) a place where the machine/technical device cannot be used,c) always the entire fenced construction site.101. Accidents at work can result from the poor technical condition of the working machine, for example:
a) failure of the drive system,
b) injury to a limb, torso, or head,
c) damage to the equipment.102. Unacceptable behaviors are:
a) performing daily maintenance of the machine after dark,
b) operating a faulty machine and working under the influence of alcohol,
c) working after dark in a well-lit place, with full concentration of the operator.103. The general rules for safely getting on and off the machine are:
a) using cables and levers as aids when getting on is permissible when the machine is turned off,b) one can descend backwards to the machine, but only when the steps are slippery,
c) a person should face the machine, remember the "three-point support" principle, and use only specially made steps and handrails.
104. The basic duties of an employee in terms of occupational health and safety are:
a) adhering to health and safety regulations and rules, taking care of the condition of machines and tools, and maintaining order in the workplace, using personal protective equipment,
b) enforcing labor code regulations regarding their rights, including payment for overtime worked,c) not being late for work, finishing on time, confirming presence at work in the manner accepted by the employer.105. In the case of a person electrocuted, after disconnecting the power source, one should:
a) check the condition of the injured person, and if necessary: call for help, clear the airways, perform resuscitation, and use an AED if available,
b) move the injured person to another location as quickly as possible,c) leave the injured person alone if they have regained consciousness, without further actions.106. When a person buried under earth or sand is partially dug out, you should:
a) focus on digging out the lower parts of the victim's body,b) quickly dig out the left arm to check the pulse,
c) quickly clear the airways.
107. After extinguishing flames on a person with burns and calling for help, you should:
a) use a snow extinguisher to cool the burn area,b) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes, previously removing melted clothing,
c) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes, without removing melted clothing.
108. Seeing such a pictogram informs you about:
a) a place where an external automatic defibrillator is available,
b) a place where a first aid kit is available,c) a place for performing AED.109. Properly performed cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) consists of:
a) connecting an external automatic defibrillator (AED) and following its instructions; CPR is not performed without AED,b) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 30-60 times per minute to a depth of 1–3 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 15 compressions (breaths are mandatory),
c) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 100-120 times per minute to a depth of 5–6 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 30 compressions (breaths are not mandatory).
110. The abbreviation IBWR stands for:
a) Safe Work Execution Instruction,
b) Instruction for Trouble-Free Work Execution,c) Instruction for Trouble-Free Work Execution.111. Expand the abbreviation IBWR:
a) Information on Safe Execution of Works,
b) Instruction for Safe Execution of Works,
c) Implementation of Failure-Free Execution of Works.112. The Instruction for Safe Execution of Construction Works is:
a) a plan of the route in construction works,
b) a document containing information regarding safety on the construction site,
c) a document confirming qualifications for operating machines and technical devices in earthworks, construction, and road works.113. The BIOZ plan means:
a) Safety and Resource Specification Plan,
b) Health and Safety Plan,
c) Safe Health Protection Instruction Plan.114. In a situation of danger, when the cabin door cannot be opened:
a) the emergency exit provided by the manufacturer should be used,
b) the space after removing the floor panel can be used as an emergency exit,c) one must not leave the cabin until help arrives.115. If the seat belt is damaged, one should:
a) continue working and report the problem after finishing work,
b) report the damage and not start working until the belt is repaired or replaced,
c) exercise special caution while performing work.116. The operator must wear a safety helmet when working with the machine in situations where:
a) working on demolition tasks using long booms,b) frequently leaning out of the cabin during work,
c) working in a machine not equipped with a closed cabin.
117. You should enter and exit the machine:
a) facing the machine, maintaining three points of contact,
b) entering sideways while being careful of the devices in the cabin,c) backwards to the machine, using a three-step ladder.118. Prohibited activities during the operation and servicing of the machine or technical device include:
a) using machines with safety or signaling devices,b) using machines on rocky ground during heavy rain,
c) operating machines by individuals without the appropriate qualifications.
