Multi-bucket chain trench excavators class III
Study mode
Question of 294
1. What is the minimum safe distance of the machine measured from the reach of the upper edge of the wedge of the collapse?
a) 0.8 [m],b) 0.4 [m],
c) 0.6 [m].
2. The safe distance of the machine from the excavation is:
a) depth of the excavation + 0.6 [m],b) 1.6 [m],
c) range of the wedge of the collapse + 0.6 [m].
3. Based on the presented table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] made in cohesive soils:
a) 1.6 [m],
b) 1 [m],c) 2.6 [m].4. Based on the presented table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] made in fractured rocks:
a) 2.6 [m],
b) 3.6 [m],
c) 4.6 [m].5. Based on the presented table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] made in slightly cohesive soils:
a) 3.1 [m],
b) 3.6 [m],c) 2.6 [m]. Chain multi-bucket excavators for trenches Class III6. What is the safe distance from the UPPER edge of the embankment that a machine can approach, given the following data: Soil category - I (dry sand), height of the embankment - h = 2 [m], horizontal distance between the upper and lower edges of the embankment - a = 2.5 [m]?
a) 3.6 [m],b) 0.6 [m],
c) 1.1 [m].
7. What is the safe distance from the UPPER edge of the embankment that a machine can approach, given the following data: Soil category - II (slightly cohesive soils), height of the embankment - h = 4 [m], horizontal distance between the upper and lower edges of the embankment - a = 2.5 [m]?
a) 3.1 [m],
b) 5.6 [m],c) 0.6 [m].8. What is the horizontal distance from the outermost wires for power lines with a rated voltage not exceeding 1 [kV] that allows the operation of a machine or technical device?
a) not less than 5 [m],
b) not less than 3 [m],
c) not less than 2 [m].9. What is the horizontal distance from the outermost wires for power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV] that allows the operation of a machine or technical device?
a) not less than 10 [m],
b) not less than 5 [m],
c) not less than 15 [m].10. What is the horizontal distance from the outermost wires for power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV] that allows the operation of a machine or technical device?
a) not less than 10 [m],
b) not less than 15 [m],c) not less than 5 [m].11. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 10 [m],b) not less than 20 [m],
c) not less than 15 [m].
12. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 10 [m],
b) not less than 30 [m],
c) not less than 15 [m].13. Is it possible to organize workstations in the danger zone under overhead power lines?
a) no, never,b) yes, always,
c) yes, but only after meeting additional requirements.
14. What is the safe distance X for the operation of a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [V]?
a) not less than 5 [m],b) not less than 30 [m],
c) not less than 3 [m].
15. What is the safe distance X for the operation of a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV]?
a) not less than 15 [m],
b) not less than 5 [m],
c) not less than 10 [m].16. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?
a) not less than 30 [m],b) not less than 15 [m],
c) not less than 10 [m].
17. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?
a) not less than 5 [m],b) not less than 15 [m],
c) not less than 10 [m].
18. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV]?
a) not less than 15 [m],
b) not less than 50 [m],c) not less than 30 [m].19. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV]?
a) not less than 10 [m],
b) not less than 30 [m],c) not less than 15 [m].20. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]?
a) not less than 30 [m],
b) not less than 40 [m],c) not less than 3 [m].21. Work in the danger zone (overhead high voltage power line):
a) may be carried out provided that the consent of the site manager has been obtained,
b) may be carried out provided that the line has been disconnected from the voltage, the work is performed in a zone limited by groundings and at least one grounding is visible from the work site,
c) under no circumstances may be carried out under electrical lines in the danger zone.22. The operator must perform work at a distance X from the active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [V]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 2 [m],
b) 5 [m],
c) 1 [m].23. The operator must perform work at a distance X from the active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 3 [m],
b) 15 [m],
c) 5 [m].24. The operator must perform work at a distance X from the active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 15 [m],
b) 50 [m],
c) 5 [m].25. If the injured person has a detectable pulse but is not breathing, then:
a) the airways should be cleared and artificial respiration started,
b) he must not be touched,c) cardiac massage should be performed.26. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, one should primarily:
a) provide assistance to those with life-threatening conditions,
b) distance oneself from the accident scene to call a doctor,c) give injured persons medication.27. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, one should primarily:
a) provide assistance to those with life-threatening conditions,
b) take care of one's own safety,
c) distance oneself from the accident scene to call a doctor.28. The obligation to provide first aid to accident victims rests with:
a) only those with medical training,
b) everyone, as one can always perform part of the rescue tasks,
c) everyone, but there is always a risk of criminal liability for mistakes made.29. During one cycle of resuscitation on an adult, one should perform:
a) 30 chest compressions and 5 breaths (30:5),
b) 30 chest compressions and 2 breaths (30:2),
c) 20 chest compressions and 2 breaths (20:2).30. The accident victim regained consciousness after a few minutes and wants to go home. In such a situation, one should:
a) allow them to go home, recommending a visit to a doctor,
b) persuade them to stay and call for medical help,
c) give them something to drink and pain relief medication.31. First aid in a situation where a foreign body has entered the eye of the injured person consists of:
a) rinsing with distilled water directing the stream to the inside of the eye,b) rinsing the eye with eye drops,
c) rinsing with clean water directing the stream from the nose to the outside of the eye.
32. The injured person has cut their leg on an unsecured sharp element. Providing first aid in this situation is:
a) using a tourniquet,
b) applying sterile gauze, wrapping the wound with a bandage,
c) sticking a plaster directly on the wound.33. Suspecting spinal injury in a person who has fallen from a height and is conscious, one should:
a) seat them in a semi-reclining position,
b) not move them and wait for medical services to arrive,
c) lay them in a stable lateral position.34. To move away from the place where the electric wire has been broken and the area is under voltage, one should:
a) slowly step away from this place, taking small steps, trying to maintain continuous contact of the feet with the ground,
b) quickly step away from the source of electric shock, lifting the feet high,c) run as fast as possible to a place that we assess as safe.35. First aid in the case of a first-degree burn is:
a) pouring cold water on the burned area,
b) applying ointment to the burned area,c) applying greasy cream to the burned area.36. During work, a high voltage power line was torn down, as a result of which a colleague was electrocuted. In this situation, the correct behavior is:
a) to turn off the power source as quickly as possible,
b) to approach the injured person to provide first aid,c) to call other colleagues for help with the injured person.37. We perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation until:
a) the fire brigade arrives and secures the area,
b) we have determined that the victim has started to breathe and circulation has returned,
c) 10 minutes have passed.38. Immediate action in the case of severe bleeding from an injured upper limb includes:
a) applying a dressing, directly compressing the bleeding site, and elevating the limb,
b) disinfecting the wound with salicylic alcohol,c) lowering the limb below heart level.39. In the case of a nosebleed, one should:
a) lean the bleeding person's head forward, pinch the nostrils,
b) lay the injured person on their back,c) tilt the head back and place a cold compress on the neck.40. The first step in dealing with a carbon monoxide poisoning victim in a closed room is:
a) to evacuate the injured person from that room as quickly as possible,
b) to assess ABC,c) to conduct a preliminary examination.41. First aid during seizures caused by an epileptic attack consists of:
a) placing a wooden object in the injured person's mouth to prevent biting the tongue,
b) securing the injured person's head from injuries,
c) seating the injured person in a semi-sitting position and giving them something to drink.42. In case of suspected spinal injury in the cervical region in a conscious person, one should:
a) seat the injured person on a chair with a high backrest,
b) not allow the injured person to move their head,
c) place the injured person in a lateral position.43. The most important thing when a person is buried under earth, sand, or gravel is:
a) notifying the family,b) waiting for the arrival of the ambulance,
c) locating the injured person.
