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Testy UDT

Backhoe loaders class III

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Question of 390

1. The presence of people between the wall of the excavation and the backhoe loader, even when stationary, is:

a) allowed for a short time,

b) prohibited,

c) allowed.

2. What is the minimum allowable distance of the machine from the reach of the failure wedge?

a) 0.4 [m],

b) 0.6 [m],

c) 0.8 [m].

3. The safe distance of the machine from the excavation is:

a) depth of the excavation + 0.6 [m],b) 1.6 [m],

c) reach of the failure wedge + 0.6 [m].

Question 4 - illustration

4. Based on the provided table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] made in cohesive soils:

a) 1 [m],

b) 1.6 [m],

c) 2.6 [m].
Question 5 - illustration

5. Based on the provided table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] made in fractured rocks:

a) 2.6 [m],

b) 3.6 [m],

c) 4.6 [m]. Backhoe Loaders Class III
Question 6 - illustration

6. Based on the presented table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] made in slightly cohesive soils:

a) 3.1 [m],

b) 3.6 [m],c) 2.6 [m].

7. What is the minimum safe distance from the UPPER edge of the embankment that the machine can approach, for the following data: Soil category - I (dry sand), height of the embankment - h = 2 [m], horizontal distance between the upper and lower edges of the embankment - a = 2.5 [m]?

a) 0.6 [m],

b) 1.1 [m],

c) 3.6 [m].

8. What is the minimum safe distance from the UPPER edge of the embankment that the machine can approach, for the following data: Soil category - II (slightly cohesive soils), height of the embankment - h = 4 [m], horizontal distance between the upper and lower edges of the embankment - a = 2.5 [m]?

a) 5.6 [m],

b) 3.1 [m],

c) 0.6 [m].

9. What is the horizontal distance measured from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage not exceeding 1 [kV] in which the operation of a machine or technical device is permitted?

a) not less than 5 [m],b) not less than 2 [m],

c) not less than 3 [m].

10. What is the horizontal distance measured from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV] in which the operation of a machine or technical device is permitted?

a) not less than 15 [m],b) not less than 10 [m],

c) not less than 5 [m].

11. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?

a) not less than 5 [m],b) not less than 15 [m],

c) not less than 10 [m].

12. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?

a) not less than 15 [m],

b) not less than 20 [m],c) not less than 10 [m].

13. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?

a) not less than 10 [m],

b) not less than 30 [m],

c) not less than 15 [m].

14. Is it possible to organize workstations in the danger zone under overhead power lines?

a) no, never,

b) yes, but only after meeting additional requirements,

c) yes, always.
Question 15 - illustration

15. What is the safe distance X for the operation of a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [V]?

a) not less than 3 [m],

b) not less than 5 [m],c) not less than 30 [m].
Question 16 - illustration

16. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV]?

a) at least 15 [m],b) at least 10 [m],

c) at least 5 [m].

Question 17 - illustration

17. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?

a) at least 15 [m],

b) at least 10 [m],

c) at least 30 [m].
Question 18 - illustration

18. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?

a) at least 10 [m],

b) at least 15 [m],c) at least 5 [m].
Question 19 - illustration

19. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV]?

a) at least 15 [m],

b) at least 50 [m],c) at least 30 [m].
Question 20 - illustration

20. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV]?

a) at least 15 [m],b) at least 30 [m],

c) at least 10 [m].

Question 21 - illustration

21. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]?

a) at least 40 [m],

b) at least 30 [m],

c) at least 3 [m].

22. Work in the danger zone (overhead high voltage power line):

a) may be carried out provided that the line is disconnected from the voltage, work is performed in an area limited by groundings and at least one grounding is visible from the work site,

b) may be carried out provided that permission from the work manager has been granted,c) may not be carried out under any circumstances under electric lines in the danger zone.
Question 23 - illustration

23. The operator must perform work at a distance X from an active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [V]. He can start work if this distance is:

a) 5 [m],

b) 1 [m],c) 2 [m].
Question 24 - illustration

24. The operator must perform work at a distance X from an active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]. He can start work if this distance is:

a) 3 [m],

b) 15 [m],

c) 5 [m].
Question 25 - illustration

25. The operator must perform work at a distance X from an active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]. He can start work if this distance is:

a) 5 [m],

b) 50 [m],

c) 15 [m].

26. If the injured person has a detectable pulse but is not breathing, then:

a) chest compressions should be performed,b) they should not be touched,

c) the airways should be cleared and artificial respiration should be started.

27. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, one should primarily:

a) assist those with life-threatening conditions,

b) move away from the accident scene to call a doctor,c) give medication to the injured.

28. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, one should primarily:

a) move away from the accident scene to call a doctor,b) assist those with life-threatening conditions,

c) ensure one's own safety.

29. The obligation to provide first aid to accident victims rests with:

a) everyone, as part of the rescue tasks can always be performed,

b) everyone, but criminal liability always threatens for mistakes made,c) only those with medical training.

30. The accident victim regained consciousness after a few minutes and wants to go home. In this situation, one should:

a) give them something to drink and painkillers,

b) encourage them to stay and call for medical help,

c) allow them to go home, recommending a visit to a doctor.

31. First aid in a situation where a foreign body has entered the eye of the injured person consists of:

a) rinsing with clean water directing the stream from the nose outward from the eye,

b) rinsing with distilled water directing the stream inward to the eye,c) flushing the eye with eye drops.

32. The injured person has cut their leg on an unsecured sharp object. Providing first aid in this situation is:

a) using a tourniquet,b) sticking a plaster directly on the wound,

c) applying sterile gauze, wrapping the wound with a bandage.

33. Suspecting spinal injury in a person who has fallen from a height and is conscious, one should:

a) place them in a stable side position,

b) not move them and wait for medical services to arrive,

c) sit them in a semi-reclining position.

34. To move away from the place where the electric wire has been broken and the area is under voltage, one should:

a) slowly step away from this place, taking small steps, trying to maintain continuous contact of the feet with the ground,

b) run as quickly as possible to a place that we assess as safe,c) quickly step away from the source of electric shock taking large steps and lifting the feet high.

35. First aid in the case of a first-degree burn is:

a) pouring cold water on the burned area,

b) applying greasy cream to the burned area,c) applying ointment to the burned area.

36. During work, a high voltage power line was torn down, as a result of which a colleague was electrocuted. In this situation, the correct behavior is:

a) call other colleagues for help with the injured,b) approach the injured person to provide first aid,

c) turn off the power source as quickly as possible.

37. We perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation until:

a) the fire brigade arrives and secures the area,b) 10 minutes pass,

c) we have determined that the victim has started breathing and circulation has returned.

38. Immediate action in the case of severe bleeding from an injured upper limb includes:

a) applying a dressing, directly compressing the bleeding site, and elevating the limb,

b) lowering the limb below heart level,c) disinfecting the wound with salicylic alcohol.

39. In the case of a nosebleed, one should:

a) lean the bleeding person's head forward, pinch the nostrils,

b) tilt the head back and place a cold compress on the neck,c) lay the injured person on their back.

40. The first step in dealing with a victim of carbon monoxide poisoning in a closed room is:

a) conducting a preliminary examination,

b) the quickest possible evacuation of the injured person from that room,

c) assessing ABC.

41. First aid during seizures caused by an epileptic attack consists of:

a) placing a wooden object in the injured person's mouth to prevent biting their tongue,

b) securing the injured person's head from injuries,

c) seating the injured person in a semi-sitting position and giving them something to drink.

42. In case of suspected spinal injury in the cervical region in a conscious person, one should:

a) seat the injured person in a chair with a high back,b) place the injured person in a lateral position,

c) not allow the injured person to move their head.

43. The most important thing when a person is buried under earth, sand, or gravel is:

a) notifying the family,b) waiting for the arrival of the ambulance,

c) locating the injured person.

44. First aid for a person with a metal rod embedded in their lower leg consists of calling for help and:

a) securing the rod from movement,

b) removing the embedded rod,c) moving the rod to check if the artery has been damaged.

45. The indication for using an AED defibrillator is:

a) severe chest pain,b) severe dizziness,

c) lack of detectable breath and pulse in the injured person.

46. During the operation of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam, the prohibited activities are:

a) making structural changes to the machine/technical device,

b) performing daily technical service (OTC),c) replacing the working tool.

47. During the operation of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam, the prohibited activities are:

a) cleaning the machine/technical device using gasoline or solvents whose vapors can create flammable/explosive gas mixtures with air,

b) cleaning the machine/technical device using a product in accordance with the operating and maintenance instructions,c) refueling the machine/technical device from a canister.

48. During earthworks with the machine for which you are taking the exam, it is unacceptable to:

a) use the machine's blade at a safe distance from the excavation,

b) position the machine within the reach of the falling wedge,

c) extend the machine's blade towards the excavation.

49. During earthworks with the machine for which you are taking the exam, it is unacceptable to:

a) use the machine on clay soils at air temperatures below -5°C,b) use the machine on clay soils at air temperatures above 30°C,

c) use the machine on clay soils during heavy rain.

50. During earthworks with the machine for which you are taking the exam, it is unacceptable to:

a) have people within the reach of the machine's working tool,

b) have people at a distance greater than the sum of the maximum reach of the working tool plus 6 meters,c) have people near the machine during technical service operations.

51. During the execution of work, it is unacceptable to:

a) work near an active power line with a rated voltage of 20 [kV] at a distance of 15 [m],b) work near an active power line with a rated voltage of 10 [kV] at a distance of 10 [m],

c) work near active overhead power lines at a distance less than specified by regulations.

