Single-bucket loaders class III
Study mode
Question of 363
1. What is the minimum allowable distance of the machine from the reach of the wedge of the collapse?
a) 0.8 [m],
b) 0.6 [m],
c) 0.4 [m].2. The safe distance of the machine from the excavation is:
a) 1.6 [m],b) depth of the excavation + 0.6 [m],
c) reach of the wedge of the collapse + 0.6 [m].
3. Based on the provided table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] made in cohesive soils:
a) 1.6 [m],
b) 1 [m],c) 2.6 [m].4. Based on the provided table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] made in fractured rocks:
a) 2.6 [m],
b) 3.6 [m],
c) 4.6 [m].5. Based on the provided table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] made in slightly cohesive soils:
a) 3.6 [m],b) 2.6 [m],
c) 3.1 [m]. Single-bucket loaders Class III
6. What is the minimum safe distance from the UPPER edge of the embankment that a machine can approach, given the following data: Soil category - I (dry sand), height of the embankment - h = 2 [m], horizontal distance between the upper and lower edges of the embankment - a = 2.5 [m]?
a) 3.6 [m],
b) 1.1 [m],
c) 0.6 [m].7. What is the minimum safe distance from the UPPER edge of the embankment that a machine can approach, given the following data: Soil category - II (slightly cohesive soils), height of the embankment - h = 4 [m], horizontal distance between the upper and lower edges of the embankment - a = 2.5 [m]?
a) 5.6 [m],b) 0.6 [m],
c) 3.1 [m].
8. At what horizontal distance from the outermost wires for power lines with a rated voltage not exceeding 1 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 3 [m],
b) not less than 2 [m],c) not less than 5 [m].9. At what horizontal distance from the outermost wires for power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 5 [m],
b) not less than 15 [m],c) not less than 10 [m].10. At what horizontal distance from the outermost wires for power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 5 [m],
b) not less than 10 [m],
c) not less than 15 [m].11. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?
a) not less than 20 [m],
b) not less than 15 [m],
c) not less than 10 [m].12. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?
a) not less than 30 [m],
b) not less than 10 [m],c) not less than 15 [m].13. Is it possible to organize workstations in the danger zone under overhead power lines?
a) yes, but only after meeting additional requirements,
b) yes, always,c) no, never.
14. What is the safe distance X for the operation of a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [V]?
a) not less than 5 [m],b) not less than 30 [m],
c) not less than 3 [m].
15. What is the safe distance X for the operation of a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV]?
a) not less than 15 [m],b) not less than 10 [m],
c) not less than 5 [m].
16. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?
a) not less than 30 [m],b) not less than 15 [m],
c) not less than 10 [m].
17. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?
a) not less than 15 [m],b) not less than 5 [m],
c) not less than 10 [m].
18. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV]?
a) not less than 15 [m],
b) not less than 30 [m],c) not less than 50 [m].19. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV]?
a) not less than 15 [m],
b) not less than 10 [m],
c) not less than 30 [m].20. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]?
a) not less than 30 [m],
b) not less than 40 [m],c) not less than 3 [m].21. Work in the danger zone (overhead high voltage power line):
a) may not be carried out under electrical lines in the danger zone under any circumstances,
b) may be carried out provided that the line is disconnected from the voltage, the work is performed in a limited area with groundings, and at least one grounding is visible from the work site,
c) may be carried out provided that permission from the site manager has been granted.22. The operator must perform work at a distance X from the active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [V]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 2 [m],b) 1 [m],
c) 5 [m].
23. The operator must perform work at a distance X from the active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 15 [m],
b) 3 [m],c) 5 [m].24. The operator must perform work at a distance X from the active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 5 [m],b) 15 [m],
c) 50 [m].
25. If the injured person has a detectable pulse but is not breathing, then:
a) the airways should be cleared and artificial respiration started,
b) cardiopulmonary resuscitation should be performed,c) he should not be touched.26. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, one should primarily:
a) provide assistance to those in life-threatening situations,
b) distance oneself from the accident scene to call a doctor,c) give injured persons medication.27. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, one should primarily:
a) distance oneself from the accident scene to call a doctor,
b) take care of one's own safety,
c) provide assistance to those in life-threatening situations.28. The obligation to provide first aid to accident victims rests with:
a) everyone, but for any mistakes, there is always criminal liability,b) only those with medical training,
c) everyone, as one can always perform part of the rescue tasks.
