Single-bucket loaders class I
Study mode
Question of 372
1. What is the minimum allowable distance of the machine from the reach of the failure wedge?
a) 0.4 [m],
b) 0.6 [m],
c) 0.8 [m].2. The safe distance of the machine from the excavation is:
a) reach of the failure wedge + 0.6 [m],
b) 1.6 [m],c) depth of the excavation + 0.6 [m].
3. Based on the presented table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] made in cohesive soils:
a) 1.6 [m],
b) 1 [m],c) 2.6 [m].4. Based on the presented table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] made in fractured rocks:
a) 4.6 [m],b) 2.6 [m],
c) 3.6 [m].
5. Based on the presented table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] made in slightly cohesive soils:
a) 3.6 [m],
b) 3.1 [m],
c) 2.6 [m]. Single-bucket loaders Class I6. What is the minimum safe distance from the UPPER edge of the embankment that a machine can approach, given the following data: Soil category - I (dry sand), height of the embankment - h = 2 [m], horizontal distance between the upper and lower edges of the embankment - a = 2.5 [m]?
a) 0.6 [m],b) 3.6 [m],
c) 1.1 [m].
7. What is the minimum safe distance from the UPPER edge of the embankment that a machine can approach, given the following data: Soil category - II (slightly cohesive soils), height of the embankment - h = 4 [m], horizontal distance between the upper and lower edges of the embankment - a = 2.5 [m]?
a) 5.6 [m],
b) 3.1 [m],
c) 0.6 [m].8. At what horizontal distance from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage not exceeding 1 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 2 [m],b) not less than 5 [m],
c) not less than 3 [m].
9. At what horizontal distance from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 10 [m],b) not less than 15 [m],
c) not less than 5 [m].
10. At what horizontal distance from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 15 [m],
b) not less than 10 [m],
c) not less than 5 [m].11. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?
a) not less than 10 [m],b) not less than 20 [m],
c) not less than 15 [m].
12. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?
a) not less than 15 [m],b) not less than 10 [m],
c) not less than 30 [m].
13. Is it possible to organize workstations in the danger zone under overhead power lines?
a) yes, always,b) no, never,
c) yes, but only after meeting additional requirements.
14. What is the safe distance X for the operation of a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [V]?
a) not less than 30 [m],
b) not less than 3 [m],
c) not less than 5 [m].15. What is the safe distance X for the operation of a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV]?
a) not less than 15 [m],b) not less than 10 [m],
c) not less than 5 [m].
16. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?
a) not less than 10 [m],
b) not less than 30 [m],c) not less than 15 [m].17. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?
a) not less than 5 [m],
b) not less than 10 [m],
c) not less than 15 [m].18. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV]?
a) not less than 15 [m],
b) not less than 50 [m],c) not less than 30 [m].19. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV]?
a) not less than 30 [m],
b) not less than 10 [m],
c) not less than 15 [m].20. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]?
a) not less than 3 [m],
b) not less than 30 [m],
c) not less than 40 [m].21. Work in the danger zone (overhead high voltage power line):
a) may be carried out provided that the line is disconnected from the voltage, the work is performed in a zone limited by groundings and at least one grounding is visible from the work site,
b) may not be carried out under any circumstances under electrical lines in the danger zone,c) may be carried out provided that permission from the site manager has been granted.22. The operator must perform work at a distance X from the active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [V]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 2 [m],b) 1 [m],
c) 5 [m].
23. The operator must perform work at a distance X from the active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 5 [m],b) 3 [m],
c) 15 [m].
24. The operator must perform work at a distance X from the active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 50 [m],
b) 15 [m],c) 5 [m].25. If the injured person has a detectable pulse but is not breathing, then:
a) the airways should be cleared and artificial respiration started,
b) cardiopulmonary resuscitation should be performed,c) he should not be touched.26. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, one should primarily:
a) move away from the accident site to call a doctor,
b) provide assistance to those in life-threatening situations,
c) give the injured medication.27. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, one should primarily:
a) move away from the accident site to call a doctor,b) provide assistance to those in life-threatening situations,
c) take care of one's own safety.
28. The obligation to provide first aid to accident victims rests with:
a) everyone, but for any mistakes, there is always a risk of criminal liability,
b) everyone, as one can always perform part of the rescue tasks,
c) only those who have medical training.29. The accident victim regained consciousness after a few minutes and wants to go home. In this situation, one should:
a) allow her to go home, recommending a visit to a doctor,b) give her something to drink and painkillers,
c) urge her to stay and call for medical help.
30. First aid in a situation where a foreign body has entered the eye of the injured person consists of:
a) rinsing with distilled water directing the stream to the center of the eye,b) rinsing the eye with eye drops,
c) rinsing with clean water directing the stream from the nose outward from the eye.
31. The injured person cut their leg on an unsecured sharp element. Providing first aid in this situation is:
a) sticking a plaster directly on the wound,b) using a tourniquet,
c) applying sterile gauze, wrapping the wound with a bandage.
32. Suspecting spinal injury in a person who has fallen from a height and is conscious, one should:
a) lay them in the recovery position,b) seat them in a semi-reclining position,
c) not move them and wait for medical services to arrive.
33. To move away from the place where the electric wire has been broken and the area is under voltage, one should:
a) step away from this place slowly, taking small steps, trying to maintain continuous contact of the feet with the ground,
b) quickly step away from the source of electric shock, lifting the feet high,c) run as fast as possible to a place that we assess as safe.34. First aid in the case of a first-degree burn is:
a) applying ointment to the burned area,
b) pouring cold water on the burned area,
c) applying greasy cream to the burned area.35. During work, a high-voltage power line was broken, resulting in a colleague being electrocuted. In this situation, the correct behavior is:
a) turn off the power source as quickly as possible,
b) call other colleagues for help with the injured person,c) approach the injured person to provide first aid.36. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation is performed until:
a) we have confirmed that the victim has started breathing and circulation has returned,
b) the fire department arrives and secures the area,c) 10 minutes have passed.37. Immediate action in the case of severe bleeding from an injured upper limb includes:
a) disinfecting the wound with salicylic alcohol,
b) applying a dressing, directly compressing the bleeding site, and elevating the limb,
c) lowering the limb below heart level.38. In the case of a nosebleed, one should:
a) tilt the head back and place a cold compress on the neck,
b) lean the bleeding person's head forward, pinch the nostrils,
c) lay the injured person on their back.39. The first step in dealing with a carbon monoxide poisoning victim in a closed room is:
a) the quickest possible evacuation of the victim from that room,
b) conducting a preliminary examination,c) assessing ABC.40. First aid during seizures caused by an epileptic attack consists of:
a) seating the victim in a semi-sitting position and giving them something to drink,b) placing a wooden object in the victim's mouth to prevent biting the tongue,
c) protecting the victim's head from injuries.
41. In case of suspected spinal injury in the cervical section in a conscious person, one should:
a) place the injured person in a lateral position,b) seat the injured person on a chair with a high backrest,
c) not allow the injured person to move their head.
42. The most important thing when a person is buried under earth, sand, or gravel is:
a) notifying the family,b) waiting for the arrival of the ambulance,
c) locating the injured person.
43. First aid for a person with a metal rod embedded in their lower leg involves calling for help and:
a) moving the rod to check if the artery is damaged,b) removing the embedded rod,
c) securing the rod to prevent movement.
44. The indication for using an AED defibrillator is:
a) severe dizziness,
b) absence of detectable breath and pulse in the injured person,
c) severe chest pain.45. During the operation of a machine/technical device, the prohibited actions while taking the exam are:
a) changing the working tool,b) performing daily technical service (OTC),
c) making structural changes to the machine/technical device.
46. During the operation of the machine/technical device, the prohibited activities are:
a) cleaning the machine/technical device using gasoline or solvents whose vapors can create flammable/explosive gas mixtures,
b) refueling the machine/technical device from a canister,c) cleaning the machine/technical device using a product in accordance with the operating and maintenance instructions.47. When performing earthworks with the machine for which you are taking the exam, it is unacceptable to:
a) use the machine's blade at a safe distance from the excavation,b) extend the machine's blade towards the excavation,
c) position the machine within the reach of the wedge of the collapse.