52. During the execution of narrow-space excavations with the machine you are taking the exam on, it is unacceptable to:

a) have cooperating persons in the unsecured part of the excavation, even if they have personal protective equipment,

b) have cooperating persons in the secured part of the excavation,c) use hand tools for excavations by cooperating persons.

53. During earthworks in marshy or wet areas:

a) the machine is placed on stable and permanently connected supports,

b) the machine is placed in the same way as on other grounds,c) the machine is placed as on other grounds, only we do not consider the distance from the failure wedge.

54. The machine/technical device you are taking the exam on can only be operated by:

a) any adult person with technical education and a driving license of the appropriate category,b) a person with written confirmation of course completion in the form of a plastic card,

c) a person who has completed training and obtained a positive result in the test conducted by the commission appointed by the Łukasiewicz Research Network – Warsaw Institute of Technology.

55. The rights to operate machines/technical devices you are taking the exam on are issued by:

a) The Office of Technical Inspection (UDT),

b) The Łukasiewicz Research Network - Warsaw Institute of Technology (SBŁ - WIT),

c) The County Office appropriate for the residence address of the person applying for the rights.

56. Permissions to operate machines/technical devices for which you are taking the exam:

a) are valid for 5 years from the date of issue,b) are valid for 10 years from the date of issue,

c) are valid indefinitely.

57. A person holding permissions to operate: "Backhoe Loader class III" based on them:

a) can operate all backhoe loaders, single-bucket excavators up to 4 [t] operating weight, and single-bucket loaders up to 8 [t] operating weight,

b) can operate all backhoe loaders, single-bucket excavators up to 8 [t] operating weight, and single-bucket loaders up to 4 [t] operating weight,c) can operate only backhoe loaders.

58. A person holding permissions to operate: "Backhoe Loader class III" based on them:

a) can operate all backhoe loaders, single-bucket excavators up to 8 [t] operating weight, and single-bucket loaders up to 4 [t] operating weight,

b) can operate bulldozer-excavators,

c) can operate backhoe loaders up to 8 [t] operating weight and single-bucket excavators up to 4 [t] operating weight.

59. An employee operating a machine/device for which you are taking the exam can start work provided that:

a) has a valid category D driving license,

b) has permissions to operate this type of machine/device,

c) the machine/device has a valid UDT inspection.

60. In the event of a threat to life, health, property, or the environment caused by a malfunction of the machine/device, the operator:

a) continues working but informs the supervisor about the situation at the end of the shift,b) continues working but makes an appropriate entry in the maintenance book at the end of the shift,

c) immediately stops work and informs the supervisor of this fact.

61. Lifting and transporting people using working equipment:

a) is always prohibited,

b) is possible, but only outside the public road area,c) requires the consent of the construction manager.

62. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam has the right to refuse to work when:

a) has the required personal protective equipment,b) there is an overhead power line at a distance of 35 meters with a rated voltage of 110 [kV],

c) this work requires special psychophysical fitness, and his psychophysical condition does not ensure its safe performance and poses a threat to other people.

63. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is obliged to stop work when:

a) has the required personal protective equipment,b) there is an overhead power line at a distance of 35 meters,

c) the work he is performing poses a direct threat to the health or life of other people.

64. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is obliged to:

a) always have a category B driving license,b) independently perform all current repairs of the machine/technical device,

c) comply with the provisions of the operation and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device.

65. The person directly responsible for the safe operation of the machine for which you are taking the exam is:

a) the construction manager,b) the owner of the machine,

c) the machine operator.

66. The operator's book and qualifications for the machine/technical device you are taking the exam for are issued by:

a) Research Network Łukasiewicz - Warsaw Institute of Technology,

b) Office of Technical Inspection (UDT),c) Transport Technical Inspection (TDT).

67. The obligation to use personal protective equipment:

a) does not apply on hot days,b) results only from internal regulations,

c) results from the operating and maintenance instructions and health and safety regulations.

68. An employee who witnesses an accident at work:

a) is obliged to provide assistance to the victims and then immediately leave the scene of the accident,b) it is enough to notify the supervisor,

c) is obliged to provide assistance to the victims, notify the supervisor, and if necessary secure the accident site.

69. What elements of the machine you are taking the exam for protect the operator in case of the machine tipping over:

a) machine seat,b) certified safety helmet and reflective vest,

c) ROPS type machine cabin and safety belts.

70. In the event of loss of stability by a machine equipped with a ROPS type cabin, the operator should:

a) quickly turn left and raise the working equipment as high as possible,b) try to leave the cabin as quickly as possible (before the machine tips over),

c) maintain a sitting position while holding on tightly to the steering wheel or other stable elements in the cabin.

71. In the case of loss of stability by a machine equipped with a ROPS cabin, the operator should:

a) stay in the cabin,

b) immediately jump out of the cabin,c) turn on the warning/hazard lights.

72. The danger zone is defined as:

a) a place where workers must only wear protective helmets,b) a place where work requiring specialized equipment takes place, and the presence of people is only allowed at night,

c) a place where there are threats to health and life of people.

73. The danger zone on a construction site:

a) is designated after the construction work begins,

b) is designated and/or fenced and marked in a way that prevents access to unauthorized persons,

c) is always designated by a surveyor.

74. The area that the operator should check and secure before starting work with a machine/technical device (because there are threats to health and life of people) is called:

a) a high-risk zone,b) a dead zone,

c) a danger zone.

Question 75 - illustration

75. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:

a) "raise up",

b) "turn the machine",c) "lower down".
Question 76 - illustration

76. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:

a) "turn the machine",b) "lift up",

c) "lower down".

Question 77 - illustration

77. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:

a) "movement in the indicated direction",

b) "lift up",c) "turn the machine".
Question 78 - illustration

78. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:

a) "turn the machine",

b) "movement in the indicated direction",

c) "lift up".
Question 79 - illustration

79. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:

a) "end of operation",

b) "horizontal distance",

c) "stop".
Question 80 - illustration

80. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:

a) "movement backward",

b) "movement forward",

c) "fast movement".
Question 81 - illustration

81. The hand signal shown in the picture means:

a) "movement backward",

b) "movement forward",c) "slow movement".
Question 82 - illustration

82. The hand signal shown in the picture means:

a) "vertical distance",

b) "stop",c) "end of operation".
Question 83 - illustration

83. The hand signal shown in the picture means:

a) "movement backward",b) "horizontal distance",

c) "STOP. Emergency stop".

Question 84 - illustration

84. The hand signal shown in the picture means:

a) "STOP. Emergency stop",

b) "START. Beginning of direction",

c) "movement backward".
Question 85 - illustration

85. The hand signal shown in the picture means:

a) "STOP. Break - end of movement",

b) "STOP. Emergency stop",c) "movement backward".
Question 86 - illustration

86. The manual signal shown in the drawing means:

a) "horizontal distance",b) "lower down",

c) "END. Stop operation".

87. During the charging of batteries, a gas with very explosive properties is released. This gas is:

a) methane,

b) hydrogen,

c) ethane.

88. Firefighting foam can be used to extinguish fires of group:

a) A and B,

b) C and D,c) only C.

89. Improper use of a snow extinguisher can result in:

a) fainting,

b) frostbite caused by the extinguishing agent,

c) burns from the extinguisher components.

90. Water, fire blanket, powder extinguisher, carbon dioxide, sand are extinguishing agents that we will use to extinguish:

a) liquids,b) oils,

c) solids.

91. We can call sorbents:

a) petroleum substances,

b) materials made of natural or synthetic polymers that absorb liquids,

c) fire blankets.

92. Group A fires concern:

a) flammable liquids,b) flammable gases,

c) solid bodies whose normal combustion occurs with the formation of glowing coals, e.g. wood, paper, etc..

93. Group B fires concern:

a) liquids and solid materials that melt, e.g. plastics, fuels, oils, etc.,

b) flammable gases,c) metals, e.g. magnesium, sodium, potassium, aluminum, titanium, etc..

94. Group C fires concern:

a) solid bodies,b) flammable liquids,

c) gases, e.g. methane, propane, acetylene, hydrogen.

Question 95 - illustration

95. Seeing such a pictogram you are informed about:

a) a larger number of people in a given area,b) a danger zone,

c) a gathering place during evacuation.

Question 96 - illustration

96. During work, you noticed a sign marked 'Zone 0'. It informs about:

a) a zone of a specific fire hazard category,b) a zone of existing fire load in the building,

c) a space where an explosive atmosphere exists.

Question 97 - illustration

97. The presented pictogram informs about:

a) the main power switch,

b) a set of fire protection equipment,

c) an internal hydrant.
Question 98 - illustration

98. Seeing such a pictogram, you are informed about:

a) the assembly point during evacuation,

b) the emergency exit,

c) the location of first aid.
Question 99 - illustration

99. Seeing such a pictogram, you are informed about:

a) the prohibition of using the fire extinguisher,

b) the location of the fire extinguisher,

c) the high temperature affecting the fire extinguisher.

100. You see a person whose clothing is on fire and who is fleeing in panic. Your reaction is:

a) you wave your arms or outer garment strongly next to him to extinguish the burning clothing,b) you tell him to wait in an upright position for the arrival of rescue services,

c) you try to stop him, lay him on the ground, and start extinguishing.

101. Electrical devices and installations can be extinguished using:

a) foam extinguishers,b) water,

c) powder or snow extinguishers.