119. The grounds, according to the degree of difficulty in their detachment, are divided into:
a) 4 categories,
b) 16 categories,
c) 10 categories.120. The term: "machine efficiency for earthworks" refers to:
a) the level of engine load during the machine's operation in a unit of time,
b) the effect of the machine's work over a unit of time,
c) the amount of fuel consumed by the machine per hour of operation.121. The efficiency of a earthmoving machine can be expressed:
a) in units of speed or revolutions per unit time e.g. [km/h], [rpm], [rev/s],b) in pressure units [bar] or temperature [°C],
c) in units of volume or mass per unit time e.g. [m³/h], [t/h].
122. Incorrect setting of the cutting angle of the deposit can cause:
a) slipping of the tool on the deposit or excessive wear of cutting tools,
b) only slowing down the process, without affecting the tool,c) increasing the force of the machine's interaction with the deposit, without affecting tool wear.123. An element of the full working cycle of a bucket wheel excavator is:
a) stopping the machine after each discharge of the excavated material,
b) continuous cutting and transport of the excavated material,
c) transporting the excavated material from one place to another.124. The correct direction of movement of the bucket wheel when working with a vertical chip in a bucket wheel excavator is:
a) horizontally, without the need to move towards the deposit,
b) rotating upwards, while simultaneously moving towards the deposit,
c) rotating downwards, parallel to the deposit.125. The weight of the boom when working with a horizontal chip in a bucket wheel excavator causes:
a) downward movement, allowing effective excavation of the deposit,
b) deflection of the boom outward from the machine,c) rotation of the bucket wheel in the opposite direction to the deposit.126. The cutting angle of the deposit in the mining process is:
a) the angle of inclination of the terrain relative to the axis of the cutting tool,b) the angle at which the operator sets the machine arm relative to the deposit,
c) the angle affecting the efficiency of cutting.
127. After emptying the buckets, the excavated material goes to:
a) a temporary container of the mining team,b) a direct pipe transport system,
c) a set of chutes that directs the material to the conveyor belt.
128. The type of interchangeable working equipment used depends on whether:
a) the machine has undergone a periodic inspection,
b) the equipment is approved for use by the machine manufacturer,
c) the equipment has a CE certificate.129. Incorrect setting of the cutting angle of the deposit:
a) only causes a slowdown in the process, without affecting the tool,
b) can cause the tool to slip over the deposit or excessive wear of cutting tools,
c) only increases the pressure of the machine on the deposit, without affecting the wear of the tool.130. An element of the full working cycle of a bucket excavator is:
a) continuous cutting and transport of excavated material,
b) transporting excavated material from one place to another,c) stopping the machine after each dump of excavated material.131. During operation "with vertical chips" in a bucket wheel excavator, the bucket wheel moves in the direction of:
a) upwards, with simultaneous movement towards the deposit,
b) downwards, with simultaneous lateral movement,c) horizontally, without the need to move towards the deposit.132. During operation of a bucket wheel excavator using the "with horizontal chips" method, the weight of the boom:
a) causes the boom to tilt outward from the machine,
b) generates downward movement allowing effective excavation of the deposit,
c) forces the bucket wheel to rotate in the opposite direction to the deposit.133. The course of underground utility lines should be marked before starting work to:
a) avoid the risk of damaging the network during work,
b) allow for quick movement of machines in any direction,c) save time and reduce earthwork costs.134. The correct setting of the cutting angle:
a) increases cutting efficiency and reduces tool wear,
b) causes a decrease in engine power demand,c) reduces the need to use the rotational movement of the bucket wheel.135. The full working cycle of a bucket wheel excavator is characterized by:
a) constant movement of buckets and simultaneous transport of the excavated material,
b) interrupted work between cutting and transport,c) rotational execution of cutting and stopping before dumping.136. During operation "with a vertical chip" in a bucket-wheel excavator
a) the rotational movement of the bucket wheel is performed in the horizontal plane, and the advancing movement towards "from the deposit",
b) the rotational movement of the bucket wheel is directed upwards, and the advancing movement towards the deposit,
c) the weight of the machine generates the rotational movement of the buckets.137. The main purpose of using winches in bucket-wheel excavators is:
a) to regulate the rotational speed of the bucket wheel,
b) to position the machine at the work site,
c) to stabilize the buckets during the transport of the excavated material.138. To maintain the maximum efficiency of the bucket-wheel excavator, the operator should:
a) continuously monitor the condition of the cutting tools and the cutting angle,
b) limit the rotational speed of the buckets,c) work in a fixed position without changing the cutting angle.139. The work cycle of a bucket-wheel excavator is more efficient than that of a single-bucket excavator because:
a) it allows simultaneous cutting, transport, and dumping of the excavated material,
b) it shortens the transport time of the excavated material between work stages,c) it reduces the wear of cutting tools by decreasing the number of operations.140. The nominal efficiency of a bucket-wheel excavator is determined by:
a) the cutting speed regardless of the amount of excavated material,b) the maximum depth of excavation under specified conditions,
c) the amount of excavated material actually processed in a specified time.