44. The main purpose of a first aid kit is:
a) the ability to dress wounds,
b) providing first aid in a health or life-threatening situation,
c) dressing the injured person.45. First aid for a person with a metal rod embedded in their lower leg consists of calling for help and:
a) removing the embedded rod,
b) securing the rod to prevent movement,
c) moving the rod to check if the artery has been damaged.46. The indication for using an AED defibrillator is:
a) no detectable breathing and pulse in the victim,
b) severe dizziness,c) severe chest pain.47. During the operation of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam, the prohibited activities are:
a) making structural changes to the machine/technical device,
b) performing daily technical service (DTS),c) changing the working tool.48. During the operation of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam, the prohibited activities are:
a) refueling the machine/technical device from a canister,
b) cleaning the machine/technical device using gasoline or solvents whose vapors can create flammable/explosive gas mixtures with air,
c) cleaning the machine/technical device using a product in accordance with the operating and maintenance instructions.49. When performing earthworks with the machine for which you are taking the exam, it is unacceptable to:
a) have people nearby the machine during technical service operations,
b) have people within the reach of the machine's working tool,
c) have people at a distance greater than the sum of the maximum reach of the working tool plus 6 meters.50. During work, it is unacceptable to:
a) work under active overhead power lines at a distance less than specified by regulations,
b) work near an active power line with a rated voltage of 20 [kV] at a distance of 15 [m],c) work near an active power line with a rated voltage of 10 [kV] at a distance of 10 [m].51. During the execution of narrow-space excavations with the machine you are taking the exam for, it is unacceptable to:
a) have cooperating persons in the unsecured part of the excavation, even if they have personal protective equipment,
b) use hand tools for excavations by cooperating persons,c) have cooperating persons in the secured part of the excavation.52. During earthworks in marshy or wet areas:
a) the machine is placed as on other grounds, just not considering the distance from the failure wedge,b) the machine is placed in the same way as on other grounds,
c) the machine is placed on stable and permanently connected pads.
53. The machine/technical device you are taking the exam for can only be operated by:
a) a person with written confirmation of course completion in the form of a plastic card,b) any adult person with technical education and a driving license of the appropriate category,
c) a person who has completed training and obtained a positive result in the test conducted by the commission appointed by the Łukasiewicz Research Network – Warsaw Institute of Technology.
54. The rights to operate machines/technical devices you are taking the exam for are issued by:
a) The County Office appropriate for the residence address of the person applying for the rights,
b) The Łukasiewicz Research Network - Warsaw Institute of Technology (ŁRN - WIT),
c) The Office of Technical Inspection (UDT).55. The rights to operate machines/technical devices you are taking the exam for:
a) are valid for 10 years from the date of issue,b) are valid for 5 years from the date of issue,
c) are valid indefinitely.
56. A person with qualifications to operate: "Chain multi-bucket excavators for trenches class III" can, based on this, operate:
a) all multi-bucket excavators with a capacity of up to 500 [m³/h],
b) only chain multi-bucket excavators for trenches,
c) all chain multi-bucket excavators for trenches and single-bucket excavators up to 4 [t] operating mass.57. An employee operating a machine/technical device, for which you are taking the exam, can start work provided that:
a) the machine/technical device has a valid UDT inspection,
b) they have qualifications to operate this type of machine/technical device,
c) they have a valid category D driving license.58. In the event of a threat to life, health, property, or the environment caused by a malfunction of the machine/technical device, the operator:
a) immediately stops work and informs their supervisor of this fact,
b) continues working, but at the end of the shift makes an appropriate entry in the maintenance book,c) continues working, but at the end of the shift informs the supervisor of the situation that has occurred.59. Lifting and transporting people using working equipment:
a) is possible, but only outside the public road area,b) requires the consent of the construction manager,
c) is always prohibited.
60. An employee operating a machine/technical device, for which you are taking the exam, has the right to refuse to start work when:
a) there is an overhead power line with a rated voltage of 110 [kV] located 35 meters away,b) they have the required personal protective equipment,
c) this work requires special psychophysical fitness, and their psychophysical condition does not ensure its safe performance and poses a threat to others.
61. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is obliged to stop work when:
a) there is an overhead power line at a distance of 35 meters,
b) the work he is performing poses a direct threat to the health or life of others,
c) he has the required personal protective equipment.62. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is obliged to:
a) comply with the instructions for operation and use of the machine/technical device,
b) always have a category B driving license,c) independently perform all current repairs of the machine/technical device.63. The person directly responsible for the safe operation of the machine for which you are taking the exam is:
a) the machine operator,
b) the owner of the machine,c) the construction manager.64. The operator's book and qualifications for the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam are issued by:
a) Łukasiewicz Research Network - Warsaw Institute of Technology,
b) Transport Technical Supervision (TDT),c) Technical Supervision Office (UDT).65. The obligation to use personal protective equipment:
a) does not apply on hot days,
b) results from the operation and use instructions and health and safety regulations,
c) results only from internal company regulations.66. An employee who witnesses an accident at work:
a) is obliged to provide assistance to the victims and then immediately leave the scene of the accident,
b) is obliged to provide assistance to the victims, notify the supervisor, and if necessary secure the accident site,
c) it is enough to notify the supervisor.67. What elements of the machine you are taking the exam on protect the operator in case of the machine tipping over:
a) ROPS type machine cabin and safety belts,
b) machine seat,c) certified safety helmet and reflective vest.68. In the event of loss of stability by a machine equipped with a ROPS type cabin, the operator should:
a) quickly turn left and raise the working equipment as high as possible,b) try to leave the cabin as quickly as possible (before the machine tips over),
c) maintain a seated position while holding on tightly to the steering wheel or other stable elements in the cabin.
69. In the event of loss of stability by a machine equipped with a ROPS type cabin, the operator should:
a) immediately jump out of the cabin,b) turn on the warning/hazard lights,
c) remain in the cabin.
70. The danger zone is defined as:
a) a place where there are threats to the health and life of people,
b) a place where employees must only wear safety helmets,c) a place where work requiring specialized equipment takes place, and the presence of people is only allowed at night.71. The area that the operator should check and secure before starting work with the machine/technical device (because there are hazards to health and life) is called:
a) the area of increased risk,b) the dead zone,
c) the danger zone.
72. During the charging of batteries, a gas with highly explosive properties is released. This gas is:
a) methane,
b) hydrogen,
c) ethane.73. Firefighting foam can be used to extinguish fires of group:
a) C and D,b) only C,
c) A and B.