48. When performing earthworks with the machine for which you are taking the exam, it is unacceptable to:
a) use the machine on clay soils at air temperatures above 30°C,
b) use the machine on clay soils during heavy rain,
c) use the machine on clay soils at air temperatures below -5°C.49. When performing earthworks with the machine for which you are taking the exam, it is unacceptable to:
a) have people within the reach of the machine's working tool,
b) have people at a distance greater than the sum of the maximum reach of the working tool plus 6 meters,c) have people near the machine during technical maintenance.50. When performing work, it is unacceptable to:
a) work near active overhead power lines at a distance less than specified by regulations,
b) work near an active power line with a rated voltage of 10 [kV] at a distance of 10 [m],c) work near an active power line with a rated voltage of 20 [kV] at a distance of 15 [m].51. The machine/technical device you are taking the exam for can only be operated by:
a) a person with written confirmation of course completion in the form of a plastic card,
b) a person who has completed training and obtained a positive result from the test conducted by the commission appointed by the Łukasiewicz Research Network – Warsaw Institute of Technology,
c) any adult person with technical education and a driving license of the appropriate category.52. The rights to operate machines/technical devices you are taking the exam for are issued by:
a) Łukasiewicz Research Network - Warsaw Institute of Technology (LRN - WIT),
b) Office of Technical Inspection (UTI),c) County Office appropriate for the address of the person applying for the rights.53. The rights to operate machines/technical devices you are taking the exam for:
a) are valid indefinitely,
b) are valid for 5 years from the date of issue,c) are valid for 10 years from the date of issue.54. A person holding the rights to operate: "Single-bucket loaders class I" can operate based on them:
a) all single-bucket loaders and graders,
b) all single-bucket loaders and bulldozers up to 110 [kW] engine power,
c) only single-bucket loaders over 20 [t] operating weight.55. An employee operating the machine/technical device you are taking the exam for can start working provided that:
a) they have a valid category D driving license,b) the machine/technical device has a valid UTI inspection,
c) they have the rights to operate this type of machine/technical device.
56. In the event of a threat to life, health, property, or the environment caused by a machine/technical device failure, the operator:
a) immediately stops work and informs the supervisor of this fact,
b) continues working but informs the supervisor of the situation at the end of the shift,c) continues working but makes an appropriate entry in the maintenance log at the end of the shift.57. Lifting and transporting people using working equipment:
a) is always prohibited,
b) is possible, but only outside the public road area,c) requires the consent of the construction manager.58. An employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam has the right to refuse to work when:
a) they have the required personal protective equipment,
b) this work requires special psychophysical fitness, and their psychophysical state does not ensure its safe execution and poses a threat to others,
c) there is an overhead power line with a rated voltage of 110 [kV] at a distance of 35 meters.59. An employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is obliged to stop work when:
a) there is an overhead power line at a distance of 35 meters,b) they have the required personal protective equipment,
c) the work they are performing poses a direct threat to the health or life of others.
60. An employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is obliged to:
a) comply with the provisions of the operating and maintenance instructions for the machine/technical device,
b) always have a category B driving license,c) independently perform all current repairs of the machine/technical device.61. The person directly responsible for the safe operation of the machine you are taking the exam for is:
a) machine operator,
b) construction manager,c) machine owner.62. The operator's book and qualifications for the machine/technical device you are taking the exam for are issued by:
a) Łukasiewicz Research Network - Warsaw Institute of Technology,
b) Transport Technical Supervision (TDT),c) Office of Technical Inspection (UDT).63. The obligation to use personal protective equipment:
a) arises from the operating and maintenance instructions and health and safety regulations,
b) arises only from internal regulations,c) does not apply on hot days.64. An employee who witnesses an accident at work:
a) only needs to inform their supervisor,
b) is obliged to assist the victims, inform the supervisor, and if necessary secure the accident site,
c) is obliged to assist the victims and then immediately leave the accident site.65. What elements of the machine you are taking the exam for protect the operator in case the machine tips over:
a) machine seat,
b) ROPS type machine cabin and safety belts,
c) certified safety helmet and reflective vest.66. In the event of loss of stability of a machine equipped with a ROPS cabin, the operator should:
a) maintain a seated position while holding firmly to the steering wheel or other stable elements in the cabin,
b) quickly turn left and raise the working equipment as high as possible,c) try to leave the cabin as quickly as possible (before the machine tips over).67. In the event of loss of stability of a machine equipped with a ROPS cabin, the operator should:
a) remain in the cabin,
b) immediately jump out of the cabin,c) turn on the warning/emergency lights.68. The danger zone is defined as:
a) a place where workers must only wear safety helmets,
b) a place where there are threats to the health and life of people,
c) a place where work requiring specialized equipment takes place, and the presence of people is only allowed at night.69. The area that the operator should check and secure before starting work with the machine/technical device (because there are threats to the health and life of people) is called:
a) blind spot,
b) danger zone,
c) high-risk area.
70. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:
a) "raise up",
b) "turn the machine",c) "lower down".
71. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "turn the machine",
b) "lower down",
c) "raise up".
72. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "movement in the indicated direction",
b) "turn the machine",c) "raise up".
73. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "movement in the indicated direction",
b) "turn the machine",c) "raise up".
74. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "end of operation",
b) "horizontal distance",
c) "stop".
75. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "movement backward",b) "fast movement",
c) "movement forward".
76. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "slow movement",
b) "movement backward",
c) "movement forward".
77. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "end of operation",b) "stop",
c) "vertical distance".
78. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "movement backward",b) "horizontal distance",
c) "STOP. Emergency stop".
79. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "movement backward",b) "STOP. Emergency stop",
c) "START. Beginning of direction".
80. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "STOP. Break - end of movement",
b) "STOP. Emergency stop",c) "movement backward".
81. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "lower down",b) "horizontal distance",
c) "END. Stop operation".
82. During the charging of batteries, a gas with highly explosive properties is released. This gas is:
a) hydrogen,
b) methane,c) ethane.83. Firefighting foam can be used to extinguish fires of group:
a) C and D,
b) A and B,
c) only C.84. Improper use of a snow extinguisher can result in:
a) burns from the extinguisher components,
b) frostbite caused by the extinguishing agent,
c) fainting.85. Water, fire blanket, powder extinguisher, carbon dioxide, sand are extinguishing agents that we will use to extinguish:
a) solid bodies,
b) liquids,c) oils.86. We can call sorbents:
a) materials made of natural or synthetic substances that absorb liquids,
b) fire blankets,c) petroleum substances.87. Group A fires concern:
a) solid bodies, whose normal combustion occurs with the formation of glowing coals, e.g. wood, paper, etc.,
b) flammable liquids,c) flammable gases.88. Group B fires concern:
a) metals, e.g. magnesium, sodium, potassium, aluminum, titanium, etc.,b) flammable gases,
c) liquids and solid materials that melt, e.g. plastics, fuels, oils, etc..
89. Group C fires concern:
a) solid bodies,b) flammable liquids,
c) gases, e.g. methane, propane, acetylene, hydrogen.
90. Seeing such a pictogram you are informed about:
a) the collection point during evacuation,
b) the danger zone,c) a larger number of people in a given area.
91. During work, you noticed a sign marked 'Zone 0'. It informs about:
a) the zone of existing fire load in the building,
b) the space where an explosive atmosphere exists,
c) the zone of existing fire hazard category.
92. The presented pictogram informs about:
a) internal hydrant,
b) set of fire protection equipment,
c) main power switch.
93. Seeing such a pictogram, you are informed about:
a) the assembly point during evacuation,
b) the emergency exit,
c) the location of first aid.
94. Seeing such a pictogram, you are informed about:
a) the prohibition of using the fire extinguisher,b) the high temperature affecting the fire extinguisher,
c) the location of the fire extinguisher.
95. You see a person whose clothing is on fire and who, in panic, is running away. Your reaction is:
a) you tell him to wait in an upright position for the arrival of rescue services,
b) you try to stop him, lay him on the ground, and start extinguishing,
c) you wave your hands or outer covering strongly next to him to extinguish the burning clothing.96. Electrical devices and installations can be extinguished using:
a) foam extinguishers,
b) powder or snow extinguishers,
c) water.97. Burning fuel can be extinguished using:
a) powder, foam or snow extinguishers,
b) water,c) low-octane ethylene.98. Clothing burning on a person can be extinguished using:
a) water mist extinguisher or fire blanket,
b) plastic material,c) snow or powder extinguisher.99. What obligations does an employee have when they decide to refrain from work due to health and safety regulations?
a) They must immediately inform their supervisor,
b) They have no obligations in this situation,c) They should organize work for others.100. How can an operator prevent hazards in the workplace?
a) By ignoring health and safety rules,
b) By using personal protective equipment to minimize risk,
c) By not reporting faults in machines.101. Which of the following situations is prohibited while operating a machine?
a) Reporting machine faults at regular intervals,
b) Moving loads over people,
c) Working near machines with appropriate signage.102. It is not permissible to position the workplace directly under active overhead power lines or at a horizontal distance from the outermost conductors of less than:
a) for lines: 1 [kV] - 3 [m], 15 [kV] - 5 [m], 30 [kV] - 10 [m], 110 [kV] - 15 [m], 400 [kV] - 30 [m],
b) for all voltages - 1 [m] from the power line,c) for lines: 1 [kV] - 1 [m], 15 [kV] - 3 [m], 30 [kV] - 5 [m], 110 [kV] - 10 [m].103. How does the operator know what personal protective equipment is required for a given machine/technical device?
a) The operator must independently choose the appropriate protective measures,
b) Information about the necessary personal protective equipment is included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine,
c) The choice of personal protective equipment depends on the opinion of colleagues at work.104. The operator should refuse to perform a task when:
a) the work requires familiarization with the location of underground and above-ground utilities,b) the work is being performed at night,
c) the work is inconsistent with the intended use of the machine/technical device.