141. During the operation of a bucket wheel excavator, it is important to properly mark the area because:
a) it minimizes the risk of damage to underground infrastructure,
b) it allows for the relocation of machines to other locations,c) it increases the efficiency of excavation.142. The bucket wheel can have a different number of buckets in order to:
a) adapt the machine to the type of excavated soil,
b) increase the mass of the bucket wheel for greater stability of the machine,c) facilitate the transport of excavated material over greater distances.143. The cutting angle of the deposit in the excavation process:
a) affects the efficiency of cutting,
b) is the angle at which the operator sets the machine arm relative to the deposit,c) is the angle of inclination of the terrain relative to the axis of the cutting tool.144. The method of operation "with vertical chip" in a bucket wheel excavator consists of:
a) positioning the machine on a vertical slope,b) directing the rotational movement of the bucket wheel downwards, and the feeding movement towards the deposit,
c) directing the rotational movement of the bucket wheel upwards, and the feeding movement towards the deposit.
145. The method of operation "with horizontal chip" in a bucket wheel excavator consists of:
a) positioning the bucket wheel during operation in a horizontal plane,
b) directing the rotational movement of the bucket wheel towards the deposit, and the feeding movement downwards,
c) directing the rotational movement of the bucket wheel towards the deposit, and the feeding movement upwards.146. The maximum height of the embankment that can be excavated without creating an overhang depends on:
a) the above-level height of excavation, specified in the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine,
b) the excavation speed of the machine and the angle of the embankment,c) the experience of the operator and the type of soil.147. Which of the listed elements are not part of the hydraulic system:
a) starter, alternator,
b) hydraulic lock, hydraulic oil tank,c) pump, distributor, actuator.148. The hydraulic lock in the machine is:
a) the closure of the hydraulic oil inlet at its tank,
b) a valve that protects against uncontrolled movement of the element located in a given line,
c) a valve responsible for controlling the entire hydraulic system.149. The change in hydraulic oil pressure into mechanical movement is caused by:
a) the hydraulic pump system,
b) the hydraulic actuator and hydraulic motor,
c) the hydraulic distributor.150. The pressure in the hydraulic system is generated by:
a) the hydraulic pump,
b) the hydraulic motor,c) the hydraulic actuator.151. The control of hydraulic oil flow to individual systems is carried out by:
a) hydraulic distributor,
b) relief valve,c) hydraulic lock.152. The safety valve protects the hydraulic system from:
a) overheating of hydraulic oil,
b) excessive pressure increase,
c) air in the hydraulic system.153. The relief valve in the hydraulic system is responsible for:
a) venting the system,b) maintaining a constant position of the working tool,
c) limiting the maximum working pressure in a given circuit.