74. Improper use of a snow extinguisher can result in:
a) frostbite caused by the extinguishing agent,
b) burns from the extinguisher components,c) fainting.75. Water, fire blanket, powder extinguisher, carbon dioxide, sand are extinguishing agents that we will use to extinguish:
a) solid bodies,
b) oils,c) liquids.76. Sorbents can be called:
a) petroleum substances,b) fire blankets,
c) materials made of natural or synthetic substances that absorb liquids.
77. Group A fires concern:
a) flammable liquids,
b) solid bodies whose normal combustion occurs with the formation of glowing coals, e.g. wood, paper, etc.,
c) flammable gases.78. Group B fires concern:
a) flammable gases,
b) liquids and solid materials that melt, e.g. plastics, fuels, oils, etc.,
c) metals, e.g. magnesium, sodium, potassium, aluminum, titanium, etc..79. Group C fires concern:
a) gases, e.g. methane, propane, acetylene, hydrogen,
b) flammable liquids,c) solid bodies.
80. Seeing such a pictogram you are informed about:
a) a larger number of people in a given area,
b) a gathering place during evacuation,
c) a danger zone.
81. During work, you noticed a sign marked 'Zone 0'. It informs about:
a) a zone of a specific fire hazard category,b) a zone of existing fire load in the building,
c) a space where an explosive atmosphere exists.
82. The presented pictogram informs about:
a) the main power switch,
b) a set of fire protection equipment,
c) an internal hydrant.
83. Seeing such a pictogram, you are informed about:
a) an emergency exit,
b) a first aid station,c) a gathering point during evacuation.
84. Seeing such a pictogram, you are informed about:
a) high temperature affecting the extinguisher,
b) the location of the extinguisher,
c) the prohibition of using the extinguisher.85. You see a person whose clothing is on fire and who, in panic, is running away. Your reaction is:
a) you tell him to wait in an upright position for the arrival of rescue services,b) you wave your arms or outer garment strongly next to him to extinguish the burning clothing,
c) you try to stop him, lay him on the ground, and start extinguishing.
86. Electrical devices and installations can be extinguished using:
a) foam extinguishers,
b) powder or snow extinguishers,
c) water.87. Burning fuel can be extinguished using:
a) low-octane ethylene,b) water,
c) powder, foam or snow extinguishers.
88. Clothing on a person that is burning can be extinguished using:
a) water mist extinguisher or fire blanket,
b) plastic material,c) snow or powder extinguisher.89. What obligations does an employee have when they decide to refrain from work due to health and safety regulations?
a) They must immediately notify their supervisor,
b) They should organize work for others,c) They have no obligations in this situation.90. How can an operator prevent hazards in the workplace?
a) By not reporting faults in machines,
b) By using personal protective equipment to minimize risk,
c) By ignoring health and safety rules.91. It is not permissible to position the workplace directly under active overhead power lines or at a horizontal distance from the outermost wires of less than:
a) for lines: 1 [kV] - 3 [m], 15 [kV] - 5 [m], 30 [kV] - 10 [m], 110 [kV] - 15 [m], 400 [kV] - 30 [m],
b) for all voltages - 1 [m] from the power line,c) for lines: 1 [kV] - 1 [m], 15 [kV] - 3 [m], 30 [kV] - 5 [m], 110 [kV] - 10 [m].92. How does the operator know what personal protective equipment is required for a given machine/technical device?
a) The choice of personal protective equipment depends on the opinion of colleagues at work,b) The operator must independently choose the appropriate protective measures,
c) Information about the necessary personal protective equipment is included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine.
93. The operator should refuse to perform a task when:
a) the work requires familiarization with the location of underground and above-ground utilities,
b) the work is inconsistent with the intended use of the machine/technical device,
c) the work is being performed at night.94. The operator can prevent hazards during the operation of the machine/technical device by:
a) inattention and routine,
b) adhering to health and safety rules and following the operating instructions,
c) limiting the use of personal protective equipment.95. Which of the situations listed is unacceptable during the use of the machine/technical device?
a) The presence of unauthorized persons in the danger zone caused by the operation of the machine/technical device,
b) Reporting faults directly to the supervisor,c) Operating the machine without supervision.96. An accident at work is considered:
a) a sudden event related to the work performed, caused by an external factor, resulting in injury or death,
b) a sudden event unrelated to the work performed, caused by an external factor, resulting in injury or death,c) a long-term event related to the work performed, caused by an internal factor, resulting in equipment damage.97. A fatal accident at work is considered to be an accident in which death occurred:
a) within a period not exceeding 6 months from the date of the accident,
b) only at the moment of the accident,c) after a period exceeding 6 months from the date of the accident.98. It is prohibited to:
a) report noticed defects to the supervisor before starting work,
b) allow unauthorized persons within the reach of the machine's operation and work on slopes exceeding the permissible incline,
c) operate the machine after completing training and obtaining the appropriate qualifications.99. When getting on and off the machine, it is prohibited to:
a) use the control lever as support,
b) intensively use the handrails and steps,c) face the machine while getting on and off.100. Health and safety regulations require:
a) scrapping the old working machine within the time specified in its operating and maintenance manual, while adhering to the requirements for the disposal of hazardous materials,b) performing a warranty inspection of the working machine before the expiration of one year from its purchase,
c) securing the working machine during breaks in its operation against accidental activation by unauthorized persons.
101. In the case of a person being electrocuted:
a) it is recommended to use any tools to disconnect the power, regardless of their actual purpose,
b) do not touch the victim until the power source is disconnected,
c) immediate resuscitation should be started, regardless of whether the power source has been disconnected.102. In the case of a person being buried under earth or sand:
a) they should be dug out as quickly as possible regardless of one's own safety - it's about their life,
b) they should be dug out as quickly as possible, provided it is safe for the person undertaking the rescue action,
c) we always calmly wait for rescue services - any attempt to help would be too dangerous.103. Seeing a person whose clothes are on fire, the first thing to do is:
a) leave the victim standing to facilitate air access and extinguish the flames faster,b) use a fire extinguisher, preferably a snow extinguisher, to extinguish the burning clothing, and then try to quickly remove the melted clothing,
c) cut off the air supply by rolling the victim or wrapping them in a fire blanket, wet clothing, or a wet blanket.
104. If unidentified objects are discovered during earthworks, then:
a) further work is interrupted and the supervising person of the earthworks is notified,
b) earthworks can continue if a distance of at least 1 [m] is maintained from such an object,c) a danger zone with a radius of 6 [m] should be designated, outside of which normal work can resume.105. In the case of finding an unexploded ordnance during earthworks, one should:
a) try to carefully remove the unexploded ordnance from the work area and continue working,b) ignore the unexploded ordnance if it does not pose an immediate threat,
c) stop work, remove other workers from the danger area, notify superiors, and secure the site.