105. The operator can prevent hazards while operating a machine/technical device by:
a) limiting the use of personal protective equipment,b) inattention and routine,
c) following health and safety rules and adhering to the operating instructions.
106. Which of the following situations is unacceptable during the use of a machine/technical device?
a) Reporting faults directly to the supervisor,b) Operating the machine without supervision,
c) Unauthorized persons being in the danger zone caused by the operation of the machine/technical device.
107. An accident at work is considered to be:
a) a long-term event related to the work performed, caused by an internal reason, resulting in damage to equipment,
b) a sudden event related to the work performed, caused by an external reason, resulting in injury or death,
c) a sudden event unrelated to the work performed, caused by an external reason, resulting in injury or death.108. A fatal accident at work is considered to be an accident in which death occurred:
a) only at the moment of the accident,
b) within a period not exceeding 6 months from the date of the accident,
c) after a period exceeding 6 months from the date of the accident.109. It is prohibited to:
a) allow unauthorized persons within the reach of the machine's operation and work on slopes exceeding the permissible incline,
b) report noticed faults to the supervisor before starting work,c) undertake work with the machine after completing training and obtaining the appropriate qualifications.110. When getting on and off the machine, it is prohibited to:
a) face the machine while getting on and off,b) intensively use the handrails and steps,
c) use the control lever as support.
111. Occupational health and safety regulations require:
a) to perform a warranty inspection of the working machine before one year from its purchase,b) to scrap the old working machine within the time specified in its operating and maintenance manual, while adhering to the requirements for the disposal of hazardous materials,
c) to secure the working machine during breaks in its operation against accidental activation by unauthorized persons.
112. In the event of a person being electrocuted:
a) resuscitation should be started immediately, regardless of whether the power source has been disconnected,
b) one must not touch the victim until the power source is disconnected,
c) it is recommended to use any tools to disconnect the power, regardless of their actual purpose.113. In the event of a person being buried under earth or sand:
a) they should be dug out as quickly as possible, if it is safe for the person undertaking the rescue action,
b) we always calmly wait for rescue services - any attempt to help would be too dangerous,c) they should be dug out as quickly as possible regardless of one's own safety - it is about their life.114. Seeing a person whose clothes are on fire, one should first:
a) leave the victim standing to facilitate air access and extinguish the flames faster,b) use a fire extinguisher, preferably a snow one, to extinguish the burning clothing, and then try to quickly tear off the melted clothing,
c) cut off the air supply by rolling the victim or wrapping them in a fire blanket, wet clothing, or a wet blanket.
115. If during earthworks, objects difficult to identify are discovered, then:
a) a danger zone with a radius of 6 [m] should be designated, outside of which normal work can continue,b) earthworks can continue if a distance of at least 1 [m] is maintained from such an object,
c) further work is interrupted and the person supervising the earthworks is notified.
116. In the case of finding an unexploded ordnance during earthworks, one should:
a) ignore the unexploded ordnance if it does not pose an immediate threat,
b) stop work, remove other workers from the danger zone, notify supervisors, and secure the area,
c) try to carefully remove the unexploded ordnance from the workplace and continue working.117. The wedge of soil collapse:
a) occurs only when the soil is in a frozen state,b) is the area around the working machine extending a distance of 6 [m] beyond its farthest reach,
c) occurs when the slope angle exceeds the natural slope angle of the soil.
118. The reach of the soil collapse wedge:
a) depends solely on the soil temperature,
b) depends on the depth of the excavation and the category of the soil,
c) depends on the speed of the machine's operation and the efficiency of the operator.119. The angle of the natural slope is:
a) the angle at which the soil will definitely slide by itself - depends solely on the temperature of that soil,b) the angle at which the machine can be safely operated - it depends on the parameters of the given machine,
c) the maximum slope at which the soil can remain without sliding - it depends, among other things, on the category of the soil.
120. The rules and method of marking works conducted on public roads 'under traffic':
a) is determined solely by the decision of the construction manager, without the need to prepare an additional project,
b) is determined by the Temporary Traffic Organization Project, which presents the types and methods of placing road signs, traffic lights, sound signals, and traffic safety devices,
c) are determined by regulations regarding permanent road marking, which do not take into account temporary changes in traffic.121. When carrying out work in the road lane:
a) one must familiarize oneself with the Safe Work Execution Instruction (IBWR) and use personal protective equipment such as hard hats, work shoes, and high-visibility protective clothing,
b) employees can work without personal protective equipment as long as the work is short-term,c) vehicles used in the work can be unmarked if they are visible up close.122. Soil block wedge:
a) is an area where the soil becomes unstable - its extent depends solely on the depth of the excavation, the type of soil does not matter here,
b) occurs when the slope angle exceeds the natural slope angle of the soil - its extent depends on the type of soil and the depth of the excavation or the height of the slope,
c) is the space around the machine, dependent on the working speed of the machine and its weight.123. The natural slope angle is:
a) the angle at which the machine can safely move on the embankment, regardless of the soil category,
b) the maximum slope at which the soil can remain without sliding - it depends on the type of soil, e.g., moisture, cohesiveness, and grain size,
c) the slope at which any embankment becomes unstable, regardless of the type of soil.124. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is performed:
a) only in the case of fainting and minor injuries, to improve blood circulation,b) when the injured person is breathing but unconscious, with no contact,
c) when the injured person is not breathing and there is no detectable pulse. For a non-professional rescuer, lack of breathing is a sufficient basis to start resuscitation.
125. An employee has the right to refrain from performing work due to health and safety regulations, notifying their supervisor immediately if:
a) the work they are performing has not been reported to the construction supervision,b) the working conditions do not pose a threat, but are too difficult for them,
c) the working conditions pose a direct threat to health or life.
126. Physical factors generating hazards in the workplace are:
a) lack of or inadequate training for employees,
b) spilled lubricants, oils, and fuels,
c) lack of appropriate medical examinations for the employee.127. Working with a machine/technical device is not allowed when:
a) the second operator has not reported an upcoming inspection,
b) it is malfunctioning,
c) its repair was carried out after dark.128. Working near overhead power lines:
a) always requires double grounding of the line,
b) is possible without meeting additional requirements provided that specific distances depending on the rated voltage of the line are maintained,
c) always requires power to be turned off in the line.129. The operator is obliged to refuse to work if:
a) the working machine is malfunctioning,
b) there is no construction manager or any other person authorized to supervise at the work site,c) they would have to work under power lines, and the power in them has been turned off and the line grounded.130. The danger zone from a machine/technical device is:
a) always the entire fenced construction site,
b) a place where there are hazards to health or life of people,
c) a place where the machine/technical device cannot be used.131. Accidents at work can result from the poor technical condition of the working machine, for example:
a) failure of the drive system,
b) injury to a limb, torso, or head,
c) damage to the equipment.132. Unacceptable behaviors are:
a) operating a faulty machine and working under the influence of alcohol,
b) performing daily maintenance of the machine after dark,c) working after dark in a well-lit place, with full concentration of the operator.133. The general rules for safely getting on and off the machine are:
a) using cables and levers as aids when getting on is permissible when the machine is turned off,b) one can descend backwards from the machine, but only when the steps are slippery,
c) a person should face the machine, remember the "three-point support" principle, and use only specially made steps and handrails.
134. The basic duties of an employee regarding occupational health and safety are:
a) not being late for work, finishing it on time, confirming presence at work in the manner accepted by the employer,b) enforcing labor code regulations regarding their rights, including payment for overtime worked,
c) adhering to health and safety regulations and principles, taking care of the condition of machines and tools, maintaining order in the workplace, and using personal protective equipment.