29. The accident victim regained consciousness after a few minutes and wants to go home. In such a situation, one should:
a) persuade her to stay and call for medical help,
b) allow her to go home, recommending a visit to a doctor,c) give her something to drink and pain relief medication.30. First aid in a situation where a foreign body has entered the eye of the injured person consists of:
a) rinsing with clean water directing the stream from the nose outward from the eye,
b) rinsing the eye with eye drops,c) rinsing with distilled water directing the stream towards the inside of the eye.31. The injured person cut their leg on an unsecured sharp element. Providing first aid in this situation is:
a) sticking a plaster directly on the wound,
b) using sterile gauze, wrapping the wound with a bandage,
c) using a tourniquet.32. Suspecting spinal injury in a person who has fallen from a height and is conscious, one should:
a) seat them in a semi-reclining position,
b) not move them and wait for medical services to arrive,
c) lay them in the recovery position.33. To move away from the place where the electric wire has been broken and the area is under voltage, one should:
a) slowly step away from this place, taking small steps, trying to maintain continuous contact of the feet with the ground,
b) run as fast as possible to a place that we assess as safe,c) quickly step away from the source of electric shock by lifting the feet high.34. First aid in the case of a first-degree burn is:
a) applying greasy cream to the burned area,
b) pouring cold water on the burned area,
c) applying ointment to the burned area.35. During work, a high-voltage power line was broken, as a result of which a colleague was electrocuted. In this situation, the correct behavior is:
a) calling other colleagues for help with the injured person,
b) turning off the power source as quickly as possible,
c) approaching the injured person to provide first aid.36. We perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation until:
a) the fire brigade arrives and secures the area,b) 10 minutes have passed,
c) we have determined that the victim has started to breathe and circulation has returned.
37. Immediate action in the case of severe bleeding from an injured upper limb includes:
a) disinfecting the wound with salicylic alcohol,b) lowering the limb below heart level,
c) applying a dressing, directly compressing the bleeding site, and elevating the limb.
38. In the case of a nosebleed, one should:
a) lean the bleeding person's head forward, pinch the nostrils,
b) lay the injured person on their back,c) tilt the head back and place a cold compress on the neck.39. The first step in dealing with a carbon monoxide poisoning victim in a closed room is:
a) assessing ABC,
b) evacuating the victim from the room as quickly as possible,
c) conducting a preliminary examination.40. First aid during seizures caused by an epileptic attack consists of:
a) placing a wooden object in the victim's mouth to prevent biting the tongue,
b) securing the victim's head from injuries,
c) seating the victim in a semi-sitting position and giving them something to drink.41. In case of suspected spinal injury in the cervical region in a conscious person, one should:
a) seat the injured person in a chair with a high back,b) place the injured person in a lateral position,
c) not allow the injured person to move their head.
42. The most important thing when a person is buried under earth, sand, or gravel is:
a) waiting for the arrival of the ambulance,b) notifying the family,
c) locating the injured person.
43. First aid for a person who has a metal rod embedded in their lower leg involves calling for help and:
a) removing the embedded rod,b) moving the rod to check if the artery has been damaged,
c) securing the rod to prevent movement.
44. The indication for using an AED defibrillator is:
a) severe chest pain,
b) absence of detectable breath and pulse in the injured person,
c) severe dizziness.45. During the operation of a machine/technical device, the prohibited actions for which you are taking the exam are:
a) performing daily technical service (OTS),b) changing the working tool,
c) making structural changes to the machine/technical device.
46. During the operation of the machine/technical device, the prohibited activities are:
a) cleaning the machine/technical device using gasoline or solvents whose vapors can create flammable/explosive gas mixtures with air,
b) refueling the machine/technical device from a canister,c) cleaning the machine/technical device using a product in accordance with the operating and maintenance instructions.47. When performing earthworks with the machine for which you are taking the exam, it is unacceptable to:
a) use the machine's blade at a safe distance from the excavation,
b) position the machine within the reach of the falling wedge,
c) extend the machine's blade towards the excavation.48. When performing earthworks with the machine for which you are taking the exam, it is unacceptable to:
a) use the machine on clay soils at air temperatures below -5°C,b) use the machine on clay soils at air temperatures above 30°C,
c) use the machine on clay soils during heavy rain.
49. When performing works, it is unacceptable to:
a) work near an active power line with a rated voltage of 10 [kV] at a distance of 10 [m],b) work near an active power line with a rated voltage of 20 [kV] at a distance of 15 [m],
c) work near active overhead power lines at a distance less than specified by regulations.