102. Burning fuel can be extinguished using:

a) water,

b) powder, foam or snow extinguishers,

c) low-octane ethylene.

103. Clothing burning on a person can be extinguished using:

a) water mist extinguisher or fire blanket,

b) plastic material,c) snow or powder extinguisher.

104. What obligations does an employee have when they decide to refrain from work due to health and safety regulations?

a) They must immediately notify their supervisor,

b) They should organize work for others,c) They have no obligations in this situation.

105. How can an operator prevent hazards in the workplace?

a) By ignoring health and safety rules,b) By not reporting faults in machines,

c) By using personal protective equipment to minimize risk.

106. Which of the following situations is prohibited while operating a machine?

a) Working near machines with appropriate signage,b) Reporting machine faults at regular intervals,

c) Carrying loads over people.

107. It is not permissible to position the workplace directly under active overhead power lines or at a horizontal distance from the outermost conductors of less than:

a) for lines: 1 [kV] - 1 [m], 15 [kV] - 3 [m], 30 [kV] - 5 [m], 110 [kV] - 10 [m],

b) for lines: 1 [kV] - 3 [m], 15 [kV] - 5 [m], 30 [kV] - 10 [m], 110 [kV] - 15 [m], 400 [kV] - 30 [m],

c) for all voltages - 1 [m] from the power line.

108. How does the operator know what personal protective equipment is required for a given machine/technical device?

a) Information about the necessary personal protective equipment is included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine,

b) The choice of personal protective equipment depends on the opinion of colleagues at work,c) The operator must independently choose the appropriate protective measures.

109. The operator should refuse to perform a task when:

a) the work requires familiarization with the location of underground and above-ground utilities,b) the work is being performed at night,

c) the work is inconsistent with the intended use of the machine/technical device.

110. The operator can prevent hazards while operating a machine/technical device by:

a) inattention and routine,b) limiting the use of personal protective equipment,

c) following health and safety rules and adhering to the operating instructions.

111. Which of the following situations is unacceptable during the use of a machine/technical device?

a) The presence of unauthorized persons in the danger zone caused by the operation of the machine/technical device,

b) Reporting faults directly to the supervisor,c) Operating the machine without supervision.

112. An accident at work is considered to be:

a) a sudden event related to the work performed, caused by an external factor, resulting in injury or death,

b) a prolonged event related to the work performed, caused by an internal factor, resulting in equipment damage,c) a sudden event unrelated to the work performed, caused by an external factor, resulting in injury or death.

113. A fatal accident at work is considered to be an accident in which death occurred:

a) more than 6 months after the date of the accident,

b) within 6 months from the date of the accident,

c) only at the moment of the accident.

114. It is prohibited to:

a) report noticed faults to the supervisor before starting work,b) undertake work with the machine after completing training and obtaining the appropriate qualifications,

c) allow unauthorized persons within the reach of the machine's operation and work on slopes exceeding the permissible incline.

115. When getting on and off the machine, it is prohibited to:

a) face the machine while getting on and off,

b) use the control lever as support,

c) intensively use the handrails and steps.

116. Occupational health and safety regulations require:

a) securing the working machine during breaks in its operation against accidental activation by unauthorized persons,

b) performing a warranty inspection of the working machine before the end of one year from its purchase,c) scrapping the old working machine within the time specified in its operating and maintenance manual, while adhering to the requirements for the disposal of hazardous materials.

117. In the event of a person being electrocuted:

a) resuscitation should be started immediately, regardless of whether the power source has been disconnected,

b) do not touch the victim until the power source has been disconnected,

c) it is recommended to use any tools to disconnect the power, regardless of their actual purpose.

118. In the event of a person being buried under earth or sand:

a) always wait calmly for rescue services - any attempt to help would be too dangerous,

b) the person should be dug out as quickly as possible, if it is safe for the person undertaking the rescue action,

c) the person should be dug out as quickly as possible regardless of one's own safety - it's about their life.

119. Seeing a person whose clothes are on fire, the first thing to do is:

a) leave the victim standing to facilitate air access and extinguish the flames more quickly,b) use a fire extinguisher, preferably a snow extinguisher, to extinguish the burning clothing, and then try to quickly tear off the melted clothing,

c) cut off the air supply by rolling the victim or wrapping them in a fire blanket, wet clothing, or a wet blanket.

120. If during earthworks, objects difficult to identify are discovered, then:

a) further work is stopped and the person supervising the earthworks is notified,

b) a danger zone with a radius of 6 [m] should be designated, outside of which normal work can continue,c) earthworks can continue if a distance of at least 1 [m] is maintained from such an object.

121. In the case of finding an unexploded ordnance during earthworks, one should:

a) try to carefully remove the unexploded ordnance from the work site and continue working,

b) stop work, remove other workers from the danger zone, notify supervisors, and secure the area,

c) ignore the unexploded ordnance if it does not pose a direct threat.

122. The wedge of soil collapse:

a) occurs only when the soil is in a frozen state,

b) occurs when the slope of the embankment exceeds the angle of the natural slope of the soil,

c) is the area around the working machine extending a distance of 6 [m] beyond its farthest reach.

123. The reach of the soil collapse wedge:

a) depends on the speed of the machine's operation and the efficiency of the operator,

b) depends on the depth of the excavation and the category of the soil,

c) depends solely on the temperature of the soil.

124. The angle of the natural slope is:

a) the angle at which the machine can be safely operated - it depends on the parameters of the given machine,b) the angle at which the soil will definitely collapse by itself - it depends solely on the temperature of that soil,

c) the maximum slope at which the soil can remain without collapsing - it depends, among other things, on the category of the soil.

125. The wedge of soil collapse:

a) is the zone where the soil becomes unstable - its reach depends solely on the depth of the excavation, the type of soil does not matter here,

b) occurs when the slope of the embankment exceeds the angle of the natural slope of the soil - its reach depends on the type of soil and the depth of the excavation or the height of the embankment,

c) is the space around the machine, dependent on the speed of the machine's operation and its weight.

126. The angle of a natural slope is:

a) the angle at which a machine can safely move on an embankment, regardless of the soil category,b) the slope at which any bank becomes unstable, regardless of the type of soil,

c) the maximum slope at which soil can remain without sliding - it depends on the type of soil, e.g. moisture, cohesiveness, and grain size.

127. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is performed:

a) only in the case of fainting and minor injuries, to improve blood circulation,

b) when the injured person is not breathing and there is no detectable pulse. For a non-professional rescuer, the absence of breathing is a sufficient basis to start resuscitation,

c) when the injured person is breathing but is unconscious and there is no contact with them.

128. An employee has the right to refrain from performing work due to health and safety regulations, notifying their supervisor immediately when:

a) the working conditions do not pose a threat, but are too difficult for them,b) the work they are performing has not been reported to the construction supervision,

c) the working conditions pose a direct threat to health or life.

129. Physical factors generating hazards in the workplace are:

a) lack of appropriate medical examinations for the employee,b) lack of or improper training for employees,

c) spilled lubricants, oils, and fuels.

130. Working with a machine/technical device is not allowed when:

a) the second operator has not reported an upcoming inspection,b) its repair was carried out after dark,

c) it is malfunctioning.

131. Work near overhead power lines:

a) is possible without meeting additional requirements provided that certain distances depending on the rated voltage of the line are maintained,

b) always requires the power in the line to be turned off,c) always requires double grounding of the line.

132. The operator is obliged to refuse to work if:

a) they would have to work under power lines, and the voltage in them has been turned off and the line grounded,

b) the working machine is defective,

c) there is no construction manager or any other person authorized to supervise at the work site.

133. The danger zone from a machine/technical device is:

a) a place where there are threats to the health or life of people,

b) a place where the machine/technical device cannot be used,c) always the entire fenced construction site.

134. Accidents at work can result from the poor technical condition of the working machine, for example:

a) injury to a limb, torso, or head,

b) failure of the drive system,c) damage to the equipment.

135. Unacceptable behaviors are:

a) performing daily maintenance of the machine after dark,b) working after dark in a well-lit place, with full concentration of the operator,

c) operating a defective machine and working under the influence of alcohol.

136. General rules for safely getting on and off a machine are:

a) using cables and levers as aids when getting on is permissible when the machine is turned off,

b) a person should face the machine, remember the "three-point support" principle, and use only specially made steps and handrails,

c) you can descend backwards to the machine, but only when the steps are slippery.

137. Basic employee responsibilities regarding occupational health and safety are:

a) adhering to health and safety regulations and rules, taking care of the condition of machines and tools, and maintaining order in the workplace, using personal protective equipment,

b) enforcing labor code regulations regarding their rights, including payment for overtime worked,c) not being late for work, finishing on time, confirming presence at work in the manner accepted by the employer.

138. In the case of a person electrocuted, after disconnecting the power source, one should:

a) leave the victim alone if they have regained consciousness, without further actions,

b) check the condition of the victim, and if necessary: call for help, clear the airways, perform resuscitation, and use an AED if available,

c) move the victim to another location as quickly as possible.

139. When a person buried under earth or sand is partially dug out, one should:

a) quickly dig out the left hand to check for a pulse,

b) quickly clear the airways,

c) focus on digging out the lower parts of the victim's body.

140. After extinguishing flames on a person with burns and calling for help, one should:

a) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes, previously removing any melted clothing,

b) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes, without removing any melted clothing,

c) use a snow extinguisher to cool the burn area.