154. If the pressure in the hydraulic system increases excessively, the excess oil will be directed to:
a) hydraulic oil filter,
b) hydraulic oil tank,
c) distributor.155. The basic parameters that characterize an electric accumulator are:
a) rated voltage [V], resistance [Ω], power [W],b) rated voltage [V], power [W], mass [kg],
c) rated voltage [V], capacity [Ah], starting current [A].
156. Lead-acid batteries can be charged:
a) in any room,b) only in an air-conditioned room,
c) in a place specifically designated for this purpose.
157. The hydraulic distributor:
a) increases the torque in the side transmission,b) converts mechanical energy into hydraulic energy,
c) directs the flow of hydraulic oil to the appropriate sections.
158. The hydraulic distributor is a device that:
a) allows control of individual hydraulic sections of the machine,
b) distributes oil between the engine and the hydraulic system,c) distributes oil between the small and large circuits.159. Bucket excavators with a chain or wheel digging assembly are classified based on:
a) the type of digging assembly,
b) the type of chassis,c) the type of drive.160. Combined drive (e.g., diesel-hydraulic) in bucket excavators is used:
a) to increase the operational range of the excavator while limiting the weight of the machine,b) for work in areas with limited access to fuel and energy,
c) to enable simultaneous operation of the travel system and the digging assembly in difficult conditions.
161. The team of the bucket wheel excavator responsible for loading the material onto transport means is:
a) working team,
b) loading team,
c) rotating team.162. Discharging material from buckets in bucket wheel excavators is carried out:
a) on the principle of gravitational emptying of buckets,
b) using vacuum generated in the hydraulic system,c) through mechanical ejection of material.163. A bucket wheel excavator is classified as non-rotating:
a) when its working team remains in a fixed position relative to the chassis,
b) when the buckets do not rotate,c) when the working range includes only above-ground work.164. The connection of the combustion engine with the hydraulic one in bucket wheel excavators provides:
a) limitation of the frequency of use of the hydraulic engine,b) reduction of the total weight of the excavator,
c) greater versatility and the ability to work in difficult terrain conditions.
165. The justification for using a gravitational system in discharging material from buckets is the fact that:
a) it allows for simultaneous sorting of the material,
b) it ensures simplicity of operation and low failure rate,
c) it enables quick removal of material over long distances.166. Optimal shock and vibration damping of the operator's seat is ensured by:
a) as flexible a seat adjustment as possible,b) setting the seat rigidly,
c) adjusting the seat to the weight of the operator.
167. The most important element of the operator's cabin equipment from the perspective of his safety is:
a) seat belt,
b) emergency STOP button,c) mirror or camera.168. A green flashing light located on the machine's cabin signals, among other things:
a) the machine's ecological operating mode is on,
b) the seat belts are properly fastened,
c) the operator is absent from the cabin.169. One of the elements of the electrical system protecting the engine from seizing is:
a) speed regulator,
b) engine oil pressure sensor,
c) main fuse.170. Gel batteries that are part of the electrical system do not require:
a) replacement in case of housing damage,b) charging with a rectifier,
c) electrolyte replenishment.
171. Electrical systems of machines and technical devices should be equipped with a device that causes emergency stop in at least the following quantity:
a) one device causing emergency stop, in accordance with the European machinery directive,
b) three devices causing emergency stop, in accordance with the European machinery directive,c) two devices causing emergency stop placed on both sides of the machine, in accordance with the European machinery directive.172. The emergency stop device of the machine is a component of:
a) fuel system,
b) electrical system,
c) drive system.173. The main parameters of the internal combustion engine affecting work efficiency are:
a) compression ratio, displacement,
b) torque, rotational speed,
c) type of carburetor, type of ignition system.174. The crank-piston system of the internal combustion engine is designed to:
a) convert the reciprocating motion of the piston into the rotational motion of the crankshaft,
b) convert mechanical energy into hydraulic energy,c) ensure the effective operation of the clutch.175. The lubrication system in the internal combustion engine:
a) is responsible for the proper lubrication of the moving elements of the engine that work together,
b) is responsible for removing hazardous substances generated in the combustion process of the mixture,c) provides regulation of the rotational speed and reduces engine vibrations during operation.176. The engine timing system is used for:
a) ensuring the optimal composition of the fuel-oil-air mixture for combustion,
b) controlling the filling of the combustion chamber with air or the fuel-air mixture and controlling the emptying of this chamber of exhaust gases,
c) damping noise and minimizing engine vibrations during operation.177. Systems present in internal combustion engines include, among others:
a) hydraulic system, intake system,b) exhaust system, pneumatic system, closed system,
c) crankshaft-piston system, fuel supply system, cooling system.