135. In the case of a person electrocuted, after disconnecting the power source, one should:
a) leave the injured person alone if they have regained consciousness, without further actions,
b) check the condition of the injured person, and if necessary: call for help, clear the airways, perform resuscitation, and use an AED if available,
c) move the injured person to another location as quickly as possible.136. When a person buried under earth or sand is partially dug out, one should:
a) clear the airways as quickly as possible,
b) focus on digging out the lower parts of the victim's body,c) dig out the left arm as quickly as possible to check the pulse.137. After extinguishing flames on a person with burns and calling for help, one should:
a) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes, without tearing off the embedded clothing,
b) use a snow extinguisher to cool the burn area,c) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes, first tearing off the embedded clothing.138. If the operator notices faults that may prevent the proper operation of the machine, then:
a) they are obliged to refuse to start the machine and report this fact to their supervisor,
b) ignore the faults if the machine is currently operating correctly,c) they should continue working and repair the machine after completing the task.139. For optical marking of works carried out in the road lane, the following are used:
a) only traffic lights, flashing,
b) road cones in red or orange color, and after dark, cones with white reflective stripes and separators,
c) road cones in any well-visible color and uniform red obstacles placed at the work site.140. What markings should vehicles and machines used for work in the road lane have?
a) Vehicles and machines should be marked only when working after dark. The method of marking is specified in the operating and maintenance instructions of the given machine,b) Vehicles should use light signals of any color visible from a distance. Other machines do not need to be additionally marked,
c) Vehicles should be equipped with yellow light signals visible from at least 150 m, and machines on the roadway should be marked with road barriers with reflective elements and warning lights.
141. Statement: "The operator's machine permissions for which you are taking the exam are sufficient to operate such a machine on public roads" is:
a) true, but only under normal air visibility conditions,b) true,
c) false.
142. Seeing such a pictogram you are informed about:
a) a place where an external automatic defibrillator is available,
b) a place for performing AED,c) a place where a first aid kit is available.143. Properly performed cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) consists of:
a) connecting an external automatic defibrillator (AED) and following its instructions; CPR is not performed without AED,
b) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 100-120 times per minute to a depth of 5–6 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 30 compressions (breaths are not mandatory),
c) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 30-60 times per minute to a depth of 1–3 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 15 compressions (breaths are mandatory).144. Materials must not be stored in the danger zone of the natural slope of the ground:
a) when the excavation walls are unshored,
b) always when the soil is sandy,c) when the excavation is deeper than 1.5 [m] regardless of its support.145. The Safe Execution of Construction Works Instruction is:
a) a plan for the road in construction works,b) a document confirming permissions to operate machines and technical devices in earthworks, construction, and road works,
c) a document containing information regarding safety on the construction site.
146. The BIOZ plan means:
a) plan of Safe Health Protection Instructions,
b) plan of Health and Safety,
c) plan of Safety and Resource Specification.147. A vehicle performing cleaning, repair or modernization work on the road should send:
a) yellow flashing signals,
b) red flashing signals,c) orange flashing signals.148. To be able to direct traffic during work in the road lane, it is required to have:
a) a license to operate at least one of the machines and appropriate personal protective equipment,b) a license to operate all machines working on the section for which traffic is directed,
c) a valid certificate of completion of a traffic management course and to be visible from a sufficient distance.
149. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 4 [m],
b) 1 [m],
c) 1.6 [m].150. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 1.6 [m],b) 1 [m],
c) 1.5 [m].
151. The reach of the wedge of the block for an excavation with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 1 [m],
b) 0.5 [m],
c) 1.6 [m].152. The reach of the wedge of the block for an excavation with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 1 [m],
b) 1.6 [m],c) 2 [m].153. The reach of the wedge of the block for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 1.6 [m],b) 1 [m],
c) 2 [m].
154. The reach of the wedge of the block for an excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 2 [m],b) 1 [m],
c) 3 [m].
155. The reach of the wedge of the block for an excavation with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 2.6 [m],b) 3 [m],
c) 4 [m].
156. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 2.6 [m],
b) 1.6 [m],
c) 1 [m].157. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 6.6 [m],b) 3.6 [m],
c) 2.1 [m].
158. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 2 [m],b) 4.6 [m],
c) 2.6 [m].
159. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 2.6 [m],
b) 1.1 [m],
c) 2 [m].160. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 2 [m],
b) 1.6 [m],
c) 2.6 [m].161. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category III (cracked rocks) is:
a) 4.6 [m],b) 2 [m],
c) 2.6 [m].
162. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category III (cracked rocks) is:
a) 3.6 [m],
b) 3 [m],c) 2.1 [m].163. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category III (cracked rocks) is:
a) 4.6 [m],
b) 4 [m],c) 2.6 [m].164. Traffic safety devices used in road works conducted in the road strip can be colored:
a) white, red, yellow, and black,
b) red, yellow-red, blue,c) white, green, blue.165. Traffic safety devices used to secure and mark the site of work in the road strip should be visible:
a) only during the day,
b) during the day and at night,
c) only at night.166. Persons performing work in the area of 2-lane roads and highways should have:
a) class III high visibility clothing,
b) orange flashing lights,c) red warning clothing.167. In a threatening situation, when the cabin door cannot be opened:
a) one must not leave the cabin until help arrives,b) the space after removing the floor panel can be used as an emergency exit,
c) the emergency exit provided by the manufacturer should be used.
168. In the case of mechanical damage to the FOPS/ROPS cabin (e.g. denting of a cabin element) the operator:
a) should stop work and report the failure to the supervisor or the person responsible for machines in the company,
b) can repair the damage on their own without wasting time on downtime,c) can continue working if the cabin windows are intact.169. In the case of mechanical damage to the FOPS/ROPS cabin (e.g. denting of a cabin element) the operator:
a) cannot repair such damage on their own,
b) can repair such damage on their own, but only based on the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine,c) can always repair such damage on their own.170. If the seat belt is damaged, one should:
a) report the damage and not start work until the belt is repaired or replaced,
b) continue working and report the problem after finishing work,c) exercise special caution while performing work.171. The operator must wear a safety helmet while working with the machine when:
a) working on demolition tasks using long booms,b) frequently leaning out of the cabin during work,
c) working in a machine that is not equipped with a closed cabin.
172. Entering and exiting the machine should be done:
a) sideways, being careful of the instruments in the cabin,
b) facing the machine, maintaining three points of contact,
c) backwards to the machine, using a three-step ladder.173. Prohibited activities during the operation and servicing of the machine or technical device include:
a) using machines with safety or signaling devices,b) using machines on rocky ground during heavy rain,
c) operating machines by individuals without the appropriate qualifications.
174. The site for earthworks should be:
a) marked and signposted,
b) fenced in a permanent manner,c) additionally compacted.175. In the case of ongoing earthworks, the designation of the danger zone involves:
a) securing and marking the zone 6 [m] from the machine,b) conducting work pointwise while maintaining the 6 [m] zone,
c) securing and marking the entire work area.
176. Visible technical devices of underground infrastructure that provide initial insight into their course are most often:
a) hydrant boxes, water shut-off boxes, manhole covers,
b) abandoned road frames where they pass through,c) graphic symbols applied to the road surface.177. The operator can work, without the need for prior loosening, in soil:
a) category V-VIII,b) all categories above IV,
c) category I.
178. The minimum distance from the edge of the excavation with supported walls, in which spoil can be stored is:
a) directly at the edge of the excavation, if the soil is dry,
b) 0.6 [m] from the edge of the excavation, if the spoil load has been taken into account in the selection of the support,
c) 0.3 [m] from the edge of the excavation, without additional conditions.179. Examples of work classified as preparatory work before starting earthworks may include:
a) preparing the area by removing obstacles, performing control trenches, and marking out buildings,
b) purchasing and storing materials and tools necessary for the work,c) daily operation of machines and technical devices.180. The basic methods of dewatering excavations are:
a) surface dewatering, deep dewatering, encircling drainage,
b) mechanical dewatering, natural dewatering, surface dewatering,c) water extraction through pumping, manual drying.181. When carrying out the unloading cycle, the operator should start lifting the loading equipment:
a) before making the last sharp turn with the machine,
b) when approaching the transport vehicle or pile,
c) immediately after starting to drive to the unloading site to reduce rolling resistance.182. During work related to wide-area excavations, the loader is particularly useful for:
a) moving the excavated material, transporting it to the transport vehicle, and leveling the bottom of the excavation,
b) removing vegetation and roots in the excavation area,c) digging trenches narrower than 1.5 [m].183. When driving in off-road conditions, the empty bucket of a single-bucket loader:
a) should be open and lowered just above the ground,b) should be completely lowered to the ground and pushed in front of the machine,
c) should be closed and raised to a height of about 0.5 [m].