106. Wedge of soil collapse:
a) occurs only when the soil is in a frozen state,
b) occurs when the slope of the embankment exceeds the angle of the natural slope of the soil,
c) is the area around the working machine reaching a distance of 6 [m] beyond its farthest reach.107. Range of the wedge of soil collapse:
a) depends on the depth of the excavation and the category of the soil,
b) depends on the speed of the machine's operation and the efficiency of the operator,c) depends solely on the temperature of the soil.108. The angle of the natural slope is:
a) the maximum slope at which the soil can remain without sliding - it depends, among other things, on the category of the soil,
b) the angle at which the machine can be safely operated - it depends on the parameters of the given machine,c) the angle at which the soil will definitely slide by itself - it depends solely on the temperature of that soil.109. Wedge of soil collapse:
a) occurs when the slope of the embankment exceeds the angle of the natural slope of the soil - its range depends on the type of soil and the depth of the excavation or the height of the embankment,
b) is the space around the machine, dependent on the speed of the machine's operation and its mass,c) is the zone where the soil becomes unstable - its range depends solely on the depth of the excavation, the type of soil does not matter here.110. The angle of the natural slope is:
a) the maximum slope at which the soil can remain without sliding - it depends on the type of soil, e.g., moisture, cohesiveness, and grain size,
b) the angle at which the machine can safely move on the embankment, regardless of the category of the soil,c) the slope at which any embankment becomes unstable, regardless of the type of soil.111. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is performed:
a) when the injured person is breathing but unconscious, with no contact,
b) when the injured person is not breathing and there is no detectable pulse. For a non-professional rescuer, lack of breathing is a sufficient basis to start resuscitation,
c) only in the case of fainting and minor injuries, to improve blood circulation.112. An employee has the right to refrain from performing work due to health and safety regulations, notifying their supervisor immediately if:
a) working conditions pose an immediate threat to health or life,
b) working conditions do not pose a threat, but are too difficult for them,c) the work they are performing has not been reported to the construction supervision.113. Physical factors generating hazards in the workplace are:
a) lack of or inadequate training for employees,b) lack of appropriate medical examinations for the employee,
c) spilled lubricants, oils, and fuels.
114. Working with a machine/technical device is not allowed when:
a) the second operator has not reported an upcoming inspection,
b) it is malfunctioning,
c) its repair was carried out after dark.115. Working near overhead power lines:
a) always requires de-energizing the line,b) always requires double grounding of the line,
c) is possible without meeting additional requirements provided that specific distances depending on the rated voltage of the line are maintained.
116. The operator is obliged to refuse to start work if:
a) the working machine is defective,
b) there is no construction manager or any other authorized person for supervision at the work site,c) he would have to work under power lines, and the voltage in them has been turned off and the line grounded.117. The danger zone from a machine/technical device is:
a) a place where there are threats to the health or life of people,
b) a place where the machine/technical device cannot be used,c) always the entire fenced construction site.118. Accidents at work resulting from the poor technical condition of the working machine may involve, for example:
a) damage to the equipment,b) failure of the drive system,
c) injury to a limb, torso, or head.
119. Unacceptable behaviors are:
a) working after dark in a well-lit place, with full concentration of the operator,
b) working with a defective machine and working under the influence of alcohol,
c) performing daily maintenance of the machine after dark.120. General rules for safely getting on and off the machine are:
a) using cables and levers as aids when getting on is permissible with the machine turned off,b) one can descend backwards from the machine, but only when the steps are slippery,
c) a person should face the machine, remember the "three-point support" principle, and use only specially made steps and handrails.
121. The basic duties of an employee in the field of OHS are:
a) not being late for work, finishing on time, confirming presence at work in the manner accepted by the employer,
b) adhering to OHS regulations and principles, taking care of the condition of machines and tools, and maintaining order in the workplace, using personal protective equipment,
c) enforcing labor code regulations regarding their rights, including payment for overtime worked.122. In the case of a person electrocuted, after disconnecting the power source, one should:
a) move the injured person to another place as quickly as possible,b) leave the injured person if they have regained consciousness, without further actions,
c) check the condition of the injured person, and if necessary: call for help, clear the airways, perform resuscitation, and use an AED if available.
123. When a person buried under earth or sand is partially dug out, one should:
a) focus on digging out the lower parts of the injured person's body,
b) clear the airways as quickly as possible,
c) dig out the left arm as quickly as possible to check for a pulse.124. After extinguishing flames on a person with burns and calling for help, one should:
a) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes, without removing the stuck clothing,
b) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes, first removing the stuck clothing,c) use a snow extinguisher to cool the burn area.
125. Seeing such a pictogram, you are informed about:
a) a place to perform AED,
b) a place where an external automatic defibrillator is available,
c) a place where a first aid kit is available.126. Properly performed cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) consists of:
a) connecting an external automatic defibrillator (AED) and following its instructions; without AED, CPR is not performed,b) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 30-60 times per minute to a depth of 1–3 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 15 compressions (breaths are mandatory),
c) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 100-120 times per minute to a depth of 5–6 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 30 compressions (breaths are not mandatory).
127. The abbreviation IBWR stands for:
a) Safe Work Execution Instruction,
b) Non-Failure Work Execution Instruction,c) Non-Failure Work Execution Guidelines.128. Expand the abbreviation IBWR:
a) Information on Safe Work Execution,b) Implementation of Non-Failure Work Execution,
c) Safe Work Execution Instruction.
129. The Safe Work Execution Instruction for Construction Works is:
a) a plan for the road in construction works,
b) a document containing information regarding safety on the construction site,
c) a document confirming qualifications for operating machines and technical devices in earthworks, construction, and road works.130. The BIOZ plan stands for:
a) Safety and Resource Specification Plan,b) Safe Health Protection Instruction Plan,
c) Safety and Health Protection Plan.
131. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 1.6 [m],b) 4 [m],
c) 1 [m].
132. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 1.5 [m],
b) 1 [m],c) 1.6 [m].133. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 0.5 [m],
b) 1.6 [m],c) 1 [m].134. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 1.6 [m],b) 2 [m],
c) 1 [m].
135. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 1.6 [m],b) 1 [m],
c) 2 [m].
136. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 1 [m],
b) 3 [m],
c) 2 [m].137. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 3 [m],b) 2.6 [m],
c) 4 [m].
138. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 2.6 [m],
b) 1.6 [m],
c) 1 [m].139. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 3.6 [m],
b) 2.1 [m],
c) 6.6 [m].140. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 2 [m],b) 4.6 [m],
c) 2.6 [m].
141. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 2 [m],
b) 1.1 [m],
c) 2.6 [m].142. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 2.6 [m],
b) 1.6 [m],
c) 2 [m].143. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 4.6 [m],
b) 2.6 [m],
c) 2 [m].144. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 2.1 [m],b) 3 [m],
c) 3.6 [m].
145. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 4.6 [m],
b) 4 [m],c) 2.6 [m].146. In a dangerous situation, when the cabin door cannot be opened:
a) you must not leave the cabin until help arrives,
b) windows or a hatch in the roof can be used as an emergency exit,
c) the space can be used as an emergency exit after removing the floor panel.147. The operator must wear a safety helmet while operating the machine when:
a) working in a machine that is not equipped with a closed cabin,
b) working on demolition tasks using long booms,c) frequently leaning out of the cabin while working.148. Entering and exiting the machine should be done:
a) backwards to the machine, using a three-step ladder,b) sideways, being careful of the devices in the cabin,
c) facing the machine, maintaining three points of contact.
