Excavator dozers class III
Study mode
Question of 396
1. What is the minimum allowable distance of the machine from the reach of the wedge of the collapse?
a) 0.6 [m],
b) 0.8 [m],c) 0.4 [m].2. The safe distance of the machine from the excavation is:
a) 1.6 [m],b) excavation depth + 0.6 [m],
c) reach of the wedge of the collapse + 0.6 [m].
3. Based on the presented table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] made in cohesive soils:
a) 1 [m],
b) 1.6 [m],
c) 2.6 [m].4. Based on the presented table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] made in fractured rocks:
a) 4.6 [m],
b) 3.6 [m],
c) 2.6 [m].5. Based on the presented table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] made in slightly cohesive soils:
a) 2.6 [m],
b) 3.1 [m],
c) 3.6 [m]. Excavators Class III6. What is the minimum safe distance from the UPPER edge of the embankment that a machine can approach, given the following data: Soil category - I (dry sand), height of the embankment - h = 2 [m], horizontal distance between the upper and lower edges of the embankment - a = 2.5 [m]?
a) 1.1 [m],
b) 3.6 [m],c) 0.6 [m].7. What is the minimum safe distance from the UPPER edge of the embankment that a machine can approach, given the following data: Soil category - II (slightly cohesive soils), height of the embankment - h = 4 [m], horizontal distance between the upper and lower edges of the embankment - a = 2.5 [m]?
a) 5.6 [m],
b) 3.1 [m],
c) 0.6 [m].8. At what horizontal distance from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage not exceeding 1 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 2 [m],
b) not less than 3 [m],
c) not less than 5 [m].9. At what horizontal distance from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 10 [m],b) not less than 15 [m],
c) not less than 5 [m].
10. At what horizontal distance from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 10 [m],
b) not less than 15 [m],c) not less than 5 [m].11. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?
a) not less than 15 [m],
b) not less than 10 [m],c) not less than 20 [m].12. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?
a) not less than 10 [m],b) not less than 15 [m],
c) not less than 30 [m].
13. Is it possible to organize workstations in the danger zone under overhead power lines?
a) yes, but only after meeting additional requirements,
b) no, never,c) yes, always.
14. What is the safe distance X for the operation of a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [V]?
a) not less than 3 [m],
b) not less than 30 [m],c) not less than 5 [m].15. What is the safe distance X for the operation of a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV]?
a) not less than 10 [m],b) not less than 15 [m],
c) not less than 5 [m].
16. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?
a) not less than 15 [m],
b) not less than 10 [m],
c) not less than 30 [m].17. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?
a) not less than 5 [m],
b) not less than 10 [m],
c) not less than 15 [m].18. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV]?
a) not less than 30 [m],
b) not less than 15 [m],
c) not less than 50 [m].19. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV]?
a) not less than 15 [m],
b) not less than 10 [m],
c) not less than 30 [m].20. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]?
a) not less than 3 [m],b) not less than 40 [m],
c) not less than 30 [m].
21. Work in the danger zone (overhead high voltage power line):
a) may not be carried out under electrical lines in the danger zone at any time,
b) may be carried out provided that the line is disconnected from the voltage, the work is performed in a limited area with groundings, and at least one grounding is visible from the work site,
c) may be carried out provided that permission from the site manager has been granted.22. The operator must perform work at a distance X from the active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [V]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 1 [m],b) 2 [m],
c) 5 [m].
23. The operator must perform work at a distance X from the active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 3 [m],b) 5 [m],
c) 15 [m].
24. The operator must perform work at a distance X from the active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 15 [m],
b) 50 [m],
c) 5 [m].25. If the injured person has a detectable pulse but is not breathing, then:
a) cardiopulmonary resuscitation should be performed,
b) the airways should be cleared and artificial respiration should be started,
c) he should not be touched.26. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, one should primarily:
a) give the injured medication,b) distance oneself from the accident site to call a doctor,
c) provide assistance to those in life-threatening situations.
27. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, one should primarily:
a) provide assistance to those in life-threatening situations,
b) take care of one's own safety,
c) distance oneself from the accident site to call a doctor.28. The obligation to provide first aid to accident victims rests with:
a) everyone, but for any mistakes, there is always a risk of criminal liability,b) only those who have medical training,
c) everyone, as one can always perform part of the rescue tasks.
29. The accident victim regained consciousness after a few minutes and wants to go home. In such a situation, one should:
a) persuade her to stay and call for medical help,
b) give her something to drink and pain relief,c) allow her to go home, recommending a visit to the doctor.30. First aid in a situation where a foreign body has entered the eye of the injured person consists of:
a) rinsing with clean water directing the stream from the nose outward from the eye,
b) rinsing with distilled water directing the stream inward to the eye,c) rinsing the eye with eye drops.31. The injured person cut their leg on an unsecured sharp element. Providing first aid in this situation is:
a) sticking a plaster directly on the wound,
b) using sterile gauze, wrapping the wound with a bandage,
c) using a tourniquet.32. Suspecting spinal injury in a person who has fallen from a height and is conscious, one should:
a) not move them and wait for medical services to arrive,
b) seat them in a semi-reclining position,c) lay them in the recovery position.33. To move away from the place where the electric wire has been broken and the area is live, one should:
a) run as quickly as possible to a place that we assess as safe,b) quickly step away from the source of electric shock, lifting feet high,
c) leave the place slowly, taking small steps, trying to maintain continuous contact of feet with the ground.
34. First aid in the case of a first-degree burn is:
a) applying ointment to the burned area,
b) pouring cold water on the burned area,
c) applying greasy cream to the burned area.35. During work, a high voltage power line was broken, as a result of which a colleague was electrocuted. In this situation, the correct behavior is:
a) calling other colleagues for help with the injured person,
b) turning off the power source as quickly as possible,
c) approaching the injured person to provide first aid.36. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation is performed until:
a) 10 minutes have passed,
b) we have determined that the victim has started breathing and circulation has returned,
c) the fire department arrives and secures the area.37. Immediate action in the case of severe bleeding from an injured upper limb includes:
a) disinfecting the wound with salicylic alcohol,
b) applying a dressing, directly compressing the bleeding site, and elevating the limb,
c) lowering the limb below heart level.38. In the case of a nosebleed, one should:
a) tilt the head back and place a cold compress on the neck,b) lay the victim on their back,
c) lean the bleeding person's head forward and pinch the nostrils.
39. The first step in dealing with a victim of carbon monoxide poisoning in a closed room is:
a) the quickest possible evacuation of the victim from that room,
b) assessing ABC,c) conducting a preliminary examination.40. First aid during seizures caused by an epileptic attack consists of:
a) placing a wooden object in the victim's mouth to prevent biting the tongue,
b) protecting the victim's head from injuries,
c) seating the victim in a semi-sitting position and giving them something to drink.41. In case of suspected spinal injury in the cervical region in a conscious person, one should:
a) place the injured person in a lateral position,
b) not allow the injured person to move their head,
c) seat the injured person in a chair with a high back.42. The most important thing when a person is buried under earth, sand, or gravel is:
a) locating the injured person,
b) notifying the family,c) waiting for the arrival of the ambulance.43. First aid for a person with a metal rod embedded in their lower leg involves calling for help and:
a) securing the rod to prevent movement,
b) removing the embedded rod,c) moving the rod to check if the artery has been damaged.44. The indication for using an AED defibrillator is:
a) severe dizziness,b) severe chest pain,
c) lack of detectable breath and pulse in the injured person.
45. During the operation of a machine/technical device, the prohibited actions for which you are taking the exam are:
a) performing daily technical service (OTS),
b) making structural changes to the machine/technical device,
c) changing the working tool.46. During the operation of a machine/technical device, the prohibited activities are:
a) cleaning the machine/technical device using gasoline or solvents whose vapors can create flammable/explosive gas mixtures with air,
b) cleaning the machine/technical device using a product in accordance with the operating and maintenance instructions,c) refueling the machine/technical device from a canister.47. When performing earthworks with the machine for which you are taking the exam, it is unacceptable to:
a) extend the machine's blade towards the excavation,
b) position the machine within the reach of the falling wedge,
c) use the machine's blade at a safe distance from the excavation.48. When performing earthworks with the machine for which you are taking the exam, it is unacceptable to:
a) use the machine on clay soils at air temperatures above 30°C,
b) use the machine on clay soils during heavy rain,
c) use the machine on clay soils at air temperatures below -5°C.49. When performing earthworks, it is unacceptable to:
a) have people nearby the machine during technical servicing,b) have people at a distance greater than the sum of the maximum reach of the working tool plus 6 meters,
c) have people within the working range of the machine's working tool.
50. When performing work, it is unacceptable to:
a) work near active overhead power lines at a distance less than specified by regulations,
b) work near an active power line with a rated voltage of 10 [kV] at a distance of 10 [m],c) work near an active power line with a rated voltage of 20 [kV] at a distance of 15 [m].51. During the execution of narrow-space excavations with the machine you are taking the exam for, it is unacceptable to:
a) use hand tools for excavations by cooperating persons,
b) have cooperating persons in the unsecured part of the excavation, even if they have personal protective equipment,
c) have cooperating persons in the secured part of the excavation.52. During earthworks in marshy or wet areas:
a) the machine is placed as on other grounds, just not considering the distance from the failure wedge,
b) the machine is placed on stable and permanently connected pads,
c) the machine is placed in the same way as on other grounds.53. The machine/technical device you are taking the exam for can only be operated by:
a) a person who has completed training and obtained a positive result from the test conducted by the commission appointed by the Łukasiewicz Research Network – Warsaw Institute of Technology,
b) a person with written confirmation of course completion in the form of a plastic card,c) any adult person with technical education and a driving license of the appropriate category.54. The rights to operate machines/technical devices you are taking the exam for are issued by:
a) The Office of Technical Inspection (UDT),b) The County Office appropriate for the residence address of the person applying for the rights,
c) The Łukasiewicz Research Network - Warsaw Institute of Technology (SBŁ - WIT).