178. The low-pressure part of the fuel supply system of a diesel engine is:
a) fuel tank and injectors,b) fuel lines, high-pressure pump, common rail,
c) fuel tank, supply pump, filters, fuel lines.
179. The element controlling the flow of coolant in the so-called "large circuit" is:
a) thermocouple,b) thermos,
c) thermostat.
180. An intercooler is:
a) an air cooler for turbocharged engines,
b) another name for the engine coolant radiator,c) a device for burning solid particles in exhaust gases.181. DPF filter:
a) it is an accurate cabin filter protecting the operator during work in high dust conditions,
b) it is a dry particulate filter responsible for capturing soot from exhaust gases,
c) it serves to reduce NOx (nitrogen oxides) emissions.182. Frequency and scope of periodic maintenance of the machine/technical device you are taking the exam for:
a) is determined by the owner of the machine/technical device,
b) is included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine,
c) is included in the IBWR documentation.183. The operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device is:
a) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device, which includes among others IBWR,b) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by health and safety services on the construction site,
c) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device.
184. The operator of the machine/technical device you are taking the exam for is not allowed to:
a) check the technical condition of the machine/technical device during operation,b) make any repairs or maintenance,
c) use the machine/technical device contrary to its intended purpose.
185. A symptom of too low a level of hydraulic oil may be:
a) loud operation of the starter,b) uneven operation of the diesel engine,
c) "jerky" intermittent movement of hydraulic actuators.
186. Operating and maintenance instructions for the machine/technical device:
a) is established by the owner or user of the machine,
b) includes, among other things, information about hazards during the operation of the machine/technical device,
c) is used to record information about faults.187. The CE Declaration of Conformity is a document:
a) issued by institutions that test machines for resistance to weather conditions,b) confirming that the product was manufactured in the countries of the European Union,
c) in which the manufacturer confirms that their product meets all applicable EU requirements regarding safety, health protection, and environmental protection.
188. Information regarding the use of personal protective equipment and ways to limit occupational risk can be found by the operator:
a) in the service book,
b) in the operating and maintenance instructions for the machine/technical device,
c) in the CE Declaration of Conformity.189. The operating and maintenance instructions for the machine/technical device:
a) are created by institutions that conduct testing and accreditation of machine/technical device prototypes before allowing them for serial production,
b) are developed by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device or the entity that places the machine/technical device on the market,
c) are created by the construction manager based on information from the manufacturer.190. The operating and maintenance instructions for the machine/technical device:
a) do not matter where they are located, the most important thing is that the owner of the machine has them in case of resale of the machine,b) should be kept in the office along with the company's documentation and be available in case of inspection,
c) should be located in the machine or with the technical device, treated as part of the machine/technical device and be available at any time.
191. Identification data of the machine/technical device:
a) due to their importance, they are always printed in red,b) should be noted on the inner side of the protective helmet assigned to the given machine/technical device,
c) are located on the nameplate of the machine/technical device, additionally may be in the marking places described in the manual.
192. To minimize the risk of machine/technical device failure, the operator should:
a) use the machine/technical device until the failure becomes serious,b) perform maintenance activities only when the machine/technical device stops working,
c) regularly visually assess the condition of the machine/technical device and report any noticed irregularities.