149. Prohibited activities during the operation and servicing of the machine or technical device include:
a) using machines on rocky ground during heavy rain,b) operating machines with safety or signaling devices,
c) operating machines by individuals without the appropriate qualifications.
150. In the case of earthworks, the designation of the danger zone involves:
a) securing and marking the entire work area,
b) securing and marking a zone 6 [m] from the machine,c) conducting work pointwise while maintaining a zone of 6 [m].151. Visible technical devices of underground infrastructure that provide initial insight into their course are most often:
a) abandoned road frames at the point of their crossing,b) graphic symbols applied to the road surface,
c) hydrant boxes, water shut-off boxes, manhole covers.
152. The operator can work without the need for prior loosening in soil:
a) category V-VIII,
b) category I,
c) all categories above IV.153. A control excavation is:
a) an excavation performed solely to check the quality of the soil,b) an excavation performed for the purpose of measuring the parameters of a construction machine,
c) an excavation performed to determine the actual course of underground installations.
154. The basic methods of dewatering excavations are:
a) surface dewatering, deep dewatering, encircling drainage,
b) mechanical dewatering, natural dewatering, surface dewatering,c) water extraction through pumping, manual drying.155. The action that should be performed at the very beginning of work with a chain excavator for trenches is:
a) positioning the machine in the correct position at the site of the planned linear excavation,
b) starting to dig at full depth to check the machine's efficiency,c) setting the excavation cleaning unit before starting the engine so that it touches the bottom of the trench.156. Soils, according to the degree of difficulty of their detachment, are divided into:
a) 10 categories,b) 4 categories,
c) 16 categories.
157. When overcoming inclines with a crawler excavator:
a) The drive wheel should be positioned on the higher side, and the equipment always directed upwards,
b) The drive wheel should be on the lower side, and the equipment directed according to the direction of ascent or descent,
c) The drive wheel must be on the lower side only when descending; the equipment should always be as close to the ground as possible.158. The operator of the machine should know the category of soil on which they are working:
a) to know the requirements for operating the machine's chassis,b) to be able to assess the depth of the excavation,
c) to calculate the safe distance for positioning the machine and the reach of the spoil wedge.
159. The recommended tools for performing a control excavation near electrical installations are:
a) hand tools, preferably insulated,
b) only an excavator with standard equipment,c) any mechanical tools without depth restrictions.160. Subsurface drainage consists of:
a) digging trenches around the excavation,b) pumping water from the bottom level of the excavation,
c) lowering the groundwater level using depression wells or filter points.
161. In a situation where an foreign object gets stuck in the digging chain, you should:
a) raise the excavation cleaning unit and continue working at full speed,b) stop the machine and turn off the engine,
c) move the speed controller to neutral, slightly raise the boom, and then retract the chain.
162. The term: "machine efficiency for earthworks" refers to:
a) the effect of the machine's work over a unit of time,
b) the level of engine load during the machine's operation over a unit of time,c) the amount of fuel consumed by the machine per hour of operation.163. The efficiency of a machine for earthworks can be expressed:
a) in pressure units [bar] or temperature [°C],b) in speed or revolutions per unit of time e.g. [km/h], [rpm], [rev./s],
c) in volume or mass per unit of time e.g. [m³/h], [t/h].
164. A factor influencing the rapid wear of the digging chain in the chain excavator's equipment is:
a) working with worn teeth,
b) using equipment in light and sandy soils,c) the appropriate tension of the chain.165. The type of interchangeable working equipment used depends on whether:
a) the equipment has a CE certificate,
b) the equipment is approved for use by the machine manufacturer,
c) the machine has undergone a periodic inspection.166. To prevent the digging chain from stopping while operating a chain excavator, one should:
a) turn off the excavation cleaning unit,b) increase the revolutions and digging depth as quickly as possible,
c) slowly lower the digging boom to the required depth.
167. After excavating sufficient space for the excavation cleaning unit, to properly continue working with the chain excavator, one should:
a) lower the end element (shoe) so that it touches the bottom of the excavation,
b) stop the machine and wait for further instructions,c) increase the depth of the excavation.168. The course of the underground utility lines should be marked before starting work to:
a) avoid the risk of damaging the network during work,
b) save time and reduce earthwork costs,c) allow for quick movement of machines in any direction.169. When backfilling the excavation, one should:
a) move the machine directly at the edge of the backfilled excavation,b) use only dry sand without stones,
c) control the scraper's operation, avoiding the creation of air pockets.
170. Which of the listed elements are not part of the hydraulic system:
a) pump, distributor, actuator,
b) starter, alternator,
c) hydraulic lock, hydraulic oil tank.171. The hydraulic lock in the machine is:
a) a valve protecting against uncontrolled movement of the element located in a given line,
b) a valve responsible for controlling the entire hydraulic system,c) the closure of the hydraulic oil inlet at its tank.172. The change of hydraulic oil pressure into mechanical movement is the responsibility of:
a) hydraulic actuator and hydraulic motor,
b) hydraulic distributor,c) hydraulic pump system.173. Pressure in the hydraulic system is generated by:
a) hydraulic actuator,b) hydraulic motor,
c) hydraulic pump.
174. Directing the flow of hydraulic oil to individual systems is carried out by:
a) hydraulic lock,b) relief valve,
c) hydraulic distributor.
175. The safety valve protects the hydraulic system from:
a) excessive pressure increase,
b) air in the hydraulic system,c) overheating of the hydraulic oil.176. The relief valve in the hydraulic system is responsible for:
a) limiting the maximum working pressure in a given circuit,
b) maintaining a constant position of the working tool,c) venting the system.177. If the pressure in the hydraulic system rises excessively, the excess oil will be directed to:
a) the hydraulic oil tank,
b) the distributor,c) the hydraulic oil filter.178. The basic parameters that characterize an electric accumulator are:
a) rated voltage [V], resistance [Ω], power [W],b) rated voltage [V], power [W], mass [kg],
c) rated voltage [V], capacity [Ah], starting current [A].
179. Lead-acid batteries can be charged:
a) only in an air-conditioned room,b) in any room,
c) in a place specifically designated for this purpose.
180. In a working machine, the reduction gear is most often located:
a) in the drive system near the driving wheels,
b) in the hydraulic system, close to the main pump,c) in the operator's cabin, near the drive controller.181. The main function of the torque converter (side gearbox) is:
a) changing the torque and transferring the drive to the drive wheels,
b) reducing fuel consumption,c) increasing the stability of the machine.182. The hydraulic distributor:
a) increases the torque in the side gearbox,
b) directs the flow of hydraulic oil to the appropriate sections,
c) converts mechanical energy into hydraulic energy.183. The hydraulic distributor is a technical device that:
a) distributes oil between the small circuit and the large circuit,b) distributes oil between the engine and the hydraulic system,
c) allows control of individual hydraulic sections of the machine.