55. The rights to operate machines/technical devices you are taking the exam for:
a) are valid for 5 years from the date of issue,
b) are valid indefinitely,
c) are valid for 10 years from the date of issue.56. A person holding a license to operate: "Class III Excavator-Loader" based on it:
a) can operate all excavator-loaders, single-bucket excavators up to 4 [t] operating weight and single-bucket loaders up to 8 [t] operating weight,
b) can only operate excavator-loaders,
c) can operate excavator-loaders and backhoe loaders.57. An employee operating a machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam can start work provided that:
a) has a valid category D driving license,b) the machine/technical device has a valid UDT inspection,
c) has the qualifications to operate this type of machine/technical device.
58. In the event of a threat to life, health, property, or the environment caused by a malfunction of the machine/technical device, the operator:
a) immediately stops work and informs the supervisor of this fact,
b) continues working, but at the end of the shift makes an appropriate entry in the maintenance book,c) continues working, but at the end of the shift informs the supervisor of the situation that has occurred.59. Lifting and transporting people using working equipment:
a) is possible, but only outside the public road area,
b) is always prohibited,
c) requires the consent of the construction manager.60. An employee operating a machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam has the right to refuse to start work if:
a) has the required personal protective equipment,b) there is an overhead power line with a rated voltage of 110 [kV] located 35 meters away,
c) this work requires special psychophysical fitness, and their psychophysical condition does not ensure its safe performance and poses a threat to others.
61. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is required to stop work when:
a) the work he is performing poses a direct threat to the health or life of others,
b) he has the required personal protective equipment,c) there is an overhead power line at a distance of 35 meters.62. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is required to:
a) comply with the instructions for the operation and use of the machine/technical device,
b) independently perform all current repairs of the machine/technical device,c) always have a category B driving license.63. The person directly responsible for the safe operation of the machine for which you are taking the exam is:
a) the owner of the machine,
b) the operator of the machine,
c) the construction manager.64. The operator's book and qualifications for the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam are issued by:
a) The Office of Technical Inspection (UDT),b) The Transport Technical Inspection (TDT),
c) The Łukasiewicz Research Network - Warsaw Institute of Technology.
65. The obligation to use personal protective equipment:
a) arises from the operation and use instructions and health and safety regulations,
b) does not apply on hot days,c) arises only from internal company regulations.66. An employee who witnesses an accident at work:
a) it is enough to notify the supervisor,b) is obliged to assist the victims and then immediately leave the accident site,
c) is obliged to assist the victims, notify the supervisor, and if necessary secure the accident site.
67. What elements of the machine you are taking the exam on protect the operator in case the machine tips over:
a) a certified safety helmet and a reflective vest,
b) a ROPS type machine cabin and safety belts,
c) the machine seat.68. In the event of loss of stability of a machine equipped with a ROPS type cabin, the operator should:
a) quickly turn left and raise the working equipment as high as possible,
b) maintain a sitting position while holding on tightly to the steering wheel or other stable elements in the cabin,
c) try to leave the cabin as quickly as possible (before the machine tips over).69. In the event of loss of stability of a machine equipped with a ROPS type cabin, the operator should:
a) stay in the cabin,
b) turn on the warning/emergency lights,c) immediately jump out of the cabin.70. The danger zone is defined as:
a) a place where there are threats to the health and life of people,
b) a place where employees must only wear safety helmets,c) a place where work requiring specialized equipment is carried out, and the presence of people is only allowed at night.71. The danger zone on the construction site:
a) is designated after the construction work has started,
b) is designated and/or fenced and marked in a way that prevents unauthorized access,
c) is always designated by a surveyor.72. The area that the operator should check and secure before starting work with a machine/technical device (because there are health and life hazards) is called:
a) the danger zone,
b) the area of increased risk,c) the dead zone.
73. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:
a) "raise up",
b) "lower down",c) "rotate the machine".
74. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:
a) "raise up",b) "rotate the machine",
c) "lower down".
75. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:
a) "raise up",
b) "move in the indicated direction",
c) "rotate the machine".
76. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "turn the machine",b) "lift up",
c) "movement in the indicated direction".
77. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "end of operation",b) "stop",
c) "horizontal distance".
78. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "fast movement",b) "movement backward",
c) "movement forward".
79. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "slow movement",
b) "movement backward",
c) "movement forward".
80. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "stop",
b) "vertical distance",
c) "end of operation".
81. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:
a) "reverse movement",
b) "STOP. Emergency stop",
c) "horizontal distance".
82. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:
a) "START. Beginning of direction",
b) "reverse movement",c) "STOP. Emergency stop".
83. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:
a) "STOP. Emergency stop",b) "reverse movement",
c) "STOP. Break - end of movement".
84. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:
a) "END. Stop operation",
b) "lower down",c) "horizontal distance".85. During the charging of batteries, a gas with highly explosive properties is released. This gas is:
a) hydrogen,
b) ethane,c) methane.86. Firefighting foam can be used to extinguish fires of group:
a) only C,b) C and D,
c) A and B.
87. Improper use of a snow extinguisher can result in:
a) burns from the extinguisher components,
b) frostbite caused by the extinguishing agent,
c) fainting.88. Water, fire blanket, powder extinguisher, carbon dioxide, sand are extinguishing agents that we will use to extinguish:
a) oils,b) liquids,
c) solids.
89. We can call sorbents:
a) materials made from natural or synthetic substances that absorb liquids,
b) fire blankets,c) petroleum-derived substances.90. Group A fires concern:
a) flammable gases,
b) solids whose normal combustion occurs with the formation of glowing coals, e.g. wood, paper, etc.,
c) flammable liquids.91. Group B fires concern:
a) flammable gases,b) metals, e.g. magnesium, sodium, potassium, aluminum, titanium, etc.,
c) liquids and solid materials that melt, e.g. plastics, fuels, oils, etc.
92. Group C fires concern:
a) flammable liquids,
b) gases, e.g. methane, propane, acetylene, hydrogen,
c) solids.
93. Seeing such a pictogram you are informed about:
a) the assembly point during evacuation,
b) a larger number of people in a given area,c) the danger zone.
94. While working you noticed a sign marked 'Zone 0'. It informs about:
a) the zone of existing fire load in the building,
b) the space where an explosive atmosphere exists,
c) the zone of existing fire hazard category.
95. The presented pictogram informs about:
a) a set of fire protection equipment,
b) an internal hydrant,c) the main power switch.
96. Seeing such a pictogram informs you about:
a) the assembly point during evacuation,b) the location of first aid,
c) the emergency exit.
97. Seeing such a pictogram informs you about:
a) the location of the fire extinguisher,
b) the prohibition of using the fire extinguisher,c) the high temperature affecting the fire extinguisher.98. You see a person whose clothing is on fire and who is running away in panic. Your reaction is:
a) you wave your arms or outer garment strongly next to him to extinguish the burning clothing,b) you tell him to wait in an upright position for the arrival of rescue services,
c) you try to stop him, lay him on the ground, and start extinguishing.
99. Electrical devices and installations can be extinguished using:
a) foam extinguishers,
b) powder or snow extinguishers,
c) water.100. Burning fuel can be extinguished using:
a) powder, foam, or snow extinguishers,
b) water,c) low-octane ethylene.101. Clothing on a person that is burning can be extinguished using:
a) water mist extinguisher or fire blanket,
b) plastic material,c) snow or powder extinguisher.102. What obligations does an employee have when they decide to refrain from work due to health and safety regulations?
a) There are no obligations in this situation,b) They should organize work for others,
c) They must immediately notify their supervisor.
103. How can an operator prevent hazards in the workplace?
a) By ignoring health and safety rules,b) By not reporting faults in machines,
c) By using personal protective equipment to minimize risk.
104. Which of the following situations is prohibited while working with a machine?
a) Working near machines with appropriate signage,
b) Moving loads over people,
c) Reporting machine faults at regular intervals.105. It is not permissible to position a workplace directly under active overhead power lines or at a horizontal distance from the outermost conductors of less than:
a) for lines: 1 [kV] - 3 [m], 15 [kV] - 5 [m], 30 [kV] - 10 [m], 110 [kV] - 15 [m], 400 [kV] - 30 [m],
b) for all voltages - 1 [m] from the power line,c) for lines: 1 [kV] - 1 [m], 15 [kV] - 3 [m], 30 [kV] - 5 [m], 110 [kV] - 10 [m].106. How does the operator know what personal protective equipment is required for a given machine/technical device?
a) Information about the necessary personal protective equipment is included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine,
b) The operator must independently choose the appropriate protective measures,c) The choice of personal protective equipment depends on the opinions of colleagues.107. The operator should refuse to perform a task when:
a) the work is being done at night,b) the work requires familiarization with the location of underground and above-ground utilities,
c) the work is inconsistent with the purpose of the machine/technical device.