193. Key activities for the safe technical operation of the machine are:
a) using latex gloves, without the need for other personal protective equipment,
b) securing accessories, covers, and doors against accidental closure and using personal protective equipment,
c) performing technical service without securing working accessories to save time.194. When breaking in the machine, the operator should pay attention to:
a) limit the machine's load to the maximum level specified in the operation and maintenance manual,
b) work at maximum load,c) always turn off the lubrication systems before working.195. The operator uses the operation and maintenance manual of the machine or technical device to:
a) learn the technical specifications, health and safety rules, and methods of repairing faults,
b) record the hours worked and fuel consumption by the machine,c) record all faults of the machine or technical device noticed during operation.196. Information about the maximum height of excavation that does not create overhangs for the machine can be found:
a) in the operator's manuals regardless of the machine model,
b) in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine,
c) in the site documentation.197. The SAE designation on oil refers to:
a) the pressure of the engine oil,b) the multi-season qualification of the oil,
c) the viscosity of the engine oil, that is, its ability to flow and lubricate.
198. Oil with the symbol SAE 15W-40 means that:
a) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 15W, and at positive temperatures of summer oil class SAE 40,
b) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40,c) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 15W.199. Oil with the symbol SAE 10W-30 means that:
a) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W, and at positive temperatures of summer oil class SAE 30,
b) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W,c) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 30.200. The symbol SAE 10W-30 means:
a) hydraulic oil with specified parameters,
b) multi-season engine oil with specified parameters,
c) a mixture of engine oil and hydraulic oil.201. Engine oil with the symbol SAE 5W-40 means that:
a) at negative temperature it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 5W, and at positive temperature of summer oil class SAE 40,
b) at positive temperature it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 5W,c) at negative temperature it has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40.
202. The symbol of the warning light shown in the graphic means:
a) low coolant level,b) low engine oil pressure,
c) low engine oil level.
203. The symbol of the warning light shown in the graphic means:
a) low coolant level,b) low fuel level,
c) low engine oil pressure.
204. The symbol shown means:
a) engine oil filter,b) hydraulic oil,
c) engine oil.
205. The symbol shown means:
a) engine oil level,
b) hydraulic oil level,c) engine coolant level.206. Oils marked 70W, 85W, 80W-90 are:
a) brake oils,
b) gear oils,
c) engine oils.207. Before starting work, the employee is required to check, among other things:
a) the oil stock in the warehouse,
b) the correctness of the assembly and operation of collective protection measures,
c) the expected weather for the current day.208. In the event of the need to dismantle the cover/protection for maintenance, it is not allowed to:
a) reassemble the cover/protection,
b) start working with the device without the cover/protection installed,
c) record such a fact in the documentation.209. The lighting of the battery charging control lamp signals to the construction machine operator a failure of:
a) the starter,b) the battery switch,
c) the V-belt and/or alternator.
210. The operator's seat cannot be adjusted when:
a) the machine is in motion,
b) the engine is not started,c) the seat is turned backwards.211. If during daily technical service before work the operator notices that one of the windows in the cabin is cracked, then:
a) may start work if it is not the front window,
b) should not start work,
c) may start work provided that the window is only cracked and has not "fallen out".212. Before starting work, the operator should:
a) open the windows for better communication,b) install sun shields on the windows,
c) clean the windows by removing snow, ice, and other contaminants.
213. When changing hydraulic oils, one should:
a) use any type of oil,
b) use only types of oils that are recommended by the machine manufacturer,
c) always use only biodegradable oils.214. To ensure the technical efficiency of the working machine, one should:
a) follow technical service and maintenance according to the operating and maintenance instructions,
b) operate the machine/technical device only under full load,c) operate the machine/technical device not exceeding 50% of the permissible load.215. At the construction site, empty containers of lubricants, oil filters, and used oils should be:
a) thrown into the mixed waste container,b) thrown into any waste container,
c) placed in a properly marked hazardous waste container.
216. Stickers (pictograms) located on the machine/technical device serve to:
a) inform about the prohibition of approaching the machine/technical device,b) indicate places where one can stay without any risk,
c) convey important information about safety and the use of the machine/technical device.