141. The statement: "The operator's qualifications for the machine you are taking the exam for are sufficient to operate such a machine on public roads" is:

a) true,

b) false,

c) true, but only under normal air transparency conditions.
Question 142 - illustration

142. Seeing such a pictogram you are informed about:

a) a place where a first aid kit is available,

b) a place where an external automatic defibrillator is available,

c) a place for performing AED.

143. Properly performed cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) consists of:

a) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 30-60 times per minute to a depth of 1–3 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 15 compressions (breaths are mandatory),b) connecting the external automatic defibrillator (AED) and following its instructions; CPR is not performed without AED,

c) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 100-120 times per minute to a depth of 5–6 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 30 compressions (breaths are not mandatory).

144. Material must not be stored in the danger zone of the natural slope of the ground:

a) when the excavation is deeper than 1.5 [m] regardless of its support,

b) when the walls of the excavation are unshored,

c) always when the soil is sandy.

145. The abbreviation IBWR stands for:

a) Instruction for Non-Failure Execution of Works,

b) Instruction for Safe Execution of Works,

c) Instruction for Non-Failure Execution of Works.

146. Expand the abbreviation IBWR:

a) Implementation of Failure-Free Work Execution,b) Information on Safe Work Execution,

c) Instruction for Safe Work Execution.

147. The Instruction for Safe Execution of Construction Works is:

a) a document containing information regarding safety on the construction site,

b) a document confirming qualifications for operating machines and technical devices in earthworks, construction, and road works,c) a road plan in construction works.

148. BIOZ plan means:

a) Health and Safety Plan,

b) Safety and Resource Specification Plan,c) Safe Health Protection Instruction Plan.

149. When driving a machine for earthworks on a public road, the operator must:

a) only have qualifications for the specific earthworks machine, there are no additional requirements,

b) have a driver's license of the appropriate category, operator qualifications for the specific machine, and liability insurance,

c) be at least 20 years old and have operator qualifications for the specific earthworks machine.
Question 150 - illustration

150. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:

a) 1 [m],

b) 1.6 [m],c) 4 [m].
Question 151 - illustration

151. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:

a) 1.6 [m],

b) 1.5 [m],

c) 1 [m].
Question 152 - illustration

152. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:

a) 1.6 [m],b) 1 [m],

c) 0.5 [m].

Question 153 - illustration

153. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:

a) 1.6 [m],b) 2 [m],

c) 1 [m].

Question 154 - illustration

154. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:

a) 2 [m],

b) 1.6 [m],c) 1 [m].
Question 155 - illustration

155. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:

a) 3 [m],

b) 1 [m],c) 2 [m].
Question 156 - illustration

156. The reach of the wedge of the block for an excavation with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:

a) 3 [m],

b) 4 [m],

c) 2.6 [m].
Question 157 - illustration

157. The safe distance that the machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:

a) 1 [m],

b) 1.6 [m],

c) 2.6 [m].
Question 158 - illustration

158. The safe distance that the machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:

a) 6.6 [m],b) 3.6 [m],

c) 2.1 [m].

Question 159 - illustration

159. The safe distance that the machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:

a) 4.6 [m],

b) 2.6 [m],

c) 2 [m].
Question 160 - illustration

160. The safe distance that the machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:

a) 2 [m],b) 2.6 [m],

c) 1.1 [m].

Question 161 - illustration

161. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category III (cracked rocks) is:

a) 1.6 [m],

b) 2.6 [m],c) 2 [m].
Question 162 - illustration

162. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category III (cracked rocks) is:

a) 2 [m],b) 4.6 [m],

c) 2.6 [m].

Question 163 - illustration

163. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category III (cracked rocks) is:

a) 2.1 [m],

b) 3.6 [m],

c) 3 [m].
Question 164 - illustration

164. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category III (cracked rocks) is:

a) 4.6 [m],

b) 2.6 [m],c) 4 [m].

165. Traffic safety devices used in roadworks conducted in the road strip may be colored:

a) white, red, yellow, and black,

b) red, yellow-red, blue,c) white, green, blue.

166. Traffic safety devices used to secure and mark the work site in the road lane should be visible:

a) during the day and at night,

b) only during the day,c) only at night.

167. Fencing with warning tape is permissible only for excavations up to a depth of:

a) 1.0 [m],b) 1.2 [m],

c) 0.5 [m].

168. In the case of providing pedestrians with a passage over excavations during work in the road lane, pedestrian walkways with a handrail height of should be used:

a) 1.0 [m],

b) at least 1.1 [m],

c) 0.9 [m].

169. In the case of the necessity to provide pedestrians with a passage over excavations during work in the road lane, pedestrian walkways with a width of should be used:

a) at least 1.0 [m],

b) no greater than 1 [m],c) from 0.8 [m] to 1.0 [m].

170. During excavations in places accessible to persons not employed in these works, excavations should be secured at dusk and at night by:

a) warning tapes in white and red and orange warning lights,

b) railings equipped with red warning lights,

c) warning tapes in white and red and warning cones.

171. Guardrails for protective barriers around excavations in areas accessible to persons not employed in these works should be located at a distance:

a) not less than 1.0 [m] from the edge of the uncovered excavation,

b) not less than 1.0 [m] from the axis of the uncovered excavation,c) equal to at least the depth of the excavation from the edge of the uncovered excavation.

172. In a situation of danger, when the cabin door cannot be opened:

a) the emergency exit provided by the manufacturer should be used,

b) the space after removing the floor panel can be used as an emergency exit,c) the cabin must not be exited until help arrives.

173. In the event of mechanical damage to the FOPS/ROPS cabin (e.g., denting of a cabin element) the operator:

a) should stop work and report the failure to the supervisor or the person responsible for machines in the company,

b) can continue working if the cabin windows are intact,c) can repair the damage on their own without wasting time on downtime.

174. In the event of mechanical damage to the FOPS/ROPS cabin (e.g., denting of a cabin element) the operator:

a) can always repair such damage on their own,

b) cannot repair such damage on their own,

c) can repair such damage on their own, but only based on the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine.

175. If the seat belt is damaged, one should:

a) exercise special caution while performing work,b) continue working and report the problem after finishing work,

c) report the damage and not start work until the belt is repaired or replaced.

176. The operator must wear a safety helmet when:

a) working in a machine not equipped with a closed cabin,

b) working on demolition tasks using long booms,c) frequently leaning out of the cabin while working.

177. You should enter and exit the machine:

a) facing the machine, maintaining three points of contact,

b) entering sideways while being careful of the devices in the cabin,c) backwards to the machine, using a three-step ladder.

178. Prohibited activities during the operation and servicing of a machine or technical device include:

a) using machines on rocky ground during heavy rain,b) operating machines with safety or signaling devices,

c) operating machines by individuals without the appropriate qualifications.

179. Visible underground infrastructure devices that provide initial insight into their layout are most often:

a) hydrant boxes, water shut-off boxes, manhole covers,

b) abandoned road frames where they pass through,c) graphic symbols marked on the road surface.

180. A construction excavation characterized by a width S ≤ 1.5 [m] and a length L>1.5 [m] is:

a) narrow excavation,

b) pit excavation,c) wide excavation.

181. The operator can work, without the need for prior loosening, in soil:

a) category V-VIII,

b) category I,

c) all categories above IV.

182. The minimum distance from the edge of the excavation with supported walls, in which spoil can be stored is:

a) directly at the edge of the excavation, if the soil is dry,

b) 0.6 [m] from the edge of the excavation, if the spoil load has been taken into account in the selection of the support,

c) 0.3 [m] from the edge of the excavation, without additional conditions.

183. A control excavation is:

a) an excavation carried out for the purpose of measuring the parameters of a construction machine,b) an excavation carried out solely to check the quality of the soil,

c) an excavation carried out to determine the actual course of underground installations.

184. Examples of work classified as preparatory work before starting earthworks may include:

a) preparing the area by removing obstacles, performing control trenches, and marking out the construction,

b) daily operation of construction machines and technical devices,c) purchasing and storing materials and tools necessary for the work.

185. Humus is:

a) a deeper layer of soil, usually reaching a thickness of up to 1 [m],

b) the outer layer of soil rich in humus,

c) a mineral used for stabilizing the substrate.

186. The basic methods of dewatering excavations are:

a) mechanical dewatering, natural dewatering, surface dewatering,

b) surface dewatering, deep dewatering, encircling drainage,

c) water extraction by pumping, manual drying.

187. When carrying out the unloading cycle, the operator should start lifting the loading equipment:

a) when approaching the transport vehicle or heap,

b) before making the last sharp turn with the machine,c) immediately after starting to drive to the unloading site to reduce rolling resistance.

188. Soils, according to the degree of difficulty in their detachment, are divided into:

a) 10 categories,b) 4 categories,

c) 16 categories.

189. The frontal method of performing an excavation with a machine equipped with a bucket is used:

a) when the machine works sideways along the edge of the excavation,

b) when the machine is positioned along the axis of the excavation and the excavation is performed linearly,

c) when the excavation is cylindrical in shape and has a depth of more than 1.5 [m].

190. The machine operator should know the category of soil on which they are working:

a) to calculate the safe distance for positioning the machine and the reach of the failure wedge,

b) to know the requirements for servicing the machine's chassis,c) to be able to assess the depth of the excavation.

191. During the loading of the material onto the vehicle, the operator:

a) can drop the material onto the transport from any convenient height,b) can move the bucket with the material over the vehicle's cabin if it speeds up the loading,

c) should not move the bucket with the material over the vehicle's cabin.