108. The operator can prevent hazards during the operation of the machine/technical device by:
a) following health and safety rules and adhering to the operating instructions,
b) limiting the use of personal protective equipment,c) inattention and routine.109. Which of the following situations is unacceptable during the use of the machine/technical device?
a) Reporting faults directly to the supervisor,b) Operating the machine without supervision,
c) Unauthorized persons being in the danger zone caused by the operation of the machine/technical device.
110. An accident at work is considered to be:
a) a sudden event, unrelated to the work being performed, caused by an external factor, resulting in injury or death,
b) a sudden event, related to the work being performed, caused by an external factor, resulting in injury or death,
c) a prolonged event, related to the work being performed, caused by an internal factor, resulting in equipment damage.111. A fatal accident at work is considered to be an accident resulting in death that occurred:
a) within a period not exceeding 6 months from the date of the accident,
b) only at the moment of the accident,c) after a period exceeding 6 months from the date of the accident.112. It is prohibited to:
a) operate a machine after completing training and obtaining the appropriate qualifications,b) report noticed defects to the supervisor before starting work,
c) allow unauthorized persons within the reach of the machine's operation and work on slopes exceeding the permissible incline.
113. When getting on and off the machine, it is prohibited to:
a) intensively use the handrails and steps,b) face the machine while getting on and off,
c) use the control lever as support.
114. Health and safety regulations require:
a) scrapping the old working machine within the time specified in its operating and maintenance manual, while observing the requirements for the disposal of hazardous materials,b) performing a warranty inspection of the working machine before one year from its purchase,
c) securing the working machine during breaks in its operation against accidental activation by unauthorized persons.
115. In the event of a person being electrocuted:
a) it is recommended to use any tools to disconnect the power, regardless of their actual purpose,
b) do not touch the victim until the power source is disconnected,
c) immediately begin resuscitation, regardless of whether the power source has been disconnected.116. In the case of a person being buried under earth or sand:
a) we always calmly wait for rescue services - any attempt to help would be too dangerous,
b) we should dig them out as quickly as possible, if it is safe for the person undertaking the rescue action,
c) we should dig them out as quickly as possible regardless of our own safety - it's about their life.117. Seeing a person whose clothes are on fire, the first thing to do is:
a) use a fire extinguisher, preferably a snow one, to extinguish the burning clothing, and then try to quickly remove the melted clothing,b) leave the victim in a standing position to facilitate air access and extinguish the flames faster,
c) cut off the air supply by rolling the victim or wrapping them in a fire blanket, wet clothing, or a wet blanket.
118. If during earthworks unidentified objects are discovered, then:
a) further work is interrupted and the supervising person of the earthworks is notified,
b) earthworks can continue if we maintain a distance of at least 1 [m] from such an object,c) a danger zone with a radius of 6 [m] should be designated, outside of which normal work can proceed.119. In the case of finding an unexploded ordnance during earthworks, one should:
a) ignore the unexploded ordnance if it does not pose an immediate threat,
b) stop work, remove other workers from the danger area, notify superiors, and secure the site,
c) try to carefully remove the unexploded ordnance from the work area and continue working.120. A wedge of soil:
a) occurs when the slope of the embankment exceeds the angle of the natural slope of the soil,
b) is the area around the working machine extending a distance of 6 [m] beyond its farthest reach,c) occurs only when the soil is in a frozen state.121. The range of the soil wedge:
a) depends solely on the soil temperature,
b) depends on the depth of the excavation and the soil category,
c) depends on the speed of the machine's operation and the operator's efficiency.122. The angle of natural slope is:
a) the maximum slope at which the soil can remain without sliding - it depends, among other things, on the soil category,
b) the angle at which the machine can be safely operated - it depends on the parameters of the given machine,c) the angle at which the soil will definitely slide by itself - it depends solely on the temperature of that soil.123. Soil wedge:
a) is the space around the machine, dependent on the machine's working speed and its weight,
b) occurs when the slope exceeds the angle of natural slope of the soil - its range depends on the type of soil and the depth of the excavation or the height of the slope,
c) is the zone where the soil becomes unstable - its range depends solely on the depth of the excavation, the type of soil does not matter here.124. The angle of natural slope is:
a) the slope at which any embankment becomes unstable, regardless of the type of soil,
b) the maximum slope at which the soil can remain without sliding - it depends on the type of soil, e.g., moisture, cohesion, and grain size,
c) the angle at which the machine can safely move on the embankment, regardless of the soil category.125. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is performed:
a) when the injured person is breathing but unconscious, with no contact,b) only in the case of fainting and minor injuries, to improve blood circulation,
c) when the injured person is not breathing and there is no detectable pulse. For a person who is not a professional rescuer, the absence of breathing is a sufficient basis to start resuscitation.
126. An employee has the right to refrain from performing work due to health and safety regulations, notifying their supervisor immediately if:
a) working conditions pose an immediate threat to health or life,
b) the work they are performing has not been reported to the construction supervision,c) working conditions do not pose a threat, but are too difficult for them.127. Physical factors generating hazards in the workplace are:
a) lack of appropriate medical examinations for the employee,
b) spilled lubricants, oils, and fuels,
c) lack of or improper training for employees.128. Working with a machine/technical device is unacceptable when:
a) its repair was carried out after dark,
b) it is malfunctioning,
c) the second operator did not report an upcoming inspection.129. Working near overhead power lines:
a) is possible without meeting additional requirements provided that specific distances depending on the rated voltage of the line are maintained,
b) always requires the power in the line to be turned off,c) always requires double grounding of the line.130. The operator is obliged to refuse to undertake work if:
a) the machine is malfunctioning,
b) they would have to work under power lines, and the voltage in them has been turned off and the line grounded,c) there is no construction manager or any other person authorized to supervise at the work site.131. The danger zone of a machine/technical device is:
a) a place where the machine/technical device cannot be used,b) always the entire fenced construction site,
c) a place where there are hazards to health or life of people.
132. Accidents at work can result from the poor technical condition of the working machine, for example:
a) damage to the equipment,b) failure of the drive system,
c) injury to a limb, torso, or head.
133. Unacceptable behaviors are:
a) performing daily maintenance of the machine after dark,
b) operating a faulty machine and working under the influence of alcohol,
c) working after dark in a well-lit place, with full concentration of the operator.134. General rules for safely getting on and off the machine are:
a) a person should face the machine, remember the "three-point support" principle, and use only specially made steps and handrails,
b) using cables and levers as aids when getting on is permissible when the machine is turned off,c) one can descend backwards from the machine, but only when the steps are slippery.135. The basic duties of an employee in terms of occupational health and safety are:
a) enforcing the labor code regulations regarding their rights, including payment for overtime worked,b) not being late for work, finishing on time, confirming presence at work in the manner accepted by the employer,
c) adhering to health and safety regulations and rules, taking care of the condition of machines and tools, maintaining order in the workplace, and using personal protective equipment.
136. In the case of a person electrocuted, after disconnecting the power source, you should:
a) move the victim to another place as quickly as possible,b) leave the victim if they have regained consciousness, without further actions,
c) check the condition of the victim, and if necessary: call for help, clear the airways, perform resuscitation, and use an AED if available.
137. When a person buried in earth or sand is partially dug out, you should:
a) clear the airways as quickly as possible,
b) quickly dig out the left arm to check for a pulse,c) focus on digging out the lower parts of the victim's body.138. After extinguishing flames on a person with burns and calling for help, you should:
a) use a snow extinguisher to cool the burn area,b) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes, previously removing melted clothing,
c) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes, without removing melted clothing.
139. The statement: "The operator's qualifications for the machine you are taking the exam for are sufficient to operate such a machine on public roads" is:
a) false,
b) true,c) true, but only under conditions of normal air transparency.
140. Seeing such a pictogram, you are informed about:
a) a place to perform AED,
b) a place where an external automatic defibrillator is available,
c) a place where a first aid kit is available.141. Properly performed cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) consists of:
a) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 30-60 times per minute to a depth of 1–3 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 15 compressions (breaths are mandatory),b) connecting an external automatic defibrillator (AED) and following its instructions; CPR is not performed without an AED,
c) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 100-120 times per minute to a depth of 5–6 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 30 compressions (breaths are not mandatory).
142. The material must not be stored in the danger zone of the natural ground collapse:
a) always, when the ground is sandy,b) when the excavation is deeper than 1.5 [m] regardless of its support,
c) when the walls of the excavation are unshored.
143. The abbreviation IBWR stands for:
a) Instruction for Non-Failure Execution of Works,b) Instruction for Non-Failure Execution of Works,
c) Instruction for Safe Execution of Works.
144. Expand the abbreviation IBWR:
a) Information on Safe Execution of Works,b) Implementation of Non-Failure Execution of Works,
c) Instruction for Safe Execution of Works.
145. The Instruction for Safe Execution of Construction Works is:
a) a plan for the path in construction works,b) a document confirming qualifications for operating machines and technical devices in earthworks, construction, and road works,
c) a document containing information regarding safety on the construction site.