184. The ROPS cabin in construction machines protects the operator from:
a) being hit by falling objects from above,
b) being crushed in the event of the machine overturning,
c) dust in the operator's cabin.185. The ROPS cabin in construction machines protects against:
a) the machine falling from a slope and rolling over,b) the machine overturning,
c) crushing the operator in the event of the machine overturning.
186. The term body in earthmoving machines refers to:
a) the upper part of the machine with working equipment,b) the base of the machine,
c) the upper part of the machine.
187. The stability and structural strength of the undercarriage of a crawler excavator are provided by:
a) a welded box frame with longitudinal beams,
b) the braking system, hydraulic cylinders, and swing bearing,c) the swing wheel, shock absorbers, and cross beams.188. The running rollers in the running gear of a crawler excavator serve the function of:
a) stabilizing the rotation column relative to the excavator frame,b) increasing the tension of the tracks and transferring torque to the drive wheels,
c) evenly distributing the load over the entire surface of the track, which improves the stability of the machine on uneven terrain.
189. Damage to the ROPS frame resulting in the need for replacement includes:
a) cracking or bending of the structure,
b) minor surface scratches,c) discoloration of the paint caused by weather conditions and the passage of time.190. Drilling additional holes in the ROPS type cabin structure is prohibited because:
a) it causes a decrease in the strength of the structure,
b) it reduces the operator's comfort,c) it decreases the weight of the machine.191. A too tightly tensioned track can cause:
a) preventing the machine from turning,
b) excessive wear of the chain, drive wheels, and rollers,
c) immediate mobility issues of the machine.192. A too loose track can result in:
a) greater load on the hydraulic system,
b) falling off the undercarriage and accelerated wear of pins and drive wheels,
c) improved traction when working in muddy terrain.193. The primary task of the hydraulic accumulator in the hydrostatic system is:
a) storing energy in the form of pressure of the working fluid,
b) regulating the temperature of the working fluid,c) evenly distributing oil to the system receivers.194. In the hydrostatic system, the energy of the fluid pressure is transmitted to:
a) hydraulic motors or hydraulic actuators,
b) thermostatic, overflow, and check valves,c) oil coolers and pressure gauges.195. The function of the FOPS protective structure is:
a) protecting the operator from the effects of exhaust fumes and noise,
b) protecting the operator from falling objects,
c) protecting the operator from the consequences of the machine overturning.196. The FOPS protective structure must be used when:
a) working where heavy elements may fall on the cabin (e.g., demolition work, in quarries, etc.),
b) all earthworks,c) underwater work.197. The equivalent sound level at which hearing protection must be used when operating a machine with the cabin doors open, if permitted in the machine's DTR or when using a machine/technical device without such a cabin, is:
a) 105 [dB(A)],b) 55 [dB(A)],
c) 85 [dB(A)].
198. The mandatory equipment for the operator to observe the area directly behind the machine is:
a) sound signal when reversing,
b) external mirror,
c) rear camera.199. A green flashing light placed on the machine's cabin signals, among other things:
a) no operator in the cabin,
b) correct fastening of the seat belts,
c) the machine's eco mode is activated.200. In a parallel connection of two identical batteries, the voltage of such a system is:
a) equal to the voltage of a single battery,
b) the sum of the voltages of the individual batteries,c) the product of the voltages of the individual batteries.201. In a series connection of two identical batteries, the voltage of such a system is:
a) the sum of the voltages of the individual batteries,
b) equal to the voltage of a single battery,c) the product of the voltages of the individual batteries.202. Fuses in the electrical installation of a machine protect it from the effects of:
a) high temperature,b) low voltage,
c) short circuits and overloads.
203. One of the elements of the electrical system protecting the motor from seizing is:
a) engine oil pressure sensor,
b) main fuse,c) speed controller.204. Gel batteries, which are elements of the electrical system, do not require:
a) charging with a rectifier,
b) electrolyte replenishment,
c) replacement when the housing is damaged.205. Electrical systems of machines and technical devices should be equipped with a device that causes emergency stop in at least the following quantity:
a) two emergency stop devices placed on both sides of the machine, in accordance with the European machinery directive,b) three emergency stop devices, in accordance with the European machinery directive,
c) one emergency stop device, in accordance with the European machinery directive.
206. The emergency stop device of the machine is a component of:
a) the drive system,b) the fuel system,
c) the electrical system.
207. The main parameters of the internal combustion engine affecting work efficiency are:
a) type of carburetor, type of ignition system,b) compression ratio, displacement,
c) torque, rotational speed.
208. The crank-piston system of the internal combustion engine is designed to:
a) convert mechanical energy into hydraulic energy,
b) convert the reciprocating motion of the piston into the rotational motion of the crankshaft,
c) ensure the effective operation of the clutch.209. The lubrication system in the internal combustion engine:
a) is responsible for removing hazardous substances generated in the combustion process of the mixture,b) provides regulation of the rotational speed and reduces engine vibrations during operation,
c) is responsible for the proper lubrication of the moving elements of the engine that work together.
210. The engine timing system is used for:
a) controlling the filling of the combustion chamber with air or a fuel-air mixture and controlling the emptying of this chamber of exhaust gases,
b) damping noise and minimizing engine vibrations during operation,c) ensuring the optimal composition of the fuel-oil-air mixture for combustion.211. The systems present in internal combustion engines include:
a) hydraulic system, intake system,b) exhaust system, pneumatic system, closed system,
c) crankshaft-piston system, fuel system, cooling system.
212. The low-pressure part of the fuel system of a diesel engine is:
a) fuel tank, supply pump, filters, fuel lines,
b) fuel lines, high-pressure pump, common rail,c) fuel tank and injectors.213. The element controlling the flow of coolant in the so-called "large circuit" is:
a) thermostat,
b) thermophore,c) thermocouple.214. An intercooler is:
a) a device for burning solid particles in exhaust gases,b) another name for the engine coolant radiator,
c) an air cooler for turbocharged engines.
215. DPF filter:
a) is a precise cabin filter protecting the operator while working in high dust conditions,
b) is a dry particulate filter responsible for capturing soot from exhaust gases,
c) is used to reduce NOx (nitrogen oxides) emissions.216. The frequency and scope of periodic maintenance of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam:
a) is determined by the owner of the machine/technical device,b) is included in the IBWR documentation,
c) is included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine.
217. The operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device is:
a) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device,
b) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device, which includes among others the IBWR,c) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by the health and safety services on the construction site.218. The operator of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is not allowed to:
a) make any repairs or maintenance,b) during operation, check the technical condition of the machine/technical device,
c) use the machine/technical device contrary to its intended purpose.
219. A symptom of too low a level of hydraulic oil may be:
a) loud operation of the starter,
b) "jerky" intermittent movement of hydraulic actuators,
c) uneven operation of the diesel engine.220. If the warning light for too low engine oil pressure comes on, the operator:
a) does not have to take any action,b) can continue working if the hydraulic system is functioning properly,
c) should stop working and turn off the engine.