192. The recommended tools for performing a test excavation near electrical installations are:

a) only an excavator with standard equipment,

b) hand tools, preferably insulated,

c) any mechanical tools without depth restrictions.

193. An example of work classified as preparatory work for earthworks is:

a) installation of lighting devices and marking places for heavy machines,

b) performing test trenches, removing trees and shrubs, marking buildings on the site,

c) laying asphalt pavement and installing fences.

194. Removing humus is:

a) work performed always after the completion of construction works,b) the main stage of earthworks,

c) one of the stages of preparatory works.

195. Subsurface drainage involves:

a) lowering the groundwater level using depression wells or filter points,

b) pumping water from the bottom level of the excavation,c) digging trenches around the excavation.

196. The loader's bucket during the transport of material to the unloading site should be:

a) fully lowered to ensure driving stability,

b) closed and raised to a height of about 30-50 [cm],

c) maximally raised to increase visibility.

197. Creating a level surface of a given shape or profile is:

a) soil compaction,

b) land profiling,

c) land leveling.

198. The main purpose of land leveling is:

a) to give the surface a specific shape,b) to compact the soil surface,

c) to create a flat, usually horizontal surface.

199. The term: "performance of a machine for earthworks" refers to:

a) the effect of the machine's work over a unit of time,

b) the amount of fuel consumed by the machine per hour of operation,c) the level of engine load during the machine's operation over a unit of time.

200. The performance of a machine for earthworks can be expressed:

a) in pressure units [bar] or temperature [°C],b) in speed or revolutions per unit of time e.g. [km/h], [rpm], [rev/s],

c) in volume or mass units per unit of time e.g. [m³/h], [t/h].

201. During the loading of large rock fragments onto the vehicle, a cushioning layer of rubble or sand should be used to:

a) balance the vehicle's load and improve its stability,

b) prevent the movement of stones and minimize the risk of damage to the cargo box,

c) speed up the later unloading of stones.

202. When loading large stones onto the vehicle, one should remember to:

a) place a cushioning layer of sand or rubble at the bottom of the cargo box before loading the stones,

b) drop stones from a great height to fit them into the sand or rubble spread at the bottom,c) load stones directly onto the empty bottom of the box and cover them with sand or rubble for stabilization.

203. Construction excavations are divided into:

a) narrow-space, wide-space, and cavity,

b) underground, above-ground, and intermediate,c) small, medium, and deep.

204. An excavation is classified as wide-space when:

a) its width exceeds 1.5 [m], and its length is greater than 1.5 [m],

b) its depth exceeds 2 [m] regardless of length,c) its width is 1 [m], and its length and depth are greater than 1.5 [m].

205. Pictograms that the operator should check before moving heavy objects refer to:

a) the maximum speed of the machine,

b) the maximum permissible loads for different positions of the machine,

c) the operating time of the machine on one tank of fuel.

206. When working with a hydraulic hammer, you should:

a) adjust the engine speed to typical - just like during standard work with excavator attachments,

b) increase the engine speed to maximum, which will lower the oil temperature and positively affect the hammer components,c) increase the engine speed to maximum, which will increase the crushing force.

207. Before starting work with a hydraulic hammer, you should:

a) warm up the machine and hydraulic system so that the oil reaches the required temperature,

b) perform proper daily maintenance and immediately proceed to work with the technical device,c) briefly check the operation of the device by working "dry" to warm up the tip.

208. For precise linear excavations in demanding terrain conditions, it is recommended to use:

a) a perforated bucket,

b) a bucket that is about 40 [%] smaller in width than the nominal,

c) a wide bucket to minimize the excavation time.

209. The operator during the vehicle loading cycle should:

a) fill the working container only halfway to avoid overload,b) avoid looking back while reversing the machine to constantly observe the material,

c) make smooth movements with the attachment and not move the working tool over the operator's cabin.

210. The soil obtained from the excavation is called a deposit:

a) regardless of future use,

b) when it is stored for later, e.g., for backfilling the excavation,

c) when it is used for soil compaction.

211. If the machine is equipped with a hydraulic quick coupler to which the working equipment is connected, it is necessary to:

a) periodically replace the quick coupler, at least once a month,b) check the quick coupler only when a leak appears at the connection,

c) check the condition of the quick coupler and its connection to the working equipment daily.

212. When excavating a high slope with a loader, the operator should remember that:

a) the height of the slope affects the efficiency of the loader's work,b) changing the working speed can lead to problems with overhangs,

c) a slope height greater than the maximum cutting height of the machine can lead to the formation of overhangs.

213. The operator's actions that increase the risk of overhangs during slope excavation are:

a) working at a slope lower than the maximum cutting height of the machine,b) using a machine with too little power,

c) incorrect order of passes during slope excavation.

214. It is possible to operate the machine with the cabin doors open:

a) always,

b) only if the operating and maintenance manual of the machine allows for such a possibility,

c) only when the air temperature exceeds 25 [°C].

215. The value of the maximum loads that can be lifted by the machine can be determined by the operator:

a) based on the operating and maintenance manual,

b) through trial lifting,c) based on information on the welded hook.

216. Disconnecting the working equipment with hydraulic drive from the quick coupler is related to:

a) zeroing the hydraulic system,

b) bleeding the hydraulic system,c) relieving pressure from the central lubrication system.

217. Performing earthworks with excavator equipment using the bucket and the auger with the same machine is possible due to:

a) replacing the working arm of the working system,b) replacing the actual working tool,

c) rotating-tilting heads.

218. For the installation of rotating-tilting heads in the excavator working system, it is necessary to:

a) install an additional tank with hydraulic oil,b) equip the boom arm with a reduction,

c) equip the machine with additional free hydraulic lines.

219. The "floating" bucket/blade system:

a) allows the machine to move smoothly on slopes,b) protects the equipment from loss during drainage works,

c) operates on the principle of automatic adjustment to the terrain, which is possible thanks to a special hydraulic system.

220. The type of interchangeable working equipment used depends on whether:

a) the equipment is approved for use by the machine manufacturer,

b) the machine has undergone a periodic inspection,c) the equipment has a CE certificate.

221. The course of underground land development must be marked before the work begins in order to:

a) save time and reduce earthwork costs,b) enable quick movement of machines in any direction,

c) avoid the risk of damaging the network during work.

222. Which of the listed elements are not part of the hydraulic system:

a) hydraulic lock, hydraulic oil tank,b) pump, distributor, actuator,

c) starter, alternator.

223. The hydraulic lock in a machine is:

a) a valve that protects against uncontrolled movement of the element in a given line,

b) the closure of the hydraulic oil inlet at its tank,c) a valve responsible for controlling the entire hydraulic system.

224. The change in hydraulic oil pressure into mechanical movement is caused by:

a) the hydraulic pump system,b) hydraulic distributor,

c) hydraulic actuator and hydraulic motor.

225. The pressure in the hydraulic system is generated by:

a) hydraulic actuator,

b) hydraulic pump,

c) hydraulic motor.

226. The control of hydraulic oil flow to individual systems is carried out by:

a) hydraulic distributor,

b) relief valve,c) hydraulic lock.

227. The safety valve protects the hydraulic system from:

a) excessive pressure increase,

b) air in the hydraulic system,c) overheating of hydraulic oil.

228. The relief valve in the hydraulic system is responsible for:

a) maintaining a constant position of the working tool,

b) limiting the maximum working pressure in a given circuit,

c) venting the system.

229. If the pressure in the hydraulic system increases excessively, the excess oil will be directed to:

a) hydraulic oil tank,

b) distributor,c) hydraulic oil filter.

230. The basic parameters that characterize an electric accumulator are:

a) rated voltage [V], capacity [Ah], starting current [A],

b) rated voltage [V], power [W], mass [kg],c) rated voltage [V], resistance [Ω], power [W].

231. Lead-acid batteries can be charged:

a) in any room,b) only in an air-conditioned room,

c) in a place specifically designated for this purpose.

232. The pressure in the tires should be adjusted to:

a) the requirements of the landowner,

b) the values given in the operating and maintenance manual,

c) the preferences of the operator.

233. Uneven tire pressure:

a) reduces the stability of the machine,

b) improves the driving characteristics of the machine,c) does not affect the operation of the machine.

234. In a working machine, the reduction gear is most often located:

a) in the drive system near the driving wheels,

b) in the operator's cabin, near the driving controller,c) in the hydraulic system, close to the main pump.

235. The hydraulic distributor:

a) directs the flow of hydraulic oil to the appropriate sections,

b) converts mechanical energy into hydraulic energy,c) increases the torque in the side transmission.

236. The hydraulic distributor is a technical device that:

a) distributes oil between the engine and the hydraulic system,b) distributes oil between the small circuit and the large circuit,

c) allows control of individual hydraulic sections of the machine.

237. The ROPS cabin in construction machines protects the operator from:

a) crushing in the event of the machine overturning,

b) being hit by falling objects from above,c) dust in the operator's cabin.

238. The FOPS cabin in construction machines protects the operator from:

a) being hit by falling objects from above,

b) crushing in the event of the machine overturning,c) excessive noise in the operator's cabin.

239. The ROPS cabin in construction machines protects against:

a) the machine overturning,b) the machine falling from a slope and rolling over,

c) crushing the operator in the event of the machine overturning.

240. The difference between the ROPS cabin and the FOPS cabin is that:

a) the ROPS cabin protects against noise, while the FOPS protects against the machine overturning,

b) the ROPS cabin protects against crushing, while the FOPS protects against falling objects from above,

c) the ROPS cabin protects against falling objects from above, while the FOPS protects against crushing.