50. When performing works, it is unacceptable to:
a) have people nearby the machine during technical servicing,b) have people at a distance greater than the sum of the maximum reach of the working tool plus 6 meters,
c) have people within the reach of the working tool of the machine.
51. The machine/technical device you are taking the exam for can only be operated by:
a) a person with written confirmation of course completion in the form of a plastic card,b) any adult person with a technical education and a driving license of the appropriate category,
c) a person who has completed training and obtained a positive result from the test conducted by the commission appointed by the Łukasiewicz Research Network – Warsaw Institute of Technology.
52. The qualifications to operate the machines/technical devices you are taking the exam for are issued by:
a) The Office of Technical Inspection (UDT),
b) The Łukasiewicz Research Network - Warsaw Institute of Technology (SBŁ - WIT),
c) The County Office appropriate for the address of the person applying for the qualifications.53. The qualifications to operate the machines/technical devices you are taking the exam for:
a) are valid indefinitely,
b) are valid for 5 years from the date of issue,c) are valid for 10 years from the date of issue.54. A person holding qualifications to operate: "Single-bucket loaders class III" can operate based on them:
a) single-bucket loaders up to 20 [t] operating mass and bulldozers up to 110 [kW] engine power,
b) only single-bucket loaders over 20 [t] operating mass,c) all single-bucket loaders and bulldozers up to 110 [kW] engine power.55. An employee operating the machine/technical device you are taking the exam for can start working provided that:
a) the machine/technical device has a valid UDT inspection,b) has a valid category D driving license,
c) has qualifications to operate this type of machine/technical device.
56. In the event of a threat to life, health, property, or the environment caused by a machine/technical device failure, the operator:
a) continues working but informs the supervisor about the situation at the end of the shift,
b) immediately stops work and informs the supervisor about this fact,
c) continues working but makes an appropriate entry in the maintenance book at the end of the shift.57. Lifting and transporting people using working equipment:
a) is always prohibited,
b) requires the consent of the construction manager,c) is possible, but only outside the public road area.58. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam has the right to refuse to work when:
a) this work requires special psychophysical fitness, and their psychophysical state does not ensure its safe execution and poses a threat to others,
b) there is an overhead power line with a rated voltage of 110 [kV] located 35 meters away,c) they have the required personal protective equipment.59. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is obliged to stop work when:
a) there is an overhead power line located 35 meters away,
b) the work they are performing poses an immediate threat to the health or life of others,
c) they have the required personal protective equipment.60. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is obliged to:
a) always have a category B driving license,b) independently perform all current repairs of the machine/technical device,
c) comply with the provisions of the operating and maintenance instructions for the machine/technical device.
61. The person directly responsible for the safe operation of the machine you are taking the exam for is:
a) machine operator,
b) construction manager,c) machine owner.62. The operator's book and qualifications for the machine/technical device you are taking the exam for are issued by:
a) Technical Supervision Authority (UDT),b) Transport Technical Supervision (TDT),
c) Łukasiewicz Research Network - Warsaw Institute of Technology.
63. The obligation to use personal protective equipment:
a) does not apply on hot days,b) results only from internal regulations,
c) results from the operating and maintenance instructions and health and safety regulations.
64. An employee who witnesses an accident at work:
a) just needs to notify their supervisor,b) is obliged to provide assistance to the victims and then immediately leave the accident scene,
c) is obliged to provide assistance to the victims, notify their supervisor, and if necessary secure the accident site.
65. What elements of the machine you are taking the exam for protect the operator in case the machine tips over:
a) ROPS type machine cabin and safety belts,
b) machine seat,c) certified safety helmet and reflective vest.66. In the event of loss of stability of a machine equipped with a ROPS cabin, the operator should:
a) try to leave the cabin as quickly as possible (before the machine tips over),b) quickly turn left and raise the working equipment as high as possible,
c) maintain a seated position while holding firmly to the steering wheel or other stable elements in the cabin.
67. In the event of loss of stability of a machine equipped with a ROPS cabin, the operator should:
a) turn on the warning/hazard lights,
b) remain in the cabin,
c) immediately jump out of the cabin.68. The danger zone is defined as:
a) a place where there are threats to the health and life of people,
b) a place where workers must only wear safety helmets,c) a place where work requiring specialized equipment takes place, and the presence of people is only allowed at night.69. The area that the operator should check and secure before starting work with the machine/technical device (because there are threats to the health and life of people) is called:
a) danger zone,
b) blind spot,c) area of increased risk.
70. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:
a) "turn the machine",
b) "raise up",
c) "lower down".
71. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "raise up",
b) "lower down",
c) "rotate the machine".
72. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "movement in the indicated direction",
b) "raise up",c) "rotate the machine".
73. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "raise up",
b) "movement in the indicated direction",
c) "rotate the machine".
74. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "end of operation",b) "stop",
c) "horizontal distance".
75. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "move forward",
b) "quick movement",c) "move backward".
76. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "move backward",
b) "slow movement",c) "move forward".
77. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "stop",
b) "vertical distance",
c) "end of operation".
78. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "move backward",b) "horizontal distance",
c) "STOP. Emergency stop".
79. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "move backward",
b) "START. Beginning of direction",
c) "STOP. Emergency stop".
80. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "move backward",
b) "STOP. Break - end of movement",
c) "STOP. Emergency stop".
81. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "lower down",
b) "END. Stop operation",
c) "horizontal distance".82. During the charging of batteries, a gas with highly explosive properties is released. This gas is:
a) ethane,b) methane,
c) hydrogen.
83. Firefighting foam can be used to extinguish fires of group:
a) C and D,b) only C,
c) A and B.
84. Improper use of a snow extinguisher can result in:
a) frostbite caused by the extinguishing agent,
b) fainting,c) burns from the extinguisher components.85. Water, fire blanket, powder extinguisher, carbon dioxide, sand are extinguishing agents that we will use to extinguish:
a) oils,
b) solid bodies,
c) liquids.86. Sorbents can be called:
a) petroleum substances,b) fire blankets,
c) materials made of natural or synthetic substances that absorb liquids.
87. Group A fires concern:
a) solid bodies, whose normal combustion occurs with the formation of glowing coals, e.g. wood, paper, etc.,
b) flammable liquids,c) flammable gases.88. Group B fires concern:
a) metals, e.g. magnesium, sodium, potassium, aluminum, titanium, etc.,b) flammable gases,
c) liquids and solid materials that melt, e.g. plastics, fuels, oils, etc..
89. Group C fires concern:
a) flammable liquids,
b) gases, e.g. methane, propane, acetylene, hydrogen,
c) solid bodies.
90. Seeing such a pictogram you are informed about:
a) danger zone,
b) assembly point during evacuation,
c) a larger number of people in a given area.
91. During work, you noticed a sign marked 'Zone 0'. It informs about:
a) a zone with a fire hazard category,
b) a space where an explosive atmosphere exists,
c) a zone with a fire load in the building.
92. The presented pictogram informs about:
a) a set of fire protection equipment,
b) the main power switch,c) an internal hydrant.
93. Seeing such a pictogram, you are informed about:
a) an emergency exit,
b) a gathering place during evacuation,c) a first aid station.
94. Seeing such a pictogram, you are informed about:
a) the location of the fire extinguisher,
b) the prohibition of using the fire extinguisher,c) high temperature affecting the fire extinguisher.95. You see a person whose clothing is on fire and who is fleeing in panic. Your reaction is:
a) you wave your arms or outer covering strongly next to him to extinguish the burning clothing,b) you tell him to wait in an upright position for the arrival of rescue services,
c) you try to stop him, lay him on the ground, and start extinguishing.
96. Electrical devices and installations can be extinguished using:
a) powder or snow extinguishers,
b) foam extinguishers,c) water.97. Burning fuel can be extinguished using:
a) water,
b) powder, foam or snow extinguishers,
c) low-octane ethylene.98. Clothing burning on a person can be extinguished using:
a) snow or powder extinguisher,b) plastic material,
c) water mist extinguisher or fire blanket.
99. What obligations does an employee have when they decide to refrain from work due to health and safety regulations?
a) They must immediately notify their supervisor,
b) They have no obligations in this situation,c) They should organize work for others.100. How can an operator prevent hazards in the workplace?
a) By not reporting faults in machines,
b) By using personal protective equipment to minimize risk,
c) By ignoring health and safety rules.101. Which of the following situations is prohibited while operating a machine?
a) Working near machines with appropriate signage,
b) Carrying loads over people,
c) Reporting machine faults at regular intervals.102. It is not permissible to position the workplace directly under active overhead power lines or at a horizontal distance from the outermost conductors of less than:
a) for lines: 1 [kV] - 1 [m], 15 [kV] - 3 [m], 30 [kV] - 5 [m], 110 [kV] - 10 [m],b) for all voltages - 1 [m] from the power line,
c) for lines: 1 [kV] - 3 [m], 15 [kV] - 5 [m], 30 [kV] - 10 [m], 110 [kV] - 15 [m], 400 [kV] - 30 [m].