146. The BIOZ plan means:
a) safety and resource definition plan,
b) safety and health protection plan,
c) safe health protection instruction plan.147. When driving a machine for earthworks on a public road, the operator must:
a) only have the qualifications for the specific earthworks machine, there are no additional requirements,
b) have a driver's license of the appropriate category, operator qualifications for the specific machine, liability insurance,
c) be at least 20 years old and have operator qualifications for the specific earthworks machine.
148. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 1.6 [m],
b) 1 [m],
c) 4 [m].149. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 1.5 [m],
b) 1 [m],c) 1.6 [m].150. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 1 [m],
b) 0.5 [m],
c) 1.6 [m].151. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 2 [m],
b) 1 [m],
c) 1.6 [m].152. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 1 [m],b) 1.6 [m],
c) 2 [m].
153. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 1 [m],
b) 3 [m],
c) 2 [m].154. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 4 [m],
b) 2.6 [m],c) 3 [m].155. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 1 [m],b) 2.6 [m],
c) 1.6 [m].
156. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 6.6 [m],
b) 2.1 [m],
c) 3.6 [m].157. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 2 [m],b) 4.6 [m],
c) 2.6 [m].
158. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 2.6 [m],
b) 1.1 [m],
c) 2 [m].159. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 2.6 [m],
b) 1.6 [m],
c) 2 [m].160. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 4.6 [m],
b) 2.6 [m],
c) 2 [m].161. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category III (cracked rocks) is:
a) 2.1 [m],
b) 3.6 [m],
c) 3 [m].162. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category III (cracked rocks) is:
a) 2.6 [m],b) 4 [m],
c) 4.6 [m].
163. Traffic safety devices used during work conducted in the road lane can be colored:
a) red, yellow-red, blue,
b) white, red, yellow, and black,
c) white, green, blue.164. Traffic safety devices used to secure and mark the location of work in the road lane should be visible:
a) only during the day,
b) during the day and at night,
c) only at night.165. Fencing with warning tape is permissible only for trenches up to a depth of:
a) 1.0 [m],b) 1.2 [m],
c) 0.5 [m].
166. In the case of providing pedestrians with a passage over excavations during work in the road lane, pedestrian walkways with a handrail height of should be used:
a) 1.0 [m],
b) at least 1.1 [m],
c) 0.9 [m].167. In the case of the need to provide pedestrians with a passage over excavations during work in the road lane, pedestrian walkways with a width of should be used:
a) no greater than 1 [m],b) from 0.8 [m] to 1.0 [m],
c) at least 1.0 [m].
168. During the execution of excavations in places accessible to persons not employed in these works, excavations should be secured at dusk and at night by:
a) railings equipped with red warning lights,
b) warning tapes in white and red and warning cones,c) warning tapes in white and red and orange warning lights.169. The handrails of the railings securing excavations in places of work accessible to persons not employed in these works should be located at a distance of:
a) not less than 1.0 [m] from the edge of the uncovered excavation,
b) equal to at least the depth of the excavation from the edge of the uncovered excavation,c) not less than 1.0 [m] from the axis of the uncovered excavation.170. In a situation of danger, when the cabin door cannot be opened:
a) the space after removing the floor panel can be used as an emergency exit,
b) the emergency exit provided by the manufacturer should be used,
c) the cabin must not be exited until help arrives.171. In the case of mechanical damage to the FOPS/ROPS cabin (e.g. denting of a cabin element) the operator:
a) can continue working if the cabin windows are intact,b) can repair the damage on their own without wasting time on downtime,
c) should stop working and report the failure to their supervisor or the person responsible in the company for the machine.
172. In the case of mechanical damage to the FOPS/ROPS cabin (e.g. denting of a cabin element) the operator:
a) cannot repair such damage on their own,
b) can repair such damage on their own, but only based on the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine,c) can always repair such damage on their own.173. If the seat belt is damaged, one should:
a) exercise special caution while performing work,b) continue working and report the problem after finishing work,
c) report the damage and not start working until the belt is repaired or replaced.
174. Entering and exiting the machine should be done:
a) sideways, being careful of the instruments in the cabin,
b) facing the machine, maintaining three points of contact,
c) backwards to the machine, using a three-step ladder.175. Prohibited activities during the operation and servicing of the machine or technical device include:
a) using machines on rocky ground during heavy rain,b) operating machines with safety or signaling devices,
c) operating machines by individuals without the appropriate qualifications.
176. The location of earthworks before they begin should be:
a) marked and designated,
b) fenced in a permanent way,c) additionally compacted.177. In the case of ongoing earthworks, the designation of the danger zone consists of:
a) carrying out work pointwise while maintaining a zone of 6 [m],b) securing and marking the zone of 6 [m] from the machine,
c) securing and marking the entire work area.
178. Visible underground infrastructure devices that provide initial insight into their course are most often:
a) abandoned road frames where they pass,
b) hydrant boxes, water shut-off boxes, manhole covers,
c) graphic symbols applied to the road surface.179. A construction excavation characterized by a width of S ≤ 1.5 [m] and a length of L>1.5 [m] is:
a) wide-space excavation,
b) narrow-space excavation,
c) pit excavation.180. An operator can work, without the need for prior loosening, in soil:
a) category I,
b) category V-VIII,c) all categories above IV.181. The minimum distance from the edge of the excavation with supported walls, in which spoil can be stored is:
a) 0.3 [m] from the edge of the excavation, without additional conditions,
b) 0.6 [m] from the edge of the excavation, if the spoil load has been taken into account in the selection of the support,
c) directly at the edge of the excavation, if the soil is dry.182. A control excavation is:
a) an excavation carried out for the purpose of measuring the parameters of a construction machine,
b) an excavation carried out to determine the actual course of underground installations,
c) an excavation carried out solely to check the quality of the soil.183. Examples of work classified as preparatory work before starting earthworks may include:
a) purchasing and storing materials and tools necessary for the work,
b) preparing the site by removing obstacles, performing control trenches, and marking out the construction,
c) daily operation of construction machines and technical devices.184. Humus is:
a) a mineral used for soil stabilization,b) a deeper layer of soil, usually up to 1 [m] thick,
c) the outer layer of soil rich in humus.
185. Soils, according to the degree of difficulty of their detachment, are divided into:
a) 4 categories,b) 10 categories,
c) 16 categories.
186. The frontal method of performing an excavation with a machine equipped with a bucket attachment is used:
a) when the excavation has a cylindrical shape and a depth of more than 1.5 [m],b) when the machine works sideways along the edge of the excavation,
c) when the machine is positioned in the axis of the excavation and the excavation is performed linearly.
187. The operator of the machine should know the category of the soil on which he works:
a) to know the requirements for operating the machine's chassis,
b) to calculate the safe distance for positioning the machine and the reach of the spoil wedge,
c) to be able to assess the depth of the excavation.188. During the loading of the spoil onto the vehicle, the operator:
a) should not move the bucket with the spoil over the cabin of the vehicle,
b) can drop the spoil onto the transport medium from any height convenient for him,c) can move the bucket with the spoil over the cabin of the vehicle if it speeds up the loading.189. The recommended tools for performing a control excavation near electrical installations are:
a) hand tools, preferably insulated,
b) only an excavator with standard equipment,c) any mechanical tools without depth restrictions.190. An example of work classified as preparatory work for earthworks is:
a) performing control trenches, removing trees and shrubs, marking out buildings on the ground,
b) installing lighting devices and designating places for heavy machines,c) laying asphalt pavement and installing fences.191. Removing humus is:
a) the main stage of earthworks,
b) it is one of the stages of preparatory works,
c) work performed always after the completion of construction works.192. Subsurface drainage consists of:
a) digging trenches around the excavation,b) pumping water from the bottom level of the excavation,
c) lowering the groundwater level using depression wells or filter points.
193. With a bulldozer, you can directly excavate:
a) soils of category 1 and 2, higher ones are unsuitable for bulldozers,b) all soils up to category 5, higher ones require a ripper,
c) all soils up to category 3, higher ones require loosening.
194. The bulldozer, in terms of moving the excavated material, is most characterized by:
a) finishing works related to laying bituminous materials,b) transporting material over longer distances, loading onto transport means,
c) moving material over short distances, leveling, and performing excavations.
195. Resistance during cutting with bulldozer equipment:
a) decreases with a larger cutting angle,
b) increases when the cutting angle is larger,
c) remains the same regardless of the cutting angle.196. When the ground is more difficult to detach and requires breaks at the "zero" level between subsequent stages, detachment should be applied:
a) flat,
b) stepped,
c) comb.197. Moving the excavated material with a bulldozer will be more effective over greater distances by reducing material loss if we apply the method:
a) bearing,
b) lateral shift,c) terrain.198. Creating a leveled surface of a given shape or profile is:
a) terrain profiling,
b) leveling of the terrain,c) compaction of the terrain.199. For effective backfilling of shallow narrow-space excavations, when the excavated material is small and the blade is not fully filled, the following should be applied:
a) backfilling with the blade at an angle of 90 [°] to the excavation,
b) approach at an angle of 45 [°] with the blade positioned head-on,
c) parallel approach with the blade positioned head-on.200. Flat detachment is used:
a) in soils of category I and II,
b) in all soil categories,c) only in soils of category IV.201. Stepwise soil stripping should be applied:
a) when stripping soil at shallow depths, cyclically reducing the depth until the tool is fully filled,
b) when stripping soil at great depth without changing the level,c) exclusively when stripping sand and gravel.202. The basic assumption of the wedge stripping method is that:
a) the plow remains at a constant depth throughout the working section,
b) the plow is gradually raised from a depth of 15-30 [cm] to the "zero" level over a distance of 5-8 [m],
c) the plow is raised every 1 [m] to different depths, without reaching the "zero" level.203. The field method of moving spoil consists of:
a) spoil is mainly moved using additional safeguards on the blade to prevent spilling,
b) spoil moves across the terrain, and after several cycles, piles form on the sides of the blade, which reduces material loss,
c) spoil is moved over greater distances to avoid spilling on the sides of the blade.204. The bearing method of moving spoil consists of:
a) moving spoil over a hardened surface to reduce the resistance of the blade,
b) creating a flat excavation about 0.8 [m] deep, in which spoil is moved, limiting material loss on the sides,
c) evenly distributing spoil using the oscillating movement of the blade.205. During leveling of terrain with varying soil types, the operator of the bulldozer should:
a) change the angle of the blade and reduce the moving speed when encountering denser soil,
b) direct the blade upward and increase the speed in the case of dense soil,c) work continuously with the same blade angle and at full moving speed.206. To reduce cutting resistance, the operator should set a smaller cutting angle for soils:
a) permeable,b) slightly cohesive,
c) more cohesive.