241. The basic condition for ROPS and FOPS cabins to provide effective protection to the operator is:

a) fastening the seat belts by the operator,

b) regular maintenance of the cabin,c) lubricating the cabin joints at least once a week.

242. The differential mechanism:

a) allows for the differentiation of the rotational speed of the drive wheels working on one axle,

b) allows for an increase in speed on straight sections,c) regulates the flow of fluids in the differential system.

243. The differential mechanism without the lock engaged:

a) allows the wheels working on one axle to rotate at different speeds,

b) does not differentiate the rotational speed of the wheels,c) causes the wheels working on one axle to rotate at the same speed.

244. Joints in drive systems serve to:

a) stabilize the machine on uneven terrain,

b) transmit torque between shafts with inclined axes,

c) reduce the rotational speed of the wheels.

245. The operation of cross joints in drive systems consists of:

a) keeping them clean and regularly lubricated,

b) checking the oil level in the joints as part of daily technical maintenance,c) daily checking of clearances.

246. The term body in earthmoving machines refers to:

a) the base of the machine,b) the upper part of the machine with the drive system,

c) the upper part of the machine.

247. The responsibility for lifting and lowering the entire excavator equipment lies with:

a) the arm cylinder,

b) the boom cylinder,

c) the bucket cylinder.

248. The responsibility for lifting and lowering the bucket in the loader equipment lies with:

a) the bucket cylinder,b) the straightening mechanism,

c) the boom cylinder.

249. The bucket cylinder in the working system of the loader:

a) allows the working tool to move,

b) allows lifting and lowering the boom,c) equalizes the pressure in the hydraulic system.

250. The hydrokinetic transmission (torque converter) in the drive system of the machine:

a) smoothly increases the torque as the load increases,

b) allows manual control of the torque transmitted to the drive wheels,c) smoothly decreases the torque as the load increases.

251. For smooth torque increase, depending on the load, is responsible for:

a) drive shaft with joints,b) mechanical gearbox,

c) hydrokinetic transmission.

252. The bucket with side discharge in backhoe loaders is intended for:

a) normal loading work,

b) precise unloading of material to the side of the machine,

c) leveling the ground during excavations.

253. The hydraulic quick coupler in the machine:

a) facilitates quick and safe connection of the hydraulic drive of interchangeable equipment,

b) increases the pressure force of the bucket on the material,c) strengthens the connection between the arm and the equipment.

254. The elements of the machine that occur in both excavator and loader equipment are:

a) boom, bucket, hydraulic hoses,

b) arm, arm cylinder,c) loader straightening system, tool rotor.

255. Reduction of speed while simultaneously increasing the torque transmitted to the drive wheels is achieved by:

a) wet brakes,

b) planetary gears,

c) hydraulic distributor.

256. The differential mechanism allows the transfer of torque to the wheels:

a) ensuring they rotate at the same speeds,

b) while the wheels rotate at different speeds,

c) of two different axles.

257. In vehicles with a differential mechanism when turning:

a) the inner wheel rotates slower than the outer wheel,

b) the load is transferred solely to the inner wheel,c) the inner wheel rotates faster than the outer wheel.

258. Damage to the ROPS frame resulting in the need for replacement includes:

a) cracking or bending of the structure,

b) discoloration of the paint caused by weather conditions and the passage of time,c) minor surface scratches.

259. Drilling additional holes in the ROPS cabin structure is prohibited because:

a) it reduces the weight of the machine,b) it lowers the operator's comfort,

c) it causes a decrease in the strength of the structure.

260. The flow and direction of hydraulic fluid in the system are regulated by:

a) hydraulic motors,b) hydraulic pumps,

c) hydraulic valves.

261. System elements, such as actuators and hydraulic motors, convert hydraulic energy into:

a) electrical energy,b) pressure in the tank,

c) mechanical energy.

262. The wheelbase of a backhoe loader affects:

a) the stability of the machine when working with heavy loads,

b) the maximum speed on a paved road,c) the ability to reduce the turning radius.

263. The ground clearance in a backhoe loader determines:

a) the height to which the loader bucket can be raised,

b) the ability to move over rough terrain,

c) the maximum digging depth.

264. The function of the FOPS protective structure is:

a) to protect the operator from the effects of the machine overturning,

b) to protect the operator from falling objects,

c) to protect the operator from the effects of exhaust fumes and noise.

265. The FOPS protective structure must be used when:

a) performing underwater work,b) all earthworks,

c) performing work where heavy elements may fall on the cabin (e.g., demolition work, in quarries, etc.).

266. In a machine equipped with a ROPS or FOPS protective structure, there must be an additional safety system used by the operator, which is:

a) protective footwear, hearing protectors, respiratory protection,b) protective helmet, protective footwear,

c) seat belts.

267. The ROPS protective structure in a machine:

a) is always required,

b) is not required when only qualified machine operators are employed,c) is not required when it is not technically possible, and there is a low risk of the machine overturning (possibility of support with a boom).

268. Optimal shock and vibration damping of the operator's seat is achieved by:

a) setting the seat rigidly,

b) adjusting the seat to the weight of the operator,

c) as flexible adjustment of the seat as possible.

269. The control panel for locking the working tool, when the machine is equipped with a quick-change device with hydraulic locking, is equipped with:

a) protection against excessive engine speed,b) 16-amp overload protection,

c) protection against unintentional activation of the control panel.

270. Protective equipment that a machine must have during demolition work is:

a) a signal lamp and white-red-white safety stickers,b) a device warning against overload and protection against cable breakage on the boom,

c) a protective canopy – FOPS cabin.

271. The mandatory equipment used for the operator to observe the area directly behind the machine is:

a) sound signal when reversing,

b) external mirror,

c) rear camera.

272. Together with the operator in the machine's cabin, other people can ride if:

a) they have undergone health and safety training with the operator and there are a maximum of 2 people,b) the machine is moving at a low speed,

c) the manufacturer has installed an additional seat.

273. The most important element of the operator's cabin equipment from the perspective of his safety is:

a) mirror or camera,

b) seat belt,

c) emergency STOP button.

274. Mirrors and the rear camera in the machine are used for:

a) checking the technical condition of the machine,b) facilitating the maneuvering of the working equipment,

c) improving the operator's visibility and increasing safety.

275. In ROPS-type cabins, additional equipment such as phone holders can be installed independently:

a) remembering that installation is only possible on the cabin posts,

b) provided that there is no interference with the cabin structure,

c) but this equipment must be permanently screwed to the cabin structure.

276. In machines that do not have closed cabins, ROPS protection can be implemented using:

a) additional barriers mounted on the machine's body,

b) rollover protection bars,

c) machine stabilization or ballasting system.

277. A green flashing light placed on the machine's cabin signals, among other things:

a) no operator in the cabin,

b) proper fastening of the seat belts,

c) the machine's eco mode is activated.

278. In a parallel connection of two identical batteries, the voltage of such a system is:

a) equal to the voltage of a single battery,

b) the sum of the voltages of the individual batteries,c) the product of the voltages of the individual batteries.

279. In a series connection of two identical batteries, the voltage of such a system is:

a) the product of the voltages of the individual batteries,b) equal to the voltage of a single battery,

c) the sum of the voltages of the individual batteries.

280. Fuses in the machine's electrical installation protect it against the effects of:

a) high temperature,

b) short circuits and overloads,

c) low voltage.

281. One of the elements of the electrical system protecting the motor from seizing is:

a) speed controller,

b) engine oil pressure sensor,

c) main fuse.

282. Gel batteries, which are elements of the electrical system, do not require:

a) replacement in case of housing damage,

b) electrolyte replenishment,

c) charging with a rectifier.

283. Electrical systems of machines and technical devices should be equipped with a device that causes emergency stop in at least the quantity of:

a) one device causing emergency stop, in accordance with the European machinery directive,

b) three devices causing emergency stop, in accordance with the European machinery directive,c) two devices causing emergency stop placed on both sides of the machine, in accordance with the European machinery directive.

284. The emergency stop device of the machine is an element of:

a) fuel system,

b) electrical system,

c) drive system.

285. The main parameters of the internal combustion engine affecting work efficiency are:

a) type of carburetor, type of ignition system,

b) torque, rotational speed,

c) compression ratio, displacement.

286. The crankshaft-piston system of the internal combustion engine is designed to:

a) convert mechanical energy into hydraulic energy,

b) convert the reciprocating motion of the piston into the rotational motion of the crankshaft,

c) ensure the effective operation of the clutch.

287. The lubrication system in the internal combustion engine:

a) is responsible for the proper lubrication of the moving parts of the engine that work together,

b) provides regulation of the rotational speed and reduces engine vibrations during operation,c) is responsible for removing hazardous substances produced in the combustion process of the mixture.

288. The engine timing system is used for:

a) controlling the filling of the combustion chamber with air or a fuel-air mixture and controlling the emptying of this chamber of exhaust gases,

b) damping noise and minimizing engine vibrations during operation,c) ensuring the optimal composition of the fuel-oil-air mixture for combustion.

289. Systems present in internal combustion engines include, among others:

a) exhaust system, pneumatic system, closed system,

b) crankshaft-piston system, fuel supply system, cooling system,

c) hydraulic system, intake system.

290. The low-pressure part of the fuel supply system of a diesel engine is:

a) fuel tank, supply pump, filters, fuel lines,

b) fuel lines, high-pressure pump, common rail,c) fuel tank and injectors.

291. The element controlling the flow of coolant in the so-called "large circuit" is:

a) thermocouple,b) hot water bottle,

c) thermostat.