217. Lubrication points in the machine should be serviced:
a) during all breaks in work,
b) according to the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine,
c) always after 10 hours of operation.218. Engine oil with parameters 5W-50 is:
a) only summer oil,
b) multi-season oil,
c) only winter oil.219. Before starting work on a new type of machine/technical device, the operator should:
a) perform a test run,b) conduct a periodic inspection,
c) familiarize themselves with the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine/technical device.
220. OTC service is:
a) 24-hour technical service,b) temporary technical service,
c) daily technical service.
221. Basic types of service are:
a) visual service, active, passive,
b) daily service, periodic, warehouse, transport,
c) round-the-clock service, multi-seasonal, annual, technological.222. Batteries, when starting the machine using a supporting battery, should be connected:
a) in parallel,
b) in series,c) crosswise.223. In the case of electrolyte loss caused by spillage through a cracked battery casing, one should:
a) add electrolyte to the proper level and charge the battery,
b) secure the leak area in terms of environmental protection, and then replace the battery,
c) add demineralized water to a level of 10 mm above the top edges of the plates.224. The activities performed by the operator as part of daily service during operation are:
a) cleaning the machine,b) replenishing operating fluids and daily lubrication,
c) auditory control of the machine's operation and observation of indicators.
225. If the manufacturer has provided for operational running-in, it should be carried out:
a) with the load recommended in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device,
b) without load,c) with the maximum load.226. The rods of hydraulic cylinders, during the technical service of the storage machine, should be:
a) disassembled and the seals replaced,
b) protected against corrosion,
c) dismantled and cleaned.227. During longer storage of the machine, the fuel tank should be:
a) empty, to avoid fire hazards,
b) filled to the top, to prevent condensation of water vapor inside the tank,
c) filled to 1/3 of its capacity and left open.228. During daily operation of the machine, the condition of should be checked:
a) the working pressure values in the hydraulic system,b) tools and equipment,
c) connections and tightness of the hydraulic system.
229. Information regarding faults, their codes, and methods of removal can be found in the document titled:
a) operating and maintenance manual,
b) daily report,c) construction machine book.230. The purpose of lubrication in working machines is:
a) to reduce friction,
b) to raise the temperature of cooperating elements,c) to increase the engine's rotational speed.231. The most commonly used type of fuses in electrical installations of working machines is:
a) differential fuses,
b) cartridge fuses,
c) automatic fuses.232. The phenomenon of electrostatic discharge during refueling a machine can lead to:
a) poisoning,b) short circuit of the electrical installation,
c) fire.
233. If the operator notices a hydraulic fluid leak during daily technical service, he should:
a) reduce the speed and continue working,b) top up the oil and continue working,
c) report the leak and not use the machine until it is repaired.
234. The frequency of performing periodic technical service depends on:
a) the number of hours worked (engine hours),
b) the production date of the machine,c) the number of completed working cycles.235. Activities performed as part of daily technical service (OTC) carried out during the operation of the machine include:
a) observation only of control and measurement indicators such as: oil pressure, engine temperature, hydraulic oil temperature,b) primarily sensory inspection of the proper functioning of the machine's working system,
c) observation of control and measurement instruments and checking the proper operation of the machine using sight, hearing, and smell.
236. We distinguish, among others, the following types of technical services:
a) reaching, daily, periodic, seasonal, storage, emergency, night,b) transport, reaching, storage, service-repair (SR), catalog,
c) transport, reaching, daily, periodic, seasonal, storage.
237. We perform technical services in order to:
a) extend the lifespan and ensure the safe operation of the machine or technical device,
b) ensure quiet operation of the machine or technical device,c) maintain the value of the machine or technical device at a constant, unchanged level.238. The information about the maximum height of excavation, which does not create overhangs, the operator will find in:
a) in the operator's manuals, regardless of the machine model,b) in the site documentation,