221. Operating and maintenance instructions for the machine/technical device:
a) is used to record information about faults,b) is established by the owner or user of the machine,
c) contains information regarding hazards present at the workplace and their prevention.
222. The CE Declaration of Conformity is a document:
a) issued by institutions that test machines for resistance to weather conditions,b) confirming that the product was manufactured in the European Union countries,
c) in which the manufacturer confirms that their product meets all applicable EU requirements regarding safety, health protection, and environmental protection.
223. Information regarding the use of personal protective equipment and ways to limit the occupational risk the operator can find:
a) in the Operating and maintenance instructions for the machine/technical device,
b) in the CE Declaration of Conformity,c) in the service book.224. The operating and maintenance instructions for the machine/technical device:
a) is created by the construction manager based on information from the manufacturer,
b) is developed by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device or the entity that introduces the machine/technical device to the market,
c) is created by institutions that conduct testing and accreditation of machine/technical device prototypes before allowing them for serial production.225. The operating and maintenance instructions for the machine/technical device:
a) should be kept in the office along with the company's documentation and be available in case of inspection,
b) should be located in the machine or with the technical device, treated as part of the machine/technical device and be available at any time,
c) does not matter where it is located, the most important thing is that the owner of the machine has it in case of resale of the machine.226. Identification data of the machine/technical device:
a) due to their importance, they are always printed in red,b) should be noted on the inner side of the protective helmet assigned to the given machine/technical device,
c) are located on the nameplate of the machine/technical device, and may additionally be in the marking places described in the instructions.
227. To minimize the risk of machine/technical device failure, the operator should:
a) use the machine/technical device until the failure becomes serious,b) perform maintenance activities only when the machine/technical device stops working,
c) regularly visually assess the condition of the machine/technical device and report any noticed irregularities.
228. Key activities for the safe technical operation of the machine are:
a) performing technical service without securing the working equipment to save time,
b) securing the equipment, covers, and doors against accidental closure and using personal protective equipment,
c) using latex gloves without the need for other personal protective equipment.229. The rules for safely performing technical services on machines are:
a) the engine may remain on to perform the service faster, especially if the machine is running idle,
b) the machine should be positioned on level ground, with working equipment lowered to the ground, the engine turned off, and the key removed from the ignition,
c) the machine can be left on sloped terrain, as long as the operator plans a short technical service.230. It is recommended to replace gears simultaneously with the replacement of the digging chain:
a) because only new gears and a new chain operate effectively, preventing accelerated wear of both components,
b) to avoid the need to adjust the chain tension after replacement,c) to reduce the maintenance costs of the machine.231. For the daily operation of the chain digging equipment, one should not:
a) lubricate the left and right stabilizer pins of the equipment,b) check and adjust the conveyor belts,
c) replace the digging chain.
232. Breaking in a machine during the initial period of operation is:
a) an intensive full load test of the machine,
b) the process of achieving optimal clearances and even wear of parts,
c) the stage of the machine working without load.233. The operator uses the operating and maintenance manual of the machine or technical device to:
a) record all faults of the machine or device noticed during operation,b) log the hours worked and fuel consumption by the machine,
c) understand the technical specifications, operating instructions, health and safety rules, and methods of repairing faults.
234. The operational part of the operating and maintenance manual of the machine or technical device includes:
a) instructions regarding, among others, controlling the machine/device,
b) a detailed description of the construction and operation of all elements of the machine/device,c) a catalog of spare parts.235. The operating and maintenance manual must always be present with the machine/device because:
a) it minimizes the risk of losing it,
b) its absence may be a reason for the health and safety inspector to disallow the machine to operate,
c) it is essential for periodic technical inspections.236. The SAE designation on oil refers to:
a) the multi-season qualification of the oil,
b) the viscosity of the engine oil, that is, its ability to flow and lubricate,
c) the pressure of the engine oil.237. Oil with the symbol SAE 15W-40 means that:
a) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 15W,
b) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 15W, and at positive temperatures of summer oil class SAE 40,
c) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40.238. Oil with the symbol SAE 10W-30 means that:
a) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W, and at positive temperatures of summer oil class SAE 30,
b) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W,c) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 30.239. The symbol SAE 10W-30 means:
a) hydraulic oil with specified parameters,
b) multi-season engine oil with specified parameters,
c) a mixture of engine oil and hydraulic oil.240. Engine oil with the symbol SAE 5W-40 means that:
a) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 5W,
b) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 5W, and at positive temperatures of summer oil class SAE 40,
c) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40.
241. The symbol of the warning light shown in the graphic means:
a) low engine oil pressure,
b) low engine oil level,
c) low coolant level.
242. The symbol of the warning light shown in the graphic means:
a) low engine oil pressure,
b) low coolant level,c) low fuel level.
243. The symbol of the warning light shown means:
a) hydraulic oil,b) engine oil filter,
c) engine oil.
244. The symbol of the warning light shown means:
a) engine oil level,
b) engine coolant level,c) hydraulic oil level.245. Oils with designations 70W, 85W, 80W-90 are:
a) engine oils,b) brake oils,
c) gear oils.
246. In the event of the need to dismantle the cover/protection for maintenance, one must not:
a) start working with the technical device without the cover/protection installed,
b) record such a fact in the documentation,c) reinstall the cover/protection.247. The lighting of the battery charging indicator signals to the operator of the construction machine a malfunction of:
a) the V-belt and/or alternator,
b) the battery switch,c) the indicator light.248. The operator's seat cannot be adjusted when:
a) the seat is turned backwards,b) the engine is not started,
c) the machine is in motion.
249. If during daily technical maintenance before work the operator notices that one of the windows in the cabin is cracked, then:
a) he should not start working,
b) he may start working provided that the window is only cracked and has not "fallen out",c) he may start working if it is not the front window.250. Before starting work, the operator should:
a) install the sun protection covers on the windows,b) open the windows for better communication,
c) clean the windows by removing snow, ice, and other contaminants.
251. When changing hydraulic oils, one should:
a) always use only biodegradable oils,
b) use only types of oils recommended by the machine manufacturer,
c) use any type of oil.252. To ensure the technical efficiency of the working machine, one must:
a) follow technical service and maintenance according to the operating and maintenance instructions,
b) operate the machine/technical device without exceeding 50% of the permissible load,c) operate the machine/technical device only under full load.253. On the construction site, empty containers of lubricants, oil filters, and used oils should be:
a) placed in a properly marked container for hazardous waste,
b) thrown into the mixed waste container,c) thrown into any waste container.254. Stickers (pictograms) located on the machine/technical device serve to:
a) indicate places where one can stay without any risk,b) inform about the prohibition of approaching the machine/technical device,
c) convey important information about safety and the use of the machine/technical device.
255. Lubrication points in the machine should be serviced:
a) according to the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine,
b) always after 10 hours of operation,c) during all breaks in operation.256. Engine oil with parameters 5W-50 is:
a) only winter oil,
b) multi-season oil,
c) only summer oil.257. Before starting work on a new type of machine/technical device, the operator should:
a) perform a periodic inspection,
b) familiarize themselves with the operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device,
c) perform a trial work.258. OTC service is:
a) round-the-clock technical service,b) temporary technical service,
c) daily technical service.