292. An intercooler is:

a) a device for burning solid particles in exhaust gases,b) another name for the engine coolant radiator,

c) an air cooler for turbocharged engines.

293. DPF filter:

a) is used to reduce NOx (nitrogen oxides) emissions,b) is a precise cabin filter protecting the operator while working in high dust conditions,

c) is a dry particulate filter responsible for capturing soot from exhaust gases, among other things.

294. The frequency and scope of periodic maintenance of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam:

a) are included in the IBWR documentation,b) is determined by the owner of the machine/technical device,

c) are included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine.

295. The operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device is:

a) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device,

b) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device, which includes, among others, IBWR,c) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by health and safety services on the construction site.

296. The operator of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam must not:

a) check the technical condition of the machine/technical device during operation,b) make any repairs or maintenance,

c) use the machine/technical device for purposes other than intended.

297. When operating a machine with interchangeable attachments/working tools, the operator should:

a) follow only the instructions for operation and maintenance of the machine,b) follow only the instructions for operation and maintenance of the mounted attachment/working tool,

c) follow the instructions for operation and maintenance of the machine and the mounted attachment/working tool.

298. A symptom of too low a level of hydraulic oil may be:

a) loud operation of the starter,b) uneven operation of the diesel engine,

c) "jerky" intermittent movement of the hydraulic actuators.

299. In the event of detecting damage to the tires that may pose a threat, the operator should:

a) notify the supervisor and cautiously continue working,b) continue working while reducing the speed and load of the machine,

c) stop working.

300. If the warning light for too low engine oil pressure comes on, the operator:

a) does not need to take any action,

b) should stop working and turn off the engine,

c) may continue working if the hydraulic system is functioning properly.

301. The cause of the machine's instability may be:

a) driving on a hardened surface,b) operating the machine in the appropriate place for it,

c) too low tire pressure.

302. The cause of the machine's instability may be:

a) driving with the working tool lowered to the transport height,b) driving on a hardened surface,

c) driving with the working tool raised high.

303. The operating and maintenance manual for the machine/technical device:

a) includes, among other things, information about hazards when operating the machine/technical device,

b) is established by the owner or user of the machine,c) is used to record information about faults.

304. The CE Declaration of Conformity is a document:

a) issued by institutions that test machines for resistance to weather conditions,b) confirming that the product was manufactured in the countries of the European Union,

c) in which the manufacturer confirms that its product meets all applicable EU requirements regarding safety, health protection, and environmental protection.

305. Information regarding the use of personal protective equipment and ways to limit the occupational risk can be found by the operator:

a) in the CE Declaration of Conformity,

b) in the operating and maintenance manual for the machine/technical device,

c) in the service book.

306. The operating and maintenance instructions for the machine/technical device:

a) are developed by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device or the entity that introduces the machine/technical device to the market,

b) are created by institutions that conduct testing and accreditation of machine/technical device prototypes before allowing them for serial production,c) are created by the construction manager based on information from the manufacturer.

307. The operating and maintenance instructions for the machine/technical device:

a) should be located in the machine or with the technical device, treated as part of the machine/technical device, and be available at all times,

b) should be located in the office along with the company's documentation and be available in case of inspection,c) does not matter where it is located, the most important thing is that the owner of the machine has it in case of resale of the machine.

308. Identification data of the machine/technical device:

a) are located on the nameplate of the machine/technical device, additionally they may be in the marking places described in the instructions,

b) should be noted on the inner side of the protective helmet assigned to the given machine/technical device,c) due to their importance are always printed in red.

309. To minimize the risk of malfunction of the machine/technical device, the operator should:

a) perform maintenance activities only when the machine/technical device stops working,

b) regularly visually assess the condition of the machine/technical device and report any noticed irregularities,

c) use the machine/technical device until the failure becomes serious.

310. Key activities for the safe technical operation of the machine are:

a) performing technical service without securing the working equipment to save time,

b) securing the equipment, covers, and doors against accidental closure and using personal protective equipment,

c) using latex gloves, without the need for other personal protective equipment.

311. The rules for safely performing technical service on machines are:

a) the engine can remain on to expedite service, especially if the machine is idling,b) the machine can be left on sloped terrain, as long as the operator plans a short technical service,

c) the machine should be positioned on level ground, with working attachments lowered to the ground, the engine turned off, and the key removed from the ignition.

312. The operator of the backhoe loader after finishing work in water should:

a) clean and lubricate the joints and other components that come into contact with water to prevent corrosion and ensure the machine's continued efficiency,

b) check the water level and the formation and load-bearing capacity of the bottom,c) conduct only a visual inspection of the chassis.

313. Breaking in a machine during the initial period of operation is:

a) an intensive full-load test of the machine,

b) the process of achieving optimal clearances and even wear of parts,

c) a stage of the machine's operation without load.

314. During the break-in period, the operator should pay attention to:

a) operate at maximum load,

b) limit the machine's load to the level specified in the operating and maintenance manual,

c) always turn off the lubrication systems before working.

315. The operator uses the operating and maintenance manual of the machine or technical device to:

a) learn the technical specifications, safety rules, and methods for repairing faults,

b) record the hours worked and fuel consumption by the machine,c) document all faults of the machine or device noticed during operation.

316. The service part of the operating and maintenance manual for a machine or technical device includes:

a) a detailed description of the construction and operation of all elements of the machine/device,b) a catalog of spare parts,

c) instructions regarding, among others, the operation of the machine/device.

317. The operating and maintenance manual must always be present with the machine/device because:

a) it is essential for periodic technical inspections,

b) its absence may be the reason for the inspector not allowing the machine to operate,

c) it minimizes the risk of it being lost.

318. The basic service of hydraulic hoses in the working system of an excavator consists of:

a) visually checking their tightness and condition to prevent oil leaks,

b) daily tightening of hose connections to ensure their tightness,c) regular oil changes in the hoses.

319. The elements of the working system that require regular lubrication are:

a) the side surfaces of hydraulic cylinders,b) flexible hydraulic hoses,

c) pins connecting individual parts of the equipment.

320. When operating a machine equipped with a hydrokinetic transmission, long slippages should be avoided because:

a) they reduce the overall power transmitted to the drive system,

b) they cause excessive heating of the converter, which can lead to its damage,

c) they can cause leakage and oil spillage from the hydraulic system.

321. The SAE designation on oil refers to:

a) the multi-season qualification of the oil,

b) the viscosity of the engine oil, that is, its ability to flow and lubricate,

c) the pressure of the engine oil.

322. Oil with the SAE 15W-40 symbol means that:

a) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40,b) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 15W,

c) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 15W, and at positive temperatures of summer oil class SAE 40.

323. Oil with the SAE 10W-30 symbol means that:

a) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W, and at positive temperatures of summer oil class SAE 30,

b) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 30,c) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W.

324. The SAE 10W-30 symbol means:

a) a mixture of engine oil and hydraulic oil,

b) multi-season engine oil with specified parameters,

c) hydraulic oil with specified parameters.

325. Engine oil with the SAE 5W-40 symbol means that:

a) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 5W,

b) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 5W, and at positive temperatures of summer oil class SAE 40,

c) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40.
Question 326 - illustration

326. The symbol of the warning light presented in the graphic means:

a) low engine oil pressure,b) low coolant level,

c) low engine oil level.

Question 327 - illustration

327. The symbol of the warning light presented in the graphic means:

a) low engine oil pressure,

b) low fuel level,c) low coolant level.
Question 328 - illustration

328. The symbol of the light presented means:

a) hydraulic oil,b) engine oil filter,

c) engine oil.

Question 329 - illustration

329. The symbol of the light presented means:

a) hydraulic oil level,b) engine coolant level,

c) engine oil level.

330. Oils with designations 70W, 85W, 80W-90 are:

a) engine oils,b) brake oils,

c) gear oils.

331. Synthetic slides of the telescope can be lubricated with:

a) diesel oil,b) graphite grease,

c) teflon grease.

332. In the event of the need to dismantle the cover/protection for maintenance, one must not:

a) start working with the device without installing the cover/protection,

b) reinstall the cover/protection,c) record such a fact in the documentation.

333. The lighting of the battery charging indicator signals to the operator of the construction machine a failure of:

a) the battery switch,

b) the V-belt and/or alternator,

c) the starter.

334. The operator's seat cannot be adjusted when:

a) the seat is turned backwards,

b) the machine is in motion,

c) the engine is not started.

335. If during daily technical maintenance before work the operator notices that one of the windows in the cabin is cracked, then:

a) he can start working provided that the window is only cracked and has not "fallen out",

b) he should not start working,

c) he can start working if it is not the front window.

336. Before starting work, the operator should:

a) open windows for better communication,b) install window sun shields,

c) clean the windows by removing snow, ice, and other contaminants.

337. When changing hydraulic oils, one should:

a) use any type of oil,

b) use only types of oils recommended by the machine manufacturer,

c) always use only biodegradable oils.

338. To ensure the technical efficiency of the working machine, one should:

a) operate the machine/technical device only under full load,b) operate the machine/technical device not exceeding 50% of the permissible load,

c) follow technical service and maintenance according to the operating and maintenance instructions.

339. On the construction site, empty containers of lubricants, oil filters, and used oils should be:

a) placed in a properly marked container for hazardous waste,

b) thrown into any waste container,c) thrown into a mixed waste container.