207. A one-time immersion of the blade and reaching level '0' only at the end of the cycle is characteristic of:
a) flat detachment,
b) wedge detachment,
c) step detachment.208. The formation of prisms on the sides increasing the efficiency of movement during the transport of excavated material by a bulldozer is characteristic of:
a) bearing method,
b) field method,
c) transmission method.209. The main goal of leveling the terrain is:
a) to create a flat, usually horizontal surface,
b) to give the surface a specific shape,c) to compact the soil surface.210. Shallow excavations can be effectively backfilled in one pass with a bulldozer:
a) with very shallow excavations and the blade set at an angle,
b) with deep excavations and a front blade,c) with narrow space excavations backfilled at an angle of 90 [°].211. The bulldozer's blade, during flat stripping, is usually lowered:
a) to a depth of about 20-25 [cm], regardless of the type of soil,b) to the maximum depth of the blade,
c) to a depth of about 10-15 [cm], depending on the type of soil.
212. The combing stripping method consists of:
a) fully retracting the knife after each immersion,b) stripping the soil only to a depth of 5 [cm] with each pass,
c) initially immersing the blade's knife, and then gradually raising it without fully retracting, in cycles until the tool is fully filled.
213. The step stripping method consists of:
a) filling the blade by deep digging without raising the tool,b) maintaining the blade at one depth throughout the working section,
c) cyclically raising the blade to zero level after each immersion of 10-20 [cm], until the working tool is fully filled.
214. The wedge stripping method is used:
a) for soils where it is necessary to gradually raise the blade to zero level as it moves along the working section,
b) for stripping sand, without differentiating the working depth of the blade,c) on hard soils, without the need to change the working depth.215. The efficiency of the field method during the movement of the excavated material can be increased:
a) by making passes with a shift relative to the previous one, so that the piles on the sides do not reduce the accumulation of material,b) by reducing the cutting depth, which prevents the excavated material from accumulating on the sides of the blade,
c) by repeating passes in the same place, creating piles on the sides of the blade that reduce the accumulation of material.
216. The maximum effective distance for moving spoil using the bearing method is approximately:
a) 100 meters,
b) 500 meters,c) 20 meters.217. The term: "performance of the earthworks machine" defines:
a) the effect of the machine's work over a unit of time,
b) the level of engine load during the machine's operation over a unit of time,c) the amount of fuel consumed by the machine per hour of operation.218. The performance of the earthworks machine can be expressed:
a) in pressure units [bar] or temperature [°C],
b) in volume or mass units per unit of time e.g. [m³/h], [t/h],
c) in speed or revolutions per unit of time e.g. [km/h], [rpm], [rev./s].219. The cutting angle in the bulldozer attachment defines:
a) the angle of the blade lift above the ground during travel,b) the angle of inclination of the entire bulldozer relative to the ground level,
c) the angle of the blade setting relative to the ground affecting cutting resistance and work performance.
220. To backfill deep narrow trenches, minimizing the risk associated with the wedge of the collapse, one should use:
a) backfilling through direct entry into the trench,
b) indirect pushing, i.e. dumping spoil onto other spoil from a safe distance from the edge of the trench,
c) direct pushing of spoil to the edge of the trench.221. Using a smaller cutting angle is recommended:
a) for less cohesive soils, to facilitate cutting,
b) for more cohesive soils, to reduce cutting resistance,
c) for sandy soils, to increase the cutting depth.222. Construction excavations are divided into:
a) narrow-space, wide-space, and cavity,
b) small, medium, and deep,c) underground, above ground, and intermediate.223. An excavation is classified as wide-space when:
a) its depth exceeds 2 [m] regardless of length,b) its width is 1 [m], and length and depth are greater than 1.5 [m],
c) its width exceeds 1.5 [m], and length is greater than 1.5 [m].
224. Pictograms that the operator should check before moving heavy objects refer to:
a) the maximum speed of the machine,
b) the maximum allowable loads for different positions of the machine,
c) the operating time of the machine on one tank of fuel.225. When working with a hydraulic hammer, one should:
a) adjust the engine speed to typical - similarly to standard operation with excavator attachments,
b) increase the engine speed to maximum, which will lower the oil temperature and positively affect the hammer components,c) increase the engine speed to maximum, which will increase the crushing force.226. Before starting work with the hydraulic hammer, one should:
a) perform proper daily maintenance and immediately proceed to work with the technical device,b) briefly check the operation of the device by working "dry" to warm up the tip,
c) warm up the machine and hydraulic system to ensure the oil reaches the required temperature.
227. For precise linear excavations in demanding terrain conditions, it is recommended to use:
a) a perforated bucket,
b) a bucket that is about 40 [%] smaller in width than the nominal one,
c) a wide bucket to minimize the excavation time.228. The operator during the vehicle loading cycle should:
a) fill the working container only halfway to avoid overload,
b) make smooth movements with the attachments and not move the working tool over the operator's cabin,
c) avoid looking back while reversing the machine to continuously observe the material.229. The soil obtained from the excavation is called a deposit:
a) regardless of future use,
b) when it is stored for later, e.g., to fill the excavation,
c) when it is used for soil compaction.230. If the machine is equipped with a hydraulic quick coupler to which the working attachments are connected, one should:
a) periodically replace the quick coupler, at least once a month,
b) check the condition of the quick coupler and its connections to the working attachments daily,
c) check the quick coupler only when a leak appears at the connection.231. Working with a machine with open cabin doors is allowed:
a) only when the air temperature exceeds 25 [°C],b) always,
c) only if the operating and maintenance manual of the machine provides for such a possibility.
232. The maximum load values that an operator can lift with a machine can be determined:
a) based on the information on the welded hook,b) through trial lifting,
c) based on the operating and maintenance manual.
233. Disconnecting the working equipment with hydraulic drive from the quick coupler is related to:
a) zeroing the hydraulic system,
b) relieving pressure from the central lubrication system,c) venting the hydraulic system.234. Performing earthworks with excavator equipment using both the bucket and the auger with the same machine is possible due to:
a) changing the working tool itself,b) changing the arm of the working system,
c) rotating-tilting heads.
235. For the installation of rotating-tilting heads in the working system of the excavator, it is necessary to:
a) install an additional tank with hydraulic oil,
b) equip the machine with additional free hydraulic lines,
c) equip the boom arm with a reduction.236. The system of a "floating" bucket/blade:
a) protects the equipment from loss during drainage works,
b) operates on the principle of automatic adjustment to the terrain, which is possible thanks to a special hydraulic system,
c) allows the machine to move smoothly on slopes.237. The type of interchangeable working equipment used depends on whether:
a) the equipment has a CE certificate,b) the machine has undergone a periodic inspection,
c) the equipment is approved for use by the machine manufacturer.
238. The course of underground land development must be marked before starting work in order to:
a) enable quick movement of machines in any direction,b) save time and reduce earthwork costs,
c) avoid the risk of damaging networks during work.
239. Which of the listed elements are not part of the hydraulic system:
a) hydraulic lock, hydraulic oil tank,
b) starter, alternator,
c) pump, distributor, actuator.240. The hydraulic lock in the machine is:
a) the closure of the hydraulic oil inlet at its tank,b) the valve responsible for controlling the entire hydraulic system,
c) the valve protecting against uncontrolled movement of the element located in a given line.
241. The change of hydraulic oil pressure into mechanical movement is the responsibility of:
a) hydraulic pump system,
b) hydraulic actuator and hydraulic motor,
c) hydraulic distributor.242. The pressure in the hydraulic system is generated by:
a) hydraulic actuator,b) hydraulic motor,
c) hydraulic pump.
243. Directing the flow of hydraulic oil to individual systems is carried out by:
a) hydraulic distributor,
b) relief valve,c) hydraulic lock.244. The safety valve protects the hydraulic system from:
a) excessive pressure increase,
b) air in the hydraulic system,c) overheating of hydraulic oil.245. The relief valve in the hydraulic system is responsible for:
a) limiting the maximum working pressure in a given circuit,
b) venting the system,c) maintaining a constant position of the working tool.246. If the pressure in the hydraulic system rises excessively, the excess oil will be directed to:
a) the distributor,b) the hydraulic oil filter,
c) the hydraulic oil tank.