184. Soils, according to the degree of difficulty in their disintegration, are divided into:
a) 10 categories,
b) 16 categories,
c) 4 categories.185. The operator of the machine should know the category of the soil on which he is working:
a) to calculate the safe distance for setting up the machine and the reach of the failure wedge,
b) to be able to assess the depth of the excavation,c) to know the requirements for operating the machine's chassis.186. During the loading of material onto the vehicle, the operator:
a) should not move the bucket with material over the cabin of the vehicle,
b) can move the bucket with material over the cabin of the vehicle if it speeds up the loading,c) can drop the material onto the transport medium from any convenient height.187. An example of work classified as preparatory work for earthworks is:
a) installation of lighting devices and marking places for heavy machines,b) laying asphalt pavement and installing fences,
c) making control trenches, removing trees and shrubs, marking buildings in the field.
188. Subsurface drainage consists of:
a) pumping water from the bottom level of the excavation,b) digging ditches around the excavation,
c) lowering the groundwater level using depressional wells or needle filters.
189. The bucket of the loader during the transport of material to the unloading site should be:
a) closed and raised to a height of about 30-50 [cm],
b) fully lowered to ensure driving stability,c) maximally raised to increase visibility.190. The selection of the appropriate bucket for the loader is not influenced by:
a) the density and condition of the material being transported,
b) the maximum speed of the machine,
c) the type of terrain on which we will be working.191. The main purpose of leveling the terrain is:
a) to give the surface a specific shape,
b) to create a flat, usually horizontal surface,
c) to compact the ground surface.192. The term: "efficiency of the earthworks machine" refers to:
a) the effect of the machine's work over a unit of time,
b) the amount of fuel consumed by the machine per hour of operation,c) the level of engine load during the machine's operation over a unit of time.193. The efficiency of the earthworks machine can be expressed:
a) in pressure units [bar] or temperature [°C],b) in speed or revolutions per unit of time e.g. [km/h], [rpm], [rev/s],
c) in volume or mass units per unit of time e.g. [m³/h], [t/h].
194. When loading large rock fragments onto a vehicle, a cushioning layer of rubble or sand should be used to:
a) speed up the later unloading of stones,
b) prevent the movement of stones and minimize the risk of damaging the cargo box,
c) balance the load of the vehicle and improve its stability.195. When loading large stones onto a vehicle, one should remember to:
a) place a cushioning layer of sand or rubble at the bottom of the cargo box before loading the stones,
b) load stones directly onto the empty bottom of the box and cover them with sand or rubble for stabilization,c) drop stones from a great height to fit them into the sand or rubble spread on the bottom.196. Using a snow blower on a loader is more effective than a plow in the following situation:
a) in small areas located in tight buildings,b) on large, flat and even surfaces with a small amount of snow,
c) with a large amount of snow when it is required to throw it over a greater distance.
197. The operator during the vehicle loading cycle should:
a) fill the working container only halfway to avoid overload,
b) make smooth movements with the equipment and not move the working tool over the operator's cabin,
c) avoid looking back while reversing the machine to constantly observe the material being loaded.198. The soil obtained from excavation is called a deposit:
a) when it is used for compacting the area,
b) when it is stored for later, e.g., to fill the excavation,
c) regardless of future use.199. If the machine is equipped with a hydraulic quick coupler to which the working equipment is connected, then it should:
a) check the quick coupler only when a leak appears at the connection,
b) check the condition of the quick coupler and its connection to the working equipment daily,
c) periodically replace the quick coupler, at least once a month.200. When excavating a high embankment with loader equipment, the operator should remember that:
a) the height of the embankment greater than the maximum cutting height of the machine can lead to the formation of overhangs,
b) changing the working speed can lead to problems with overhangs,c) the height of the embankment affects the efficiency of the loader's work.201. The operator's action that increases the risk of overhangs during slope excavation is:
a) wrong order of transitions during slope excavation,
b) using a machine with too low power,c) working at a slope lower than the maximum cutting height of the machine.202. It is possible to operate a machine with the cabin doors open:
a) only when the air temperature exceeds 25 [°C],
b) only if the operating and maintenance manual of the machine provides for such a possibility,
c) always.203. The maximum load values that can be lifted using the machine can be determined by the operator:
a) based on information on the welded hook,b) through trial lifting,
c) based on the operating and maintenance manual.
204. The "floating" bucket/blade system:
a) operates on the principle of automatic adjustment to the terrain, which is possible thanks to a special hydraulic system,
b) protects the equipment from loss during drainage works,c) allows the machine to move smoothly on slopes.205. The type of interchangeable working equipment used depends on whether:
a) the machine has undergone a periodic inspection,b) the equipment has a CE certificate,
c) the equipment is approved for use by the machine manufacturer.
206. The course of underground land development must be marked before starting work in order to:
a) enable quick movement of machines in any direction,
b) avoid the risk of damaging the network during work,
c) save time and reduce earthwork costs.207. Which of the listed elements are not part of the hydraulic system:
a) hydraulic lock, hydraulic oil tank,
b) starter, alternator,
c) pump, distributor, actuator.208. A hydraulic lock in a machine is:
a) a valve that protects against uncontrolled movement of an element in a given line,
b) the closure of the hydraulic oil inlet at its tank,c) a valve responsible for controlling the entire hydraulic system.209. The change in hydraulic oil pressure into mechanical movement is caused by:
a) hydraulic actuator and hydraulic motor,
b) hydraulic pump system,c) hydraulic distributor.210. The pressure in the hydraulic system is generated by:
a) hydraulic motor,
b) hydraulic pump,
c) hydraulic actuator.211. The control of hydraulic oil flow to individual systems is carried out by:
a) hydraulic distributor,
b) relief valve,c) hydraulic lock.212. The safety valve protects the hydraulic system from:
a) excessive pressure increase,
b) air in the hydraulic system,c) overheating of hydraulic oil.213. The relief valve in the hydraulic system is responsible for:
a) venting the system,
b) limiting the maximum working pressure in a given circuit,
c) maintaining a constant position of the working tool.214. If the pressure in the hydraulic system increases excessively, the excess oil will be directed to:
a) hydraulic oil filter,
b) hydraulic oil tank,
c) distributor.215. The basic parameters that characterize an electric accumulator are:
a) rated voltage [V], power [W], mass [kg],
b) rated voltage [V], capacity [Ah], starting current [A],
c) rated voltage [V], resistance [Ω], power [W].216. Lead-acid batteries can be charged:
a) in any room,b) only in an air-conditioned room,
c) in a place specifically designated for this purpose.
217. The pressure in the tires should be adjusted to:
a) the operator's preferences,b) the landowner's requirements,
c) the values given in the operating and maintenance manual.
218. Uneven tire pressure:
a) improves the driving characteristics of the machine,b) does not affect the operation of the machine,
c) reduces the stability of the machine.
219. In a working machine, the brake is most often located:
a) in the operator's cabin, near the driving controller,
b) in the drive system near the drive wheels,
c) in the hydraulic system, close to the main pump.220. The main function of the brake (side transmission) is:
a) to change the torque and transfer power to the drive wheels,
b) to increase the stability of the machine,c) to reduce fuel consumption.221. Hydraulic distributor:
a) directs the flow of hydraulic oil to the appropriate sections,
b) increases the torque in the side transmission,c) converts mechanical energy into hydraulic energy.222. A hydraulic distributor is a technical device that:
a) distributes oil between the engine and the hydraulic system,b) distributes oil between the small and large circuits,
c) allows control of individual hydraulic sections of the machine.
223. A ROPS cabin in construction machines protects the operator from:
a) dust in the operator's cabin,b) being hit by falling objects from above,
c) crushing in the event of the machine overturning.
224. An FOPS cabin in construction machines protects the operator from:
a) being hit by falling objects from above,
b) crushing in the event of the machine overturning,c) excessive noise in the operator's cabin.225. A ROPS cabin in construction machines protects against:
a) crushing the operator in the event of the machine overturning,
b) the machine falling from a slope and rolling over,c) the machine overturning.226. In ROPS and FOPS protective cabins, safety is ensured by structural elements such as:
a) ventilation system in ROPS and additional protective windows in FOPS,b) reinforced shell in ROPS and strong frame in FOPS,
c) strong frame in ROPS and reinforced shell in FOPS.
227. The difference between a ROPS cabin and a FOPS cabin is that:
a) the ROPS cabin protects against noise, while the FOPS protects against the machine overturning,b) the ROPS cabin protects against falling objects from above, while the FOPS protects against crushing,
c) the ROPS cabin protects against crushing, while the FOPS protects against falling objects from above.
228. The basic condition for ROPS and FOPS cabins to provide effective protection to the operator is:
a) fastening the seat belts by the operator,
b) lubricating the cabin joints at least once a week,c) regular maintenance of the cabin.229. A differential mechanism without the lock engaged:
a) does not differentiate the wheel rotation speeds,b) causes the wheels on the same axle to rotate at the same speed,
c) allows the wheels on the same axle to rotate at different speeds.