340. Stickers (pictograms) located on the machine/technical device serve to:

a) indicate places where one can stay without any risk,

b) convey important information about safety and the use of the machine/technical device,

c) inform about the prohibition of approaching the machine/technical device.

341. Grease points in the machine should be serviced:

a) during all breaks in work,

b) according to the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine,

c) always after 10 hours of work.

342. Engine oil with parameters 5W-50 is:

a) oil only for winter,b) oil only for summer,

c) all-season oil.

343. Before starting work on a new type of machine/technical device, the operator should:

a) perform a test run,b) conduct a periodic inspection,

c) familiarize themselves with the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine/technical device.

344. OTC service is:

a) daily technical service,

b) round-the-clock technical service,c) temporary technical service.

345. The basic types of service are:

a) round-the-clock, all-season, annual, technological service,

b) daily, periodic, warehouse, transport service,

c) visual, active, passive service.

346. Batteries, when starting the machine using a supporting battery, should be connected:

a) in parallel,

b) in series,c) crosswise.

347. In the case of electrolyte loss caused by spillage through a cracked battery casing, one should:

a) secure the leak area in terms of environmental protection, and then replace the battery,

b) add electrolyte to the proper level and charge the battery,c) add demineralized water to a level 10 mm above the top edges of the plates.

348. The activities performed by the operator as part of daily maintenance during operation are:

a) cleaning the machine,b) replenishing operating fluids and daily lubrication,

c) auditory control of the machine's operation and observation of indicators.

349. When inflating the tire of the machine's wheel, one should:

a) check the state of the inflated wheel by bending the side of the tire,b) stand by the inflated wheel provided that a safety helmet is worn,

c) not stand directly next to the inflated wheel.

350. If the manufacturer has provided for operational running-in, it should be carried out:

a) with the load recommended in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device,

b) without load,c) with the maximum load.

351. During the storage of a machine on a wheeled chassis, the wheels of the machine should be:

a) unloaded,

b) removed from the machine,c) secured with wedges.

352. Driving a machine on public roads should be done in the position:

a) transfer,

b) transport,

c) working.

353. When loading a machine onto a transport vehicle, the operator should:

a) know the maximum speed allowed for the given transport vehicle,b) approach at a speed of at least 5 [km/h],

c) know the permissible angle of inclination of the loading ramps for the given machine.

354. The responsibility for the placement and securing of the machine on the transport vehicle lies with:

a) the carrier (e.g. driver),

b) the machine operator,c) the owner or person responsible for the machines in the company.

355. During the storage of a machine, one should ensure that:

a) there are no leaks of operating fluids,

b) no documents of the machine are left in the cabin,c) the machine is facing the exit.

356. The protection of the machine during storage downtime consists of:

a) cleaning the machine of dirt and corrosion,

b) disassembling all filters and protecting them from moisture,c) filling the hydraulic oil tank to the top.

357. The rods of hydraulic actuators, during the technical service of the machine in storage, should be:

a) protected against corrosion,

b) disassembled and the seals replaced,c) disassembled and cleaned.

358. During the transport of the machine:

a) over short distances, tools and other items can be transported in the working tool,b) tools and other items can be transported in the bucket if it is free,

c) tools and other items cannot be transported in the working tool.

359. During the loading of the machine onto the means of transport:

a) assistance from a second person is recommended only when loading onto a low-loader trailer,

b) assistance from a second person is recommended,

c) the operator should drive onto the means of transport independently.

360. The recommended method of loading heavy working machines onto low-loader trailers is:

a) mechanized loading from the front ramp,

b) loading using other machines,c) loading on ropes.

361. During longer storage of the machine, the fuel tank should be:

a) filled to the top to prevent condensation of water vapor inside the tank,

b) empty to avoid fire hazards,c) filled to 1/3 of its capacity and left open.

362. During daily operation of the machine, the condition of should be checked:

a) the working pressure value in the hydraulic system,b) tools and equipment,

c) connections and tightness of the hydraulic system.

363. If the machine's engine has not been running for a long time, during daily operation you should:

a) replace the fuel pre-filter,

b) check the oil level and other operating fluids,

c) start the engine and gently increase the RPM to reach the operating temperature faster.

364. When inflating tires on the working machine, the operator should:

a) stand beside the tire tread or on the other side of the machine,

b) stand directly in front of the tire to monitor the pressure,c) ensure that bystanders are nearby.

365. Information regarding faults, their codes, and methods of removal can be found in the document titled:

a) construction machine book,

b) operating and maintenance manual,

c) daily report.

366. The correct order of connecting the auxiliary battery to the discharged battery in the machine is as follows:

a) positive terminal of the battery in the machine, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, machine frame,

b) machine frame, positive terminal of the battery in the machine, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery,c) negative terminal of the battery in the machine, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, machine frame.

367. In case of electrolyte loss in the battery, one should:

a) refill it with water other than distilled,b) refill it with DOT-3 fluid,

c) refill it with distilled or demineralized water.

368. Checking the charge state of the starting battery 12 [V] by "sparking" poses a risk of:

a) explosion of hydrogen escaping from the battery,

b) electric shock from high voltage,c) seizure of the alternator.

369. Before storing the wheels in the wheeled machine, one should:

a) inflate to maximum pressure to prevent tire deformation,

b) relieve pressure to prevent tire deformation,

c) loosen to reduce the static load on the mounting bolts.

370. The scope of daily technical service of the machine does not include:

a) checking the oil level in the engine,b) checking the condition of the tires and tire pressure,

c) inspection and adjustment of valve clearances.

371. When cleaning the radiator, to avoid damaging it, one should:

a) keep the compressed air nozzle at an appropriate distance from the radiator,

b) use sharp tools for cleaning,c) apply a strong stream of water under high pressure.

372. The purpose of lubrication in working machines is:

a) to increase the engine's rotational speed,

b) to reduce friction,

c) to raise the temperature of cooperating elements.

373. The most commonly used type of fuses in electrical installations of working machines is:

a) automatic fuses,

b) cartridge fuses,

c) residual current devices.

374. The phenomenon of electrostatic charge during the refueling of a machine can lead to:

a) a short circuit in the electrical installation,b) poisoning,

c) a fire.

375. In the case of parallel connection of two batteries with different rated voltages:

a) the battery with the lower rated voltage may explode,

b) thicker cables should be used than with batteries of the same rated voltages,c) both batteries may discharge.

376. When checking the pressure in a tire, the machine should be:

a) unloaded, and the tire should be cold,

b) running and warmed up,c) loaded to make the measurement more accurate.

377. The correct way to connect the battery to the charger during charging is:

a) the positive terminal of the battery to the negative terminal of the charger, the negative terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger,

b) the positive terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger, the negative terminal of the battery to the negative terminal of the charger,

c) the positive terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger, the negative terminal of the charger to the "ground" of the machine.

378. After connecting the battery, the terminals are lubricated with:

a) technical vaseline,

b) grease containing molybdenum disulfide,c) graphite grease.

379. To safely inflate a tire, you should:

a) stand in front of the tire valve while inflating,

b) stand beside the tire tread and use a long pneumatic hose,

c) use a short pneumatic hose with a pressure gauge.

380. One of the goals of warehouse management is:

a) preparing the machine for transport for the future user,b) repairing damaged machine parts before the next season,

c) protecting the machine from corrosion and other harmful factors during long-term storage.

381. If during daily technical service the operator notices a leak in the cooling system, he should:

a) report the leak and not use the machine until it is repaired,

b) organize fluid and refill to the minimum level if the leak is small,c) refill the coolant and continue working.

382. The level of coolant in the expansion tank should be checked:

a) during every daily technical service,

b) only during periodic technical service,c) only in case of engine overheating.

383. If the operator notices a hydraulic fluid leak during daily technical service, he should:

a) reduce the RPM and continue working,b) refill the oil and continue working,

c) report the leak and not use the machine until it is repaired.

384. The frequency of performing periodic technical service depends on:

a) the number of completed working cycles,

b) the number of hours worked (engine hours),

c) the production date of the machine.

385. If during daily technical service the operator notices a low level of engine oil, he should:

a) refill the oil to the appropriate level,

b) continue working if the level is not very low and the warning light is not on,c) refill the level with any available oil, even if it is of a different type.

386. A characteristic activity for seasonal technical service is:

a) checking the value of the working pressure of the hydraulic system,b) checking the value of the charging voltage,

c) replacing the coolant with one suitable for the season.

387. The basic service activities that must be performed before starting a diesel engine are:

a) checking the oil level in the engine, checking the coolant level, checking the condition of the air filter,

b) bleeding the fuel system, checking the level of the transmission oil, checking the starter,c) checking the oil level in the gearbox, checking the operation of the working system, checking the operation of the brakes.

388. Activities performed as part of daily technical service (OTC) carried out during the operation of the machine are:

a) observing only the control and measurement indicators such as: oil pressure, engine temperature, hydraulic oil temperature,b) primarily the organoleptic control of the proper operation of the machine's working system,

c) observing the control and measurement instruments and checking the proper operation of the machine using sight, hearing, and smell.

389. We distinguish, among others, the following types of technical services:

a) transport, commissioning, storage, operational-repair (ON), catalog,b) commissioning, daily, periodic, seasonal, storage, emergency, night,

c) transport, commissioning, daily, periodic, seasonal, storage.

390. We perform technical services in order to:

a) extend the lifespan and ensure the safe operation of the machine or technical device,

b) maintain the value of the machine or technical device at a constant, unchanged level,c) ensure the quiet operation of the machine or technical device. Service tasks for the practical exam
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