247. The basic parameters that characterize an electric accumulator are:
a) rated voltage [V], capacity [Ah], starting current [A],
b) rated voltage [V], resistance [Ω], power [W],c) rated voltage [V], power [W], mass [kg].248. Lead-acid batteries can be charged:
a) in a place specifically designated for this purpose,
b) in any room,c) only in an air-conditioned room.249. The pressure in the tires should be adjusted to:
a) the preferences of the operator,b) the requirements of the landowner,
c) the values given in the operating and maintenance manual.
250. Uneven pressure in the tires:
a) improves the driving properties of the machine,
b) reduces the stability of the machine,
c) does not affect the operation of the machine.251. In a working machine, the differential is most often located:
a) in the operator's cabin, near the driving controller,
b) in the drive system near the driving wheels,
c) in the hydraulic system, close to the main pump.252. The hydraulic distributor:
a) increases the torque in the side transmission,b) converts mechanical energy into hydraulic energy,
c) directs the flow of hydraulic oil to the appropriate sections.
253. The hydraulic distributor is a device that:
a) distributes oil between the small circuit and the large circuit,
b) allows control of individual hydraulic sections of the machine,
c) distributes oil between the engine and the hydraulic system.254. The ROPS cabin in construction machines protects the operator from:
a) crushing in the event of the machine overturning,
b) being hit by falling objects from above,c) dust in the operator's cabin.255. The FOPS cabin in construction machines protects the operator from:
a) crushing in the event of the machine overturning,
b) being hit by falling objects from above,
c) excessive noise in the operator's cabin.256. ROPS cabin in construction machines protects against:
a) crushing the operator in case the machine tips over,
b) the machine tipping over,c) the machine falling from a slope and rolling over.257. In protective cabins of the ROPS and FOPS type, safety is ensured by structural elements such as:
a) reinforced shell in ROPS and strong frame in FOPS,
b) strong frame in ROPS and reinforced shell in FOPS,
c) ventilation system in ROPS and additional protective windows in FOPS.258. The difference between a ROPS cabin and a FOPS cabin is that:
a) the ROPS cabin protects against falling objects from above, while FOPS protects against crushing,
b) the ROPS cabin protects against crushing, while FOPS protects against falling objects from above,
c) the ROPS cabin protects against noise, while FOPS protects against the machine tipping over.259. The basic condition for ROPS and FOPS cabins to provide effective protection to the operator is:
a) lubricating the cabin joints at least once a week,b) regular maintenance of the cabin,
c) fastening the seat belts by the operator.
260. Differential mechanism:
a) allows for increased driving speed on straight sections,
b) enables differentiation of the rotational speed of the drive wheels working on one axle,
c) regulates the flow of fluids in the differential system.261. The differential mechanism without the lock engaged:
a) causes the wheels on the same axle to rotate at the same speed,
b) allows the wheels on the same axle to rotate at different speeds,
c) does not differentiate the rotation speed of the wheels.262. Joints in drive systems serve to:
a) reduce the rotational speed of the wheels,b) stabilize the machine on uneven terrain,
c) transmit torque between shafts with inclined axes.
263. The operation of cross joints in drive systems involves:
a) keeping them clean and regularly lubricated,
b) daily checking of clearances,c) checking the oil level in the joints as part of daily technical maintenance.264. The term superstructure in earthmoving machines refers to:
a) the upper part of the machine,
b) the upper part of the machine with the drive system,c) the base of the machine.265. The lifting and lowering of the entire excavator equipment is the responsibility of:
a) the boom cylinder,
b) the bucket cylinder,c) the arm cylinder.266. The hydraulic quick coupler in the machine:
a) increases the bucket's pressure force on the material,b) strengthens the connection between the arm and the equipment,
c) facilitates quick and safe connection of the hydraulic drive of interchangeable equipment.
267. Reducing speed while simultaneously increasing the torque transmitted to the drive wheels is achieved by:
a) planetary gears,
b) wet brakes,c) hydraulic distributor.268. The differential mechanism allows the transmission of torque to the wheels:
a) ensuring they rotate at the same speeds,
b) while the wheels rotate at different speeds,
c) of two different axles.269. In vehicles with a differential mechanism when turning:
a) the load is transferred solely to the inner wheel,b) the inner wheel rotates faster than the outer wheel,
c) the inner wheel rotates slower than the outer wheel.
270. Damage to the ROPS frame resulting in the need for replacement includes:
a) discoloration of the paint caused by weather conditions and the passage of time,b) minor surface scratches,
c) cracking or bending of the structure.
271. Drilling additional holes in the ROPS cabin structure is prohibited because:
a) it reduces the weight of the machine,b) it lowers the operator's comfort,
c) it causes a decrease in the strength of the structure.
272. The flow and direction of hydraulic fluid in the system are regulated by:
a) hydraulic pumps,b) hydraulic motors,
c) hydraulic valves.
273. Elements of the system, such as actuators and hydraulic motors, convert hydraulic energy into:
a) pressure in the tank,
b) mechanical energy,
c) electrical energy.274. The function of the FOPS protective structure is:
a) to protect the operator from the effects of the machine overturning,b) to protect the operator from the effects of exhaust fumes and noise,
c) to protect the operator from falling objects.
275. The FOPS protective structure must be used when:
a) performing all earthworks,b) performing underwater works,
c) performing works where heavy elements may fall on the cabin (e.g., demolition works, in quarries, etc.).
276. In a machine equipped with a ROPS or FOPS protective structure, there must be an additional safety system used by the operator, which is:
a) protective footwear, hearing protectors, respiratory protection,b) protective helmet, protective footwear,
c) seat belts.
277. The ROPS protective structure in a machine:
a) is not required when it is not technically possible, and there is a low risk of the machine overturning (possibility of support with the boom),b) is not required when only qualified machine operators are employed,
c) is always required.
278. Optimal shock and vibration damping of the operator's seat is ensured by:
a) as flexible seat adjustment as possible,
b) adjusting the seat to the weight of the operator,
c) setting the seat rigidly.279. The control panel for locking the working tool, when the machine is equipped with a quick-change device with hydraulic locking, is equipped with:
a) 16-amp overload protection,b) protection against excessively high engine speed,
c) protection against unintentional activation of the control panel.
280. Protective equipment that a machine must have during demolition work is:
a) protective canopy – FOPS cabin,
b) signal lamp and white-red-white safety stickers,c) device warning against overload and protection against cable breakage on the boom.281. The mandatory equipment used for the operator to observe the area directly behind the machine is:
a) rear camera,
b) external mirror,
c) sound signal when reversing.282. Together with the operator, other people can ride in the machine's cabin if:
a) the machine is moving at a low speed,
b) the manufacturer has installed an additional seat,
c) they have undergone health and safety training with the operator and there are a maximum of 2 people.283. The most important element of the operator's cabin equipment from the perspective of his safety is:
a) mirror or camera,b) emergency STOP button,
c) seat belt.
284. Mirrors and the reversing camera in the machine are used for:
a) improving the operator's visibility and increasing safety,
b) checking the technical condition of the machine,c) facilitating the maneuvering of working equipment.285. In ROPS-type cabins, additional equipment such as phone holders can be installed independently:
a) remembering that installation is only possible on the cabin pillars,b) but this equipment must be permanently screwed to the cabin structure,
c) provided that there is no interference with the cabin structure.
286. The green flash lamp located on the machine cabin signals, among other things:
a) lack of operator in the cabin,
b) correct fastening of the seat belts,
c) activated eco mode of the machine.287. In a parallel connection of two identical batteries, the voltage of such a system is:
a) the product of the voltages of individual batteries,b) the sum of the voltages of individual batteries,
c) equal to the voltage of a single battery.
288. In a series connection of two identical batteries, the voltage of such a system is:
a) the sum of the voltages of individual batteries,
b) equal to the voltage of a single battery,c) the product of the voltages of individual batteries.289. Fuses in the electrical installation of the machine protect it against the effects of:
a) high temperature,b) low voltage,
c) short circuits and overloads.
290. One of the elements of the electrical system protecting the motor from seizure is:
a) main fuse,
b) engine oil pressure sensor,
c) speed controller.291. Gel batteries that are part of the electrical system do not require:
a) charging with a rectifier,
b) replenishing the electrolyte,
c) replacement in case of housing damage.292. Electrical systems of machines and technical devices should be equipped with a device that causes emergency stop in at least the amount of:
a) one device causing emergency stop, in accordance with the European machinery directive,
b) two devices causing emergency stop placed on both sides of the machine, in accordance with the European machinery directive,c) three devices causing emergency stop, in accordance with the European machinery directive.293. The emergency stop device of a machine is a part of:
a) the fuel system,
b) the electrical system,
c) the drive system.294. The main parameters of an internal combustion engine affecting work efficiency are:
a) type of carburetor, type of ignition system,
b) torque, rotational speed,
c) compression ratio, displacement.295. The crank-piston system of an internal combustion engine is designed to:
a) ensure effective operation of the clutch,
b) convert the reciprocating motion of the piston into the rotational motion of the crankshaft,
c) convert mechanical energy into hydraulic energy.296. The lubrication system in an internal combustion engine:
a) provides regulation of the rotational speed and reduces engine vibrations during operation,
b) is responsible for proper lubrication of the moving parts of the engine that work together,
c) is responsible for removing hazardous substances produced during the combustion of the mixture.297. The engine timing system is used for:
a) ensuring the optimal composition of the fuel-oil-air mixture for combustion,
b) controlling the filling of the combustion chamber with air or the fuel-air mixture and controlling the emptying of this chamber of exhaust gases,
c) damping noise and minimizing engine vibrations during operation.298. Systems present in internal combustion engines include, among others:
a) crankshaft-piston system, fuel supply system, cooling system,
b) hydraulic system, intake system,c) exhaust system, pneumatic system, closed system.299. The low-pressure part of the fuel supply system in a diesel engine is:
a) fuel tank, supply pump, filters, fuel lines,
b) fuel tank and injectors,c) fuel lines, high-pressure pump, common rail.300. The element controlling the flow of coolant in the so-called "large circuit" is:
a) thermophore,b) thermocouple,
c) thermostat.