230. The term superstructure in earthmoving machines refers to:
a) the upper part of the machine with the drive system,b) the base of the machine,
c) the upper part of the machine.
231. The hydrokinetic transmission (torque converter) in the drive system of the machine:
a) smoothly reduces the torque as the load increases,b) allows manual control of the torque transmitted to the drive wheels,
c) smoothly increases the torque as the load increases.
232. The smooth increase of torque, depending on the load, is provided by:
a) hydrokinetic transmission,
b) mechanical gearbox,c) drive shaft with joints.233. The reduction of speed while simultaneously increasing the torque transmitted to the drive wheels is achieved by:
a) wet brakes,
b) planetary gears,
c) hydraulic distributor.234. Types of drive systems found in the chassis of loaders are:
a) electric, pneumatic, hydraulic,
b) mechanical, mechanical-hydrokinetic, hydrostatic,
c) only mechanical or mechanical-hydrokinetic.235. The protection of the operator during work is provided by:
a) counterweights and windshield wipers,
b) cabin with ROPS and FOPS shields,
c) fenders and work platforms.236. The straightening mechanism in the working system of the loader:
a) is used for easier horizontal guidance of the bucket when cutting and loading material,b) allows the bucket to move sideways for precise positioning,
c) keeps the bucket in a fixed position during lifting and lowering of the boom.
237. The operator's cabin in the loader's body is most often mounted:
a) to the frame - front or rear, depending on the design of the machine,
b) exclusively to the rear frame,c) on the drive axle, to increase stability.238. The main function of the grab in loaders is:
a) increasing the loader's traction on uneven terrain,
b) transporting non-standard and irregular materials, such as wood or scrap,
c) crushing large pieces of soil into smaller parts.239. The differential mechanism allows the transmission of torque to the wheels:
a) while the wheels rotate at different speeds,
b) of two different axles,c) ensuring their rotation always at the same speeds.240. In vehicles with a differential mechanism when turning:
a) the inner wheel rotates slower than the outer wheel,
b) the load is transferred exclusively to the inner wheel,c) the inner wheel rotates faster than the outer wheel.241. ROPS frame damages resulting in the need for replacement are:
a) discoloration of the paint caused by weather conditions and the passage of time,b) minor surface scratches,
c) cracking or bending of the structure.
242. Drilling additional holes in the ROPS cabin structure is prohibited because:
a) it reduces the operator's comfort,
b) it causes a decrease in the strength of the structure,
c) it reduces the weight of the machine.243. The flow and direction of hydraulic fluid in the system are regulated by:
a) hydraulic pumps,
b) hydraulic valves,
c) hydraulic motors.244. Components of the system, such as actuators and hydraulic motors, convert hydraulic energy into:
a) mechanical energy,
b) pressure in the tank,c) electrical energy.245. A bucket with a blade ending with teeth is dedicated to:
a) transporting hard and unstable material, such as crushed rock,
b) light materials, such as snow,c) loose materials, such as artificial fertilizer.246. The high dump bucket is best suited for technological tasks such as:
a) transporting loose materials with low density,
b) loading materials onto high-sided transport vehicles,
c) leveling large areas.247. The flat bottom bucket is dedicated to:
a) transporting heavy materials such as rocks,
b) leveling the ground and precision earthworks,
c) working with low-density materials.248. The function of the FOPS protective structure is:
a) protecting the operator from the effects of machine overturning,b) protecting the operator from the impact of exhaust fumes and noise,
c) protecting the operator from falling objects.
249. The FOPS protective structure must be used when:
a) performing work where heavy elements may fall on the cabin (e.g., demolition work, in quarries, etc.),
b) underwater work,c) all earthworks.250. In a machine equipped with a ROPS or FOPS protective structure, there must exist and be used by the operator an additional safety system, which includes:
a) protective footwear, hearing protectors, respiratory protection,
b) seat belts,
c) protective helmet, protective footwear.251. The ROPS protective structure in a machine:
a) is not required when only qualified machine operators are employed,b) is not required when it is not technically possible, and there is a small risk of the machine overturning (possibility of support with a boom),
c) is always required.
252. Optimal damping of shocks and vibrations of the operator's seat is achieved by:
a) adjusting the seat to the weight of the operator,
b) as flexible seat adjustment as possible,c) setting the seat rigidly.253. The control panel for locking the working tool, when the machine is equipped with a quick-change device with hydraulic locking, is equipped with:
a) protection against excessive engine speed,b) 16-amp overload protection,
c) protection against unintentional activation of the control panel.
254. The protective equipment that a machine must have during demolition work is:
a) a signal lamp and white-red-white safety stickers,
b) a protective roof – FOPS cabin,
c) a device warning against overload and protection against cable breakage on the boom.255. The mandatory equipment for the operator to observe the area directly behind the machine is:
a) a rear camera,b) an audible signal when reversing,
c) an external mirror.
256. Together with the operator in the machine cabin, other people can ride if:
a) they have completed health and safety training with the operator and there are a maximum of 2 people,b) the machine is moving at a low speed,
c) the manufacturer has installed an additional seat.
257. The most important element of the operator's cabin equipment from the perspective of his safety is:
a) seat belt,
b) emergency STOP button,c) mirror or camera.258. Mirrors and reversing cameras in the machine are used for:
a) facilitating the maneuvering of working equipment,b) checking the technical condition of the machine,
c) improving the operator's visibility and increasing safety.
259. In ROPS-type cabins, additional equipment such as phone holders can be installed independently:
a) remembering that installation is only possible on the cabin posts,b) but this equipment must be permanently screwed to the cabin structure,
c) provided that there is no interference with the cabin structure.
260. A green flashing light placed on the machine cabin signals, among other things:
a) correct fastening of the seat belts,
b) the machine's eco mode is activated,c) the absence of the operator in the cabin.261. In a parallel connection of two identical batteries, the voltage of such a system is:
a) the sum of the voltages of the individual batteries,b) the product of the voltages of the individual batteries,
c) equal to the voltage of a single battery.
262. In a series connection of two identical batteries, the voltage of such a system is:
a) the sum of the voltages of the individual batteries,
b) equal to the voltage of a single battery,c) the product of the voltages of the individual batteries.263. Fuses in the electrical installation of a machine protect it from the effects of:
a) high temperature,
b) short circuits and overloads,
c) low voltage.264. An alternator is:
a) a single-phase direct current generator,
b) a three-phase alternating current generator,
c) a two-phase direct current generator.265. One of the elements of the electrical system protecting the motor from seizing is:
a) engine oil pressure sensor,
b) main fuse,c) speed controller.266. Gel batteries that are part of the electrical system do not require:
a) electrolyte replenishment,
b) charging with a rectifier,c) replacement in case of housing damage.267. Electrical systems of machines and devices should be equipped with a device that causes emergency stop in at least the amount of:
a) two emergency stop devices placed on both sides of the machine, according to the European machinery directive,
b) one emergency stop device, according to the European machinery directive,
c) three emergency stop devices, according to the European machinery directive.268. The emergency stop device of a machine is a part of:
a) the electrical system,
b) the drive system,c) the fuel system.269. The main parameters of an internal combustion engine that affect work efficiency are:
a) torque, rotational speed,
b) type of carburetor, type of ignition system,c) compression ratio, displacement.270. The crank-piston system of an internal combustion engine is designed to:
a) convert the reciprocating motion of the piston into the rotational motion of the crankshaft,
b) ensure effective operation of the clutch,c) convert mechanical energy into hydraulic energy.271. The engine timing system is used for:
a) ensuring the optimal composition of the fuel-oil-air mixture for combustion,
b) controlling the filling of the combustion chamber with air or the fuel-air mixture and controlling the emptying of this chamber of exhaust gases,
c) damping noise and minimizing engine vibrations during operation.272. Systems present in internal combustion engines include, among others:
a) hydraulic system, intake system,
b) crankshaft-piston system, fuel supply system, cooling system,
c) exhaust system, pneumatic system, closed system.273. The low-pressure part of the fuel supply system of a diesel engine is:
a) fuel tank and injectors,b) fuel lines, high-pressure pump, common rail,
c) fuel tank, supply pump, filters, fuel lines.
274. The element controlling the flow of coolant in the so-called "large circuit" is:
a) thermostat,
b) thermos,c) thermocouple.275. An intercooler is:
a) another name for the engine coolant radiator,
b) air cooler for turbocharged engines,
c) a device for burning solid particles in exhaust gases.276. DPF filter:
a) it is a precise cabin filter protecting the operator during work in high dust conditions,b) it serves to reduce NOx (nitrogen oxides) emissions,
c) it is a dry particulate filter responsible, among other things, for capturing soot from exhaust gases.