259. The basic types of services are:
a) round-the-clock, multi-season, annual, technological service,b) visual, active, passive service,
c) daily, periodic, warehouse, transport service.
260. Batteries, when starting the machine using a supporting battery, should be connected:
a) in series,b) crosswise,
c) in parallel.
261. In the case of electrolyte loss caused by spillage through a cracked battery casing, one should:
a) secure the spill area in terms of environmental protection, and then replace the battery,
b) add demineralized water to a level of 10 mm above the top edges of the plates,c) add electrolyte to the proper level and charge the battery.262. The activities performed by the operator as part of daily maintenance during work include:
a) auditory control of the machine's operation and observation of indicators,
b) replenishing operating fluids and daily lubrication,c) cleaning the machine.263. If the manufacturer has provided for operational running-in, it should be carried out:
a) with maximum load,b) without load,
c) with the recommended load specified in the operating and maintenance instructions for the machine/technical device.
264. When loading the machine onto the transport vehicle, the operator should:
a) know the permissible angle of inclination of the loading ramps for the given machine,
b) perform the loading at a speed of at least 5 [km/h],c) know the maximum speed allowed for the given transport vehicle.265. The responsibility for the placement and securing of the machine on the transport vehicle lies with:
a) the owner or the person responsible for the machines in the company,b) the machine operator,
c) the carrier (e.g., the driver).
266. When storing a machine, you should ensure that:
a) no machine documents are left in the cabin,
b) there are no leaks of operating fluids,
c) the machine is facing the exit.267. Securing the machine during storage downtime involves:
a) disassembling all filters and protecting them from moisture,
b) cleaning the machine of dirt and corrosion,
c) filling the hydraulic oil tank to the top.268. The rods of hydraulic cylinders, during technical service of the stored machine, should be:
a) disassembled and cleaned,b) taken apart and their seals replaced,
c) protected against corrosion.
269. When loading the machine onto a trailer:
a) assistance from a second person is recommended,
b) assistance from a second person is recommended only when loading onto a low-loader trailer,c) the operator should drive onto the trailer independently.270. The recommended method for loading heavy working machines onto low-loader trailers is:
a) mechanized loading from the front ramp,
b) loading using other machines,c) loading on ropes.271. During longer storage of the machine, the fuel tank should be:
a) filled to 1/3 of its capacity and left open,
b) filled to the top to prevent condensation of water vapor inside the tank,
c) empty to avoid fire hazards.272. During daily operation of the machine, the condition of should be checked:
a) the working pressure value in the hydraulic system,
b) the connections and tightness of the hydraulic system,
c) the tools and equipment.273. If the machine's engine has not been running for a long time, during daily operation you should:
a) check the oil level and other operating fluids,
b) start the engine and gently increase the RPM to reach the operating temperature faster,c) replace the fuel suction filter.274. Information regarding faults, their codes, and methods of removal can be found in the document titled:
a) operating and maintenance manual,
b) daily report,c) construction machine book.275. The correct sequence for connecting the auxiliary battery to the discharged battery in the machine is as follows:
a) negative terminal of the machine's battery, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, machine frame,
b) positive terminal of the machine's battery, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, machine frame,
c) machine frame, positive terminal of the machine's battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery.276. In the case of detecting electrolyte loss in the battery, one should:
a) top it up with DOT-3 fluid,b) top it up with tap water,
c) top it up with distilled or demineralized water.
277. Checking the charge state of the starting battery 12 [V] by "sparking" poses a risk of:
a) an explosion of hydrogen escaping from the battery,
b) seizing the alternator,c) electric shock from high voltage.278. The scope of daily technical service of the machine does not include:
a) checking the oil level in the engine,b) checking the condition of the tires and tire pressure,
c) checking and adjusting valve clearances.
279. When cleaning the radiator, to avoid damaging it, one should:
a) use sharp tools for cleaning,
b) keep the compressed air nozzle at an appropriate distance from the radiator,
c) use a strong stream of water under high pressure.280. The purpose of lubrication in working machines is:
a) to increase the engine's rotational speed,b) to raise the temperature of cooperating elements,
c) to reduce friction.
281. The most commonly used type of fuses in electrical installations of working machines is:
a) differential fuses,
b) cartridge fuses,
c) automatic fuses.282. The phenomenon of electrostatic discharge during refueling a machine can lead to:
a) poisoning,b) short circuit of the electrical installation,
c) fire.
283. In the case of parallel connection of two batteries with different rated voltages:
a) thicker cables should be used than with batteries of the same rated voltages,
b) there may be an explosion of the battery with the lower rated voltage,
c) both batteries may discharge.284. The correct way to connect a battery to a charger during charging is:
a) positive terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger, negative terminal of the battery to the negative terminal of the charger,
b) positive terminal of the battery to the negative terminal of the charger, negative terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger,c) positive terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger, negative terminal of the charger to the "ground" of the machine.285. After connecting the battery, the terminals are lubricated with:
a) graphite grease,b) grease containing molybdenum disulfide,
c) technical vaseline.
286. One of the goals of warehouse service is:
a) repairing damaged machine components before the next season,b) preparing the machine for transport for the future user,
c) protecting the machine from corrosion and other harmful factors during long-term storage.
287. The level of coolant in the expansion tank should be checked:
a) only during periodic technical service,
b) during every daily technical service,
c) only in case of engine overheating.288. If the operator notices a hydraulic fluid leak during daily technical service, he should:
a) top up the oil and continue working,b) reduce the RPM and continue working,
c) report the leak and not use the machine until it is repaired.
289. The frequency of performing periodic technical service depends on:
a) the number of completed working cycles,b) the production date of the machine,
c) the number of hours worked (engine hours).
290. If during daily technical service the operator notices a low level of engine oil, he should:
a) top up the level with any available oil, even if it is of a different type,
b) top up the oil to the appropriate level,
c) proceed with work if the level is not very low and the warning light is not on.291. Basic servicing tasks that must be performed before starting a diesel engine are:
a) checking the oil level in the gearbox, checking the operation of the working system, checking the operation of the brakes,b) bleeding the fuel system, checking the level of transmission oil, checking the starter,
c) checking the oil level in the engine, checking the coolant level, checking the condition of the air filter.
292. Tasks performed as part of daily technical service (OTC) carried out during the operation of the machine are:
a) observing control and measuring instruments and monitoring the proper operation of the machine using sight, hearing, and smell,
b) primarily organoleptic control of the proper functioning of the machine's working system,c) observing only control and measuring indicators such as: oil pressure, engine temperature, hydraulic oil temperature.293. We distinguish, among others, the following types of technical services:
a) transport, commissioning, daily, periodic, seasonal, storage,
b) commissioning, daily, periodic, seasonal, storage, emergency, night,c) transport, commissioning, storage, operational-repair (ON), catalog.294. We perform technical services for the purpose of:
a) maintaining the value of the machine or technical device at a constant, unchanged level,b) ensuring quiet operation of the machine or technical device,