301. Intercooler is:
a) a device for burning solid particles in exhaust gases,
b) an air cooler for turbocharged engines,
c) another name for the engine coolant radiator.302. DPF filter:
a) is a dry particulate filter responsible, among other things, for capturing soot from exhaust gases,
b) is a precise cabin filter protecting the operator during work in high dust conditions,c) is used to reduce NOx (nitrogen oxides) emissions.303. The frequency and scope of periodic maintenance of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam:
a) are included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine,
b) are included in the IBWR documentation,c) is determined by the owner of the machine/technical device.304. The operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device is:
a) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device, which includes, among others, IBWR,b) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by the health and safety services on the construction site,
c) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device.
305. The operator of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is not allowed to:
a) check the technical condition of the machine/technical device during operation,
b) use the machine/technical device for purposes other than intended,
c) make any repairs or maintenance.306. When operating a machine with interchangeable attachments/tools, the operator should:
a) only follow the instructions for the operation and maintenance of the machine,
b) follow the instructions for the operation and maintenance of the machine and the installed attachments/tools,
c) only follow the instructions for the operation and maintenance of the installed attachments/tools.307. A symptom of too low a level of hydraulic oil may be:
a) "jerky" intermittent movement of hydraulic cylinders,
b) uneven operation of the diesel engine,c) loud operation of the starter.308. In the event of detecting damage to the tires that may pose a threat, the operator should:
a) continue working by reducing the speed and load of the machine,b) notify the supervisor and cautiously continue working,
c) stop working.
309. If the warning light for too low engine oil pressure comes on, the operator:
a) may continue working if the hydraulic system is functioning properly,b) does not have to take any action,
c) should stop working and turn off the engine.
310. The cause of the machine's loss of stability may be:
a) too low tire pressure,
b) driving on a hardened surface,c) operating the machine in a suitable location for it.311. The cause of the machine's instability may be:
a) driving on a hardened surface,b) driving with the working tool lowered to the transport height,
c) driving with the working tool raised high.
312. The operating and maintenance manual for the machine/technical device:
a) is established by the owner or user of the machine,
b) includes, among other things, information about hazards during the operation of the machine/technical device,
c) is used to record information about faults.313. The CE Declaration of Conformity is a document:
a) issued by institutions that test machines for resistance to weather conditions,
b) in which the manufacturer confirms that their product meets all applicable EU requirements regarding safety, health protection, and environmental protection,
c) confirming that the product was manufactured in the countries of the European Union.314. Information regarding the use of personal protective equipment and ways to limit the occupational risk can be found by the operator:
a) in the operating and maintenance manual for the machine/technical device,
b) in the service book,c) in the CE Declaration of Conformity.315. The operating and maintenance manual for the machine/technical device:
a) is created by institutions that conduct testing and accreditation of machine/technical device prototypes before allowing them for serial production,b) is created by the construction manager based on information from the manufacturer,
c) is developed by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device or the entity that introduces the machine/technical device to the market.
316. Operating and maintenance instructions for the machine/technical device:
a) should be kept in the office along with the company's documentation and be available in case of inspection,
b) should be located in the machine or near the device, treated as part of the machine/technical device and be available at any time,
c) it does not matter where it is located, the most important thing is that the owner of the machine has it in case of resale of the machine.317. Identification data of the machine/technical device:
a) due to their importance, they are always printed in red,b) should be noted on the inside of the protective helmet assigned to the specific machine/technical device,
c) are located on the nameplate of the machine/technical device, and may additionally be in marking places described in the instructions.
318. To minimize the risk of malfunction of the machine/technical device, the operator should:
a) use the machine/technical device until the failure becomes serious,b) perform maintenance activities only when the machine/technical device stops working,
c) regularly visually assess the condition of the machine/technical device and report any noticed irregularities.
319. Key activities for the safe technical operation of the machine are:
a) performing technical service without securing the working equipment to save time,b) using latex gloves, without the need for other personal protective equipment,
c) securing equipment, covers, and doors against accidental closure and using personal protective equipment.
320. Rules for safely performing technical services on machines are:
a) the machine can be left on a sloped area, as long as the operator plans a short technical service,
b) the machine should be positioned on level ground, working equipment lowered to the ground, engine turned off, and the key removed from the ignition,
c) the engine may remain on to conduct the service faster, especially if the machine is running idle.321. The initial running-in of the machine is:
a) the stage of the machine's operation without load,
b) the process of achieving optimal clearances and even wear of parts,
c) an intensive full load test of the machine.322. During the running-in of the machine, the operator should pay attention to:
a) limit the machine's load to the maximum level specified in the operating and maintenance manual,
b) always turn off the lubrication systems before operation,c) operate at maximum load.323. The operator uses the operating and maintenance manual of the machine or technical device to:
a) record all faults of the machine or device noticed during operation,b) log the hours worked and fuel consumption by the machine,
c) understand the technical specifications, safety rules, and methods of repairing faults.
324. The operational part of the operating and maintenance manual of the machine or device includes:
a) a detailed description of the construction and operation of all elements of the machine/device,
b) instructions regarding, among others, controlling the machine/device,
c) a catalog of spare parts.325. The operating and maintenance manual must always be present with the machine/device because:
a) its absence may be a reason for the machine not being allowed to operate by the safety inspector,
b) it is essential for periodic technical inspections,c) it minimizes the risk of it being lost.326. Basic operation of hydraulic hoses in the working system of an excavator consists of:
a) daily tightening of hose connections to ensure their tightness,b) regular oil replacement in the hoses,
c) visually checking their tightness and condition to prevent oil leaks.
327. The elements of the working system that require regular lubrication are:
a) pins connecting individual parts of the equipment,
b) flexible hydraulic hoses,c) side surfaces of hydraulic cylinders.328. The SAE designation on oil refers to:
a) engine oil pressure,b) multi-season qualification of the oil,
c) engine oil viscosity, that is, its ability to flow and lubricate.
329. Oil with the symbol SAE 15W-40 means that:
a) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 15W,b) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40,
c) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 15W, and at positive temperatures of summer oil class SAE 40.
330. Oil with the symbol SAE 10W-30 means that:
a) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 30,b) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W,
c) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W, and at positive temperatures of summer oil class SAE 30.
331. The SAE 10W-30 symbol means:
a) multi-season engine oil with specified parameters,
b) hydraulic oil with specified parameters,c) a mixture of engine oil and hydraulic oil.332. Engine oil with the SAE 5W-40 symbol means that:
a) at negative temperature it has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40,b) at positive temperature it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 5W,
c) at negative temperature it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 5W, and at positive temperature of summer oil class SAE 40.
333. The symbol of the warning light shown in the graphic means:
a) low engine oil level,
b) low coolant level,c) low engine oil pressure.
334. The symbol of the warning light shown in the graphic means:
a) low coolant level,
b) low engine oil pressure,
c) low fuel level.
335. The symbol of the light shown means:
a) engine oil,
b) engine oil filter,c) hydraulic oil.
336. The presented symbol of the indicator means:
a) hydraulic oil level,
b) engine oil level,
c) engine coolant level.337. Oils with designations 70W, 85W, 80W-90 are:
a) gear oils,
b) brake oils,c) engine oils.338. In case of the need to dismantle the cover/protection for servicing, it is not allowed to:
a) reassemble the cover/protection,b) record such a fact in the documentation,
c) start working with the technical device without installing the cover/protection.
339. The lighting of the battery charging indicator signals to the operator of the construction machine a failure of:
a) battery switch,
b) V-belt and/or alternator,
c) starter.340. The operator's seat cannot be adjusted when:
a) the engine is not started,b) the seat is turned backwards,
c) the machine is in motion.
341. If during daily technical service before work the operator notices that one of the windows in the cabin is cracked, then:
a) may start work if it is not the front window,
b) should not start work,
c) may start work provided that the window is only cracked and has not "fallen out".342. Before starting work, the operator should:
a) install sunshade covers on the windows,
b) clean the windows by removing snow, ice, and other contaminants,
c) open the windows for better communication.343. When changing hydraulic oils, one should:
a) always use only biodegradable oils,
b) use only types of oils recommended by the machine manufacturer,
c) use any type of oil.344. To ensure the technical efficiency of the working machine, one should:
a) follow technical service and maintenance according to the operating and maintenance instructions,
b) operate the machine/technical device without exceeding 50% of the permissible load,c) operate the machine/technical device only under full load.345. At the construction site, empty containers of lubricants, oil filters, and used oils should be:
a) placed in a properly marked container for hazardous waste,
b) thrown into the mixed waste container,c) thrown into any waste container.346. Stickers (pictograms) located on the machine/technical device serve to:
a) indicate places where one can stay without any risk,
b) convey important information about safety and the use of the machine/technical device,
c) inform about the prohibition of approaching the machine/technical device.347. Lubrication points in the machine should be serviced:
a) during all breaks in work,b) always after 10 hours of work,
c) according to the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine.