277. The frequency and scope of periodic maintenance of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam:
a) are included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine,
b) is determined by the owner of the machine/technical device,c) are included in the IBWR documentation.278. The operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device is:
a) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device,
b) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device, which includes, among others, IBWR,c) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by the health and safety services on the construction site.279. The operator of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is not allowed to:
a) check the technical condition of the machine/technical device during operation,b) make any repairs or maintenance,
c) use the machine/technical device contrary to its intended purpose.
280. A symptom of too low a level of hydraulic oil may be:
a) uneven operation of the diesel engine,
b) "jerky" intermittent movement of hydraulic actuators,
c) loud operation of the starter.281. In the event of detecting tire damage that may pose a threat, the operator should:
a) stop work,
b) notify the supervisor and cautiously continue working,c) continue working while reducing the speed and load of the machine.282. If the low engine oil pressure warning light comes on, the operator:
a) should stop work and turn off the engine,
b) does not need to take any action,c) can continue working if the hydraulic system is functioning properly.283. The cause of the machine's loss of stability may be:
a) the machine operating in a suitable location,
b) too low tire pressure,
c) driving on a hardened surface.284. The cause of the machine's loss of stability may be:
a) driving with the working tool lowered to the transport height,
b) driving with the working tool raised high,
c) driving on a hardened surface.285. The operating and maintenance manual for the machine/technical device:
a) is established by the owner or user of the machine,b) is used to record information about faults,
c) includes, among other things, information about hazards during the operation of the machine/technical device.
286. The CE Declaration of Conformity is a document:
a) issued by institutions dealing with testing machines for resistance to weather conditions,b) confirming that the product was manufactured in the countries of the European Union,
c) in which the manufacturer confirms that their product meets all applicable EU requirements regarding safety, health protection, and the environment.
287. Information regarding the use of personal protective equipment and ways to limit occupational risk can be found by the operator:
a) in the service book,b) in the CE Declaration of Conformity,
c) in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device.
288. The operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device:
a) is created by the construction manager based on information from the manufacturer,b) is created by institutions that conduct testing and accreditation of machine/technical device prototypes before allowing them for serial production,
c) is developed by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device or the entity that places the machine/technical device on the market.
289. The operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device:
a) should be located in the machine or with the device, treated as part of the machine/technical device, and be available at all times,
b) should be located in the office along with the company's documentation and be available in case of inspection,c) does not matter where it is located, the most important thing is that the owner of the machine has it in case of resale of the machine.290. Identification data of the machine/technical device:
a) due to their importance are always printed in red,b) should be noted on the inner side of the protective helmet assigned to the given machine/technical device,
c) are located on the nameplate of the machine/technical device, additionally they may be in the marking places described in the manual.
291. To minimize the risk of machine/technical device failure, the operator should:
a) regularly visually assess the condition of the machine/technical device and report any noticed irregularities,
b) use the machine/technical device until the failure becomes serious,c) perform maintenance activities only when the machine/technical device stops working.292. Key activities for the safe technical operation of the machine are:
a) performing technical service without securing the working equipment to save time,
b) securing the equipment, covers, and doors against accidental closure and using personal protective equipment,
c) using latex gloves without the need for other personal protective equipment.293. The principles of safe technical servicing of machines are:
a) the engine can remain on to perform the service faster, especially if the machine is running idle,
b) the machine should be positioned on level ground, working equipment lowered to the ground, engine turned off, and the key removed from the ignition,
c) the machine can be left on sloped terrain as long as the operator plans a short technical service.294. Breaking in the machine during the initial period of operation is:
a) the stage of the machine's operation without load,b) an intensive test of the machine at full load,
c) the process of achieving optimal clearances and even wear of parts.
295. During the break-in period, the operator should pay attention to:
a) always turn off the lubrication systems before work,
b) limit the machine's load to the level specified in the operation and maintenance manual,
c) work at maximum load.296. The operator uses the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine or technical device to:
a) record the hours worked and fuel consumption by the machine,
b) learn the technical specifications, health and safety rules, and methods of repairing faults,
c) record all faults of the machine or technical device noticed during operation.297. The operational part of the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine or technical device includes:
a) instructions regarding, among others, controlling the machine/device,
b) a detailed description of the construction and operation of all elements of the machine/device,c) a catalog of spare parts.298. The operating and maintenance instructions must always be present with the machine/device because:
a) its absence may be a reason for the health and safety inspector to disallow the machine to operate,
b) it is necessary for periodic technical inspections,c) it minimizes the risk of it being lost.299. When operating a machine equipped with a hydrokinetic transmission, long slippages should be avoided because:
a) they cause excessive heating of the converter, which may lead to its damage,
b) they may cause leakage and oil spillage from the hydraulic system,c) they reduce the overall power transmitted to the drive system.300. The articulated frame of the wheeled single-bucket loader should be secured:
a) when driving on uneven terrain,b) when driving straight,
c) when lifting the loader on wire ropes.
301. For safety reasons, it is recommended to secure the articulated frame of the loader during:
a) long straight trips with a load,
b) performing maintenance and technical service work,
c) working on steep slopes.302. The SAE designation on oil refers to:
a) the viscosity of engine oil, that is, its ability to flow and lubricate,
b) the pressure of engine oil,c) the multi-season qualification of the oil.303. Oil with the symbol SAE 15W-40 means that:
a) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40,
b) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 15W, and at positive temperatures of summer oil class SAE 40,
c) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 15W.304. Oil with the symbol SAE 10W-30 means that:
a) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W,
b) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W, and at positive temperatures of summer oil class SAE 30,
c) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 30.305. The symbol SAE 10W-30 means:
a) a mixture of engine oil and hydraulic oil,b) hydraulic oil with specified parameters,
c) multi-season engine oil with specified parameters.
306. Engine oil with the symbol SAE 5W-40 means that:
a) at negative temperature it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 5W, and at positive temperature of summer oil class SAE 40,
b) at positive temperature it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 5W,c) at negative temperature it has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40.
307. The symbol of the warning light shown in the graphic means:
a) low coolant level,
b) low engine oil level,
c) low engine oil pressure.
308. The symbol of the warning light shown in the graphic means:
a) low fuel level,
b) low engine oil pressure,
c) low coolant level.
309. The symbol shown means:
a) engine oil filter,
b) engine oil,
c) hydraulic oil.
310. The symbol shown means:
a) hydraulic oil level,b) engine coolant level,
c) engine oil level.
311. Oils with designations 70W, 85W, 80W-90 are:
a) gear oils,
b) brake oils,c) engine oils.312. In the case of the need to dismantle the cover/protection for maintenance, it is not allowed to:
a) record such fact in the documentation,b) reassemble the cover/protection,
c) start working with the device without the cover/protection installed.
313. The lighting of the battery charging indicator signals to the operator of the construction machine a failure of:
a) battery switch,
b) V-belt and/or alternator,
c) starter.314. The operator's seat cannot be adjusted when:
a) the machine is in motion,
b) the seat is turned backwards,c) the engine is not started.315. If during daily technical maintenance before work the operator notices that one of the windows in the cabin is cracked, then:
a) he can start working if it is not the front window,b) he can start working provided that the window is only cracked and has not "fallen out",
c) he should not start working.
316. Before starting work, the operator should:
a) open windows for better communication,b) install window sun shields,
c) clean the windows by removing snow, ice, and other contaminants.
317. The seat belt should be replaced:
a) during every periodic service,b) when it has become contaminated,
c) after a collision or tipping of the machine.
318. When changing hydraulic oils, one should:
a) use only types of oils recommended by the machine manufacturer,
b) always use only biodegradable oils,c) use any type of oil.319. To ensure the technical efficiency of the working machine, one should:
a) follow technical service and maintenance according to the operating and maintenance instructions,
b) operate the machine/device without exceeding 50% of the permissible load,c) operate the machine/device only under full load.320. On the construction site, empty containers of lubricants, oil filters, and used oils should be:
a) thrown into the mixed waste container,
b) placed in a properly marked hazardous waste container,
c) thrown into any waste container.321. Stickers (pictograms) located on the machine/technical device serve to:
a) indicate places where one can stay without any risk,b) inform about the prohibition of approaching the machine/technical device,
c) convey important information about safety and the use of the machine/technical device.
322. Lubrication points in the machine should be serviced:
a) according to the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine,
b) during all breaks in work,c) always after 10 hours of operation.323. Engine oil with parameters 5W-50 is:
a) oil only for winter,b) oil only for summer,
c) all-season oil.
324. Before starting work on a new type of machine/technical device, the operator should:
a) perform a periodic inspection,b) perform a test run,
c) familiarize themselves with the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine/technical device.