348. Engine oil with parameters 5W-50 is:
a) a multi-season oil,
b) an oil only for summer,c) an oil only for winter.349. Before starting work on a new type of machine/technical device, the operator should:
a) familiarize themselves with the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine/technical device,
b) perform a periodic inspection,c) conduct a trial operation.350. OTC service is:
a) temporary technical service,b) round-the-clock technical service,
c) daily technical service.
351. The basic types of service are:
a) round-the-clock service, multi-season service, annual service, technological service,b) visual service, active service, passive service,
c) daily service, periodic service, warehouse service, transport service.
352. Batteries, when starting the machine using a supporting battery, should be connected:
a) in parallel,
b) in series,c) crosswise.353. In the case of electrolyte loss caused by spillage through a cracked battery case, one should:
a) secure the leak area in terms of environmental protection, and then replace the battery,
b) add demineralized water to a level of 10 mm above the top edges of the plates,c) add electrolyte to the proper level and charge the battery.354. The activities performed by the operator as part of daily service during work are:
a) replenishing operating fluids and daily lubrication,
b) auditory control of the machine's operation and monitoring indicators,
c) cleaning the machine.355. When inflating a tire of the machine's wheel, one should:
a) stand by the inflated wheel provided that a protective helmet is worn,b) check the state of the inflated wheel by bending the side part of the tire,
c) not stand directly by the inflated wheel.
356. If the manufacturer has provided for operational reaching, it should be carried out:
a) with the load recommended in the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine/technical device,
b) with the maximum load,c) without load.357. During the storage of the machine on a wheeled chassis, the wheels of the machine should be:
a) unloaded,
b) secured with wedges,c) removed from the machine.358. Driving the machine on public roads should be done in the position:
a) working,b) transfer,
c) transport.
359. During the loading of the machine onto the transport vehicle, the operator should:
a) approach at a speed of at least 5 [km/h],
b) know the permissible angle of inclination of the loading ramps for the given machine,
c) know the maximum speed allowed for the given transport vehicle.360. The responsibility for the placement and securing of the machine on the transport vehicle lies with:
a) the owner or the person responsible for the machines in the company,
b) the carrier (e.g. driver),
c) the operator of the machine.361. When storing the machine, one must ensure that:
a) the machine is facing the exit,b) no documents of the machine are left in the cabin,
c) there are no leaks of operating fluids.
362. Securing the machine during storage downtime involves:
a) cleaning the machine of dirt and corrosion,
b) filling the hydraulic oil tank to the top,c) disassembling all filters and protecting them from moisture.363. The rods of hydraulic cylinders, during technical service of the stored machine, should be:
a) protected against corrosion,
b) disassembled and cleaned,c) taken apart and the seals replaced.364. During the transport of the machine:
a) tools and other items can be transported in the bucket if it is free,b) for short distances, tools and other items can be transported in the working tool,
c) tools and other items cannot be transported in the working tool.
365. When loading the machine onto the transport vehicle:
a) assistance from a second person is recommended,
b) the operator should drive onto the transport vehicle independently,c) assistance from a second person is recommended only when loading onto a low-loader trailer.366. The recommended way to load heavy working machines onto low-loader trailers is:
a) loading using other machines,
b) mechanized loading from the front ramp,
c) loading on ropes.367. During longer storage of the machine, the fuel tank should be:
a) filled to the top to prevent condensation of water vapor inside the tank,
b) filled to 1/3 of its capacity and left open,c) empty to avoid fire hazards.368. During daily operation of the machine, the condition of should be checked:
a) connections and tightness of the hydraulic system,
b) tools and equipment,c) the value of working pressure in the hydraulic system.369. If the machine's engine has not been running for a long time, during daily operation one should:
a) replace the fuel pre-filter,b) start the engine and gently increase the RPM to reach the operating temperature faster,
c) check the oil level and other operating fluids.
370. When inflating tires on a working machine, the operator should:
a) ensure that bystanders are nearby,
b) stand to the side of the tire tread or on the other side of the machine,
c) stand directly in front of the tire to monitor the pressure.371. Information regarding faults, their codes, and methods of removal can be found in the document named:
a) operating and maintenance manual,
b) daily report,c) construction machine book.372. The correct order for connecting the auxiliary battery to the discharged battery in the machine is as follows:
a) positive terminal of the machine's battery, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, machine frame,
b) machine frame, positive terminal of the machine's battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery,c) negative terminal of the machine's battery, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, machine frame.373. In the event of electrolyte loss in the battery, one should:
a) refill it with water other than distilled,
b) refill it with distilled or demineralized water,
c) refill it with DOT-3 fluid.374. Checking the charge state of the 12 [V] starter battery by "sparking" poses a risk of:
a) electric shock from high voltage,b) seizing the alternator,
c) explosion of hydrogen escaping from the battery.
375. Before storing wheels in a wheeled machine, one should:
a) relieve the load to prevent tire deformation,
b) inflate to maximum pressure to prevent tire deformation,c) loosen to reduce the static load on the mounting bolts.376. The scope of daily technical service of a machine does not include:
a) checking and adjusting valve clearances,
b) checking the oil level in the engine,c) checking the condition of the tires and tire pressure.377. When cleaning the radiator, to avoid damaging it, you should:
a) use a strong stream of water under high pressure,b) use sharp tools for cleaning,
c) keep the compressed air nozzle at an appropriate distance from the radiator.
378. The purpose of lubrication in working machines is:
a) to raise the temperature of cooperating elements,
b) to reduce friction,
c) to increase the engine speed.379. The most commonly used type of fuses in electrical installations of working machines is:
a) cartridge fuses,
b) automatic fuses,c) residual current devices.380. The phenomenon of electrostatic charge during refueling a machine can lead to:
a) fire,
b) poisoning,c) short circuit of the electrical installation.381. In the case of connecting two batteries in parallel with different rated voltages:
a) both batteries may discharge,
b) there may be an explosion of the battery with the lower rated voltage,
c) thicker cables should be used than with batteries of the same rated voltages.382. When checking the pressure in a tire, the machine should be:
a) unloaded, and the tire should be cold,
b) running and warmed up,c) loaded to make the measurement more accurate.383. The correct way to connect a battery to a charger during charging is:
a) the positive terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger, the negative terminal of the battery to the negative terminal of the charger,
b) the positive terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger, the negative terminal of the charger to the "ground" of the machine,c) the positive terminal of the battery to the negative terminal of the charger, the negative terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger.384. After connecting the battery, the terminals are lubricated with:
a) graphite grease,b) grease containing molybdenum disulfide,
c) technical vaseline.
385. To safely inflate a tire, you should:
a) use a short pneumatic hose with a manometer,
b) stand to the side of the tire tread and use a long pneumatic hose,
c) stand opposite the tire valve while inflating.386. One of the goals of warehouse service is:
a) repairing damaged machine components before the next season,b) preparing the machine for transport for the future user,
c) protecting the machine from corrosion and other harmful factors during long-term storage.
387. If during daily technical service the operator notices a leak in the cooling system, then he should:
a) report the leak and not use the machine until it is repaired,
b) top up the coolant and continue working,c) organize the fluid and top up to the minimum level if the leak is small.388. The level of coolant in the expansion tank should be checked:
a) only in case of engine overheating,
b) during every daily technical service,
c) only during periodic technical service.389. If the operator notices a hydraulic fluid leak during daily technical service, he should:
a) reduce the RPM and continue working,b) top up the oil and continue working,
c) report the leak and not use the machine until it is repaired.
390. The frequency of performing periodic technical service depends on:
a) the number of completed working cycles,
b) the number of hours worked (engine hours),
c) the production date of the machine.391. If during daily technical service the operator notices a low level of engine oil, he should:
a) top up the oil to the appropriate level,
b) top up the level with any available oil, even if it is of a different type,c) start working if the level is not very low and the warning light is not on.392. A characteristic activity for seasonal technical service is:
a) replacing the coolant with one appropriate for the season,
b) checking the working pressure values of the hydraulic system,c) checking the charging voltage values.393. The basic service activities that must be performed before starting a diesel engine are:
a) checking the oil level in the gearbox, checking the operation of the working system, checking the operation of the brakes,
b) checking the oil level in the engine, checking the coolant level, checking the condition of the air filter,
c) bleeding the fuel system, checking the level of transmission oil, checking the starter.394. Activities performed as part of daily technical service (OTC) carried out during the operation of the machine include:
a) primarily the sensory control of the proper operation of the machine's working system,
b) observation of control and measuring instruments and checking the proper operation of the machine using sight, hearing, and smell,
c) observation only of control and measuring indicators such as: oil pressure, engine temperature, hydraulic oil temperature.395. We distinguish, among others, the following types of technical services:
a) break-in, daily, periodic, seasonal, storage, emergency, night,b) transport, break-in, storage, service-repair (ON), catalog,