325. OTC service is:
a) daily technical service,
b) temporary technical service,c) round-the-clock technical service.326. Basic types of service are:
a) daily service, periodic, warehouse, transport,
b) round-the-clock service, multi-seasonal, annual, technological,c) visual service, active, passive.327. Batteries, when starting the machine using a supporting battery, should be connected:
a) in series,
b) in parallel,
c) crosswise.328. In the event of electrolyte loss caused by spillage through a cracked battery case, one should:
a) add electrolyte to the proper level and charge the battery,
b) secure the leak area in terms of environmental protection, and then replace the battery,
c) add demineralized water to a level 10 mm above the top edges of the plates.329. The activities performed by the operator as part of daily service during operation are:
a) replenishing operating fluids and daily lubrication,
b) auditory control of the machine's operation and observation of indicators,
c) cleaning the machine.330. When inflating the tire of the machine's wheel, one should:
a) stand by the inflated wheel provided that a protective helmet is worn,
b) not stand directly by the inflated wheel,
c) check the condition of the inflated wheel by observing the deflection of the side part of the tire.331. If the manufacturer has provided for operational reaching, it should be implemented:
a) with the load recommended in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device,
b) without load,c) with the maximum load.332. During the storage of the machine on a wheeled chassis, the wheels of the machine should be:
a) removed from the machine,b) secured with wedges,
c) unloaded.
333. Driving the machine on public roads should be done in the position:
a) working,
b) transport,
c) transfer.334. During the loading of the machine onto the transport vehicle, the operator should:
a) know the maximum speed allowed for the given transport vehicle,b) approach at a speed of at least 5 [km/h],
c) know the permissible angle of inclination of the loading plates for the given machine.
335. The responsibility for the placement and securing of the machine on the transport vehicle lies with:
a) the owner or the person responsible for the machines in the company,
b) the carrier (e.g., driver),
c) the operator of the machine.336. When storing the machine, one must ensure that:
a) no machine documents are left in the cabin,b) the machine is facing the exit,
c) there are no leaks of operating fluids.
337. Securing the machine during storage downtime involves:
a) filling the hydraulic oil tank to the top,b) disassembling all filters and protecting them from moisture,
c) cleaning the machine of dirt and corrosion.
338. The rods of hydraulic cylinders, during technical service of the stored machine, should be:
a) disassembled and the seals replaced,b) disassembled and cleaned,
c) protected from corrosion.
339. During the transport of the machine:
a) for short distances, tools and other items can be transported in the working tool,b) tools and other items can be transported in the bucket if it is free,
c) tools and other items cannot be transported in the working tool.
340. When loading the machine onto the transport vehicle:
a) assistance from a second person is recommended only when loading onto a low-loader trailer,b) the operator should drive onto the transport vehicle independently,
c) assistance from a second person is recommended.
341. The recommended way to load heavy working machines onto low-loader trailers is:
a) loading on ropes,b) loading using other machines,
c) mechanized loading from the front ramp.
342. During longer storage of the machine, the fuel tank should be:
a) filled to the top to prevent condensation of water vapor inside the tank,
b) filled to 1/3 of its capacity and left open,c) empty to avoid fire hazards.343. During daily operation of the machine, the condition of should be checked:
a) tools and equipment,b) the working pressure value in the hydraulic system,
c) connections and tightness of the hydraulic system.
344. If the machine's engine has not been running for a long time, during daily operation you should:
a) replace the fuel pre-filter,
b) check the oil level and other operating fluids,
c) start the engine and gently increase the RPM to reach the operating temperature faster.345. When inflating tires on a working machine, the operator should:
a) stand beside the tire tread or on the other side of the machine,
b) stand directly in front of the tire to monitor the pressure,c) ensure that bystanders are nearby.346. During the charging of the battery, a flammable gas is released, which is:
a) hydrogen,
b) sulfur dioxide,c) carbon dioxide.347. Information regarding faults, their codes, and methods of removal can be found in a document called:
a) operating and maintenance manual,
b) construction machine book,c) daily report.348. The correct order for connecting the auxiliary battery to the discharged battery in the machine is as follows:
a) negative terminal of the battery in the machine, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, machine frame,b) machine frame, positive terminal of the battery in the machine, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery,
c) positive terminal of the battery in the machine, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, machine frame.
349. In case of detecting electrolyte loss in the battery, one should:
a) top it up with distilled or demineralized water,
b) top it up with water other than distilled,c) top it up with DOT-3 fluid.350. Checking the charge state of the starting battery 12 [V] by "sparking" poses a risk of:
a) electric shock from high voltage,b) seizing the alternator,
c) explosion of hydrogen escaping from the battery.
351. Before storing wheels in a wheel machine, it is necessary to:
a) inflate to maximum pressure to prevent tire deformation,
b) relieve pressure to prevent tire deformation,
c) loosen to reduce the static load on the mounting screws.352. The scope of daily technical service of the machine does not include:
a) checking the oil level in the engine,
b) checking and adjusting valve clearances,
c) checking the condition of the tires and tire pressure.353. When cleaning the radiator, to avoid damaging it, one should:
a) use sharp tools for cleaning,b) use a strong stream of water under high pressure,
c) keep the compressed air nozzle at an appropriate distance from the radiator.
354. The purpose of lubrication in working machines is:
a) to raise the temperature of cooperating elements,
b) to reduce friction,
c) to increase the engine speed.355. The most commonly used type of fuses in the electrical installations of working machines is:
a) residual current devices,b) automatic fuses,
c) cartridge fuses.
356. The phenomenon of electrostatic discharge during the refueling of a machine can lead to:
a) a short circuit in the electrical installation,
b) a fire,
c) poisoning.357. In the case of connecting two batteries in parallel with different rated voltages:
a) thicker cables should be used than with batteries of the same rated voltages,b) both batteries may discharge,
c) an explosion may occur in the battery with the lower rated voltage.
358. When checking the pressure in a tire, the machine should be:
a) running and warmed up,b) loaded to make the measurement more accurate,
c) unloaded, and the tire should be cold.
359. The correct way to connect a battery to a charger during charging is:
a) the positive terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger, the negative terminal of the charger to the "ground" of the machine,
b) the positive terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger, the negative terminal of the battery to the negative terminal of the charger,
c) the positive terminal of the battery to the negative terminal of the charger, the negative terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger.360. After connecting the battery, the terminals are lubricated with:
a) grease containing molybdenum disulfide,b) graphite grease,
c) technical vaseline.
361. To safely inflate a tire, you should:
a) stand opposite the tire valve while inflating,b) use a short pneumatic hose with a pressure gauge,
c) stand beside the tire tread and use a long pneumatic hose.
362. One of the goals of warehouse management is:
a) preparing the machine for transport for the future user,
b) protecting the machine from corrosion and other harmful factors during long-term storage,
c) repairing damaged machine parts before the next season.363. If during daily technical service the operator notices a leak in the cooling system, they should:
a) top up the coolant and continue working,b) organize the fluid and top it up to the minimum level if the leak is small,
c) report the leak and not use the machine until it is repaired.
364. The level of coolant in the expansion tank should be checked:
a) during every daily technical service,
b) only during periodic technical service,c) only in case of engine overheating.365. If the operator notices a hydraulic fluid leak during daily technical service, they should:
a) reduce the RPM and continue working,b) top up the oil and continue working,
c) report the leak and not use the machine until it is repaired.
366. The frequency of performing periodic technical service depends on:
a) the production date of the machine,
b) the number of hours worked (engine hours),
c) the number of completed working cycles.367. If during daily technical service the operator notices a low level of engine oil, he should:
a) top up the oil to the appropriate level,
b) top up the level with any available oil, even if it is of a different type,c) continue working if the level is not very low and the warning light is not on.368. A characteristic activity for seasonal technical service is:
a) checking the working pressure value of the hydraulic system,b) checking the charging voltage value,
c) replacing the coolant with one appropriate for the season.
369. The basic service activities that must be performed before starting a diesel engine are:
a) checking the oil level in the gearbox, checking the operation of the working system, checking the operation of the brakes,
b) checking the oil level in the engine, checking the coolant level, checking the condition of the air filter,
c) bleeding the fuel system, checking the level of transmission oil, checking the starter.370. Activities performed as part of daily technical service (OTC) carried out during the operation of the machine include:
a) primarily the sensory inspection of the proper operation of the machine's working system,
b) observation of control and measuring instruments and checking the correct operation of the machine using sight, hearing, and smell,
c) observation only of control and measuring indicators such as: oil pressure, engine temperature, hydraulic oil temperature.371. We distinguish, among others, the following types of technical services:
a) transport, arrival, storage, service-repair (SR), catalog,