103. How does the operator know what personal protective equipment is required for a given machine/technical device?
a) The choice of personal protective equipment depends on the opinions of colleagues at work,b) The operator must independently choose the appropriate protective measures,
c) Information about the necessary personal protective equipment is included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine.
104. The operator should refuse to perform a task when:
a) the work is being done at night,b) the work requires familiarization with the location of underground and above-ground utilities,
c) the work is inconsistent with the purpose of the machine/technical device.
105. The operator can prevent hazards during the operation of a machine/technical device by:
a) limiting the use of personal protective equipment,
b) following health and safety rules and adhering to the operating instructions,
c) inattention and routine.106. Which of the following situations is unacceptable during the use of a machine/technical device?
a) The presence of unauthorized persons in the danger zone caused by the operation of the machine/technical device,
b) Reporting faults directly to the supervisor,c) Operating the machine without supervision.107. An accident at work is considered to be:
a) a sudden event, unrelated to the work performed, caused by an external factor, resulting in injury or death,b) a prolonged event, related to the work performed, caused by an internal factor, resulting in equipment damage,
c) a sudden event, related to the work performed, caused by an external factor, resulting in injury or death.
108. A fatal accident at work is considered to be an accident in which death occurred:
a) within a period not exceeding 6 months from the date of the accident,
b) after a period exceeding 6 months from the date of the accident,c) only at the moment of the accident.109. It is prohibited to:
a) undertake work with the machine after completing training and obtaining the appropriate qualifications,
b) allow unauthorized persons within the reach of the machine's operation and work on slopes exceeding the permissible incline,
c) report noticed faults to the supervisor before starting work.110. When getting on and off the machine, it is prohibited to:
a) face the machine while getting on and off,
b) use the control lever as support,
c) intensively use the handrails and steps.111. Occupational health and safety regulations require:
a) securing the working machine during breaks in its operation against accidental activation by unauthorized persons,
b) performing a warranty inspection of the working machine before the end of one year from its purchase,c) scrapping the old working machine within the time specified in its operating and maintenance instructions, while adhering to the requirements for the disposal of hazardous materials.112. In the event of a person being electrocuted:
a) do not touch the victim until the power source is disconnected,
b) it is recommended to use any tools to disconnect the power, regardless of their actual purpose,c) immediate resuscitation should be initiated, regardless of whether the power source has been disconnected.113. In the event of a person being buried under earth or sand:
a) we always calmly wait for rescue services - any attempt to help would be too dangerous,b) the person should be dug out as quickly as possible regardless of one's own safety - it's about their life,
c) the person should be dug out as quickly as possible, provided it is safe for the rescuer.
114. Seeing a person whose clothes are on fire, the first thing to do is:
a) use a fire extinguisher, preferably a snow extinguisher, to extinguish the burning clothing, and then try to quickly remove the melted clothing,
b) cut off the air supply by rolling the victim or wrapping them in a fire blanket, wet clothing, or a wet blanket,
c) leave the victim standing to facilitate air access and extinguish the flames more quickly.115. If during earthworks unidentified objects are discovered, then:
a) a danger zone with a radius of 6 [m] should be designated, outside of which normal work can continue,b) earthworks can continue if a distance of at least 1 [m] is maintained from such an object,
c) further work is halted and the supervising person for the earthworks is notified.
116. In the case of finding an unexploded ordnance during earthworks, one should:
a) ignore the unexploded ordnance if it does not pose an immediate threat,b) try to carefully remove the unexploded ordnance from the work area and continue working,
c) stop work, remove other workers from the danger zone, notify supervisors, and secure the area.
117. The wedge of soil collapse:
a) is the area around the working machine extending a distance of 6 [m] beyond its farthest reach,b) occurs only when the soil is in a frozen state,
c) occurs when the slope of the embankment exceeds the angle of the natural soil slope.
118. The reach of the soil collapse wedge:
a) depends on the depth of the excavation and the category of the soil,
b) depends solely on the temperature of the soil,c) depends on the speed of the machine's operation and the efficiency of the operator.119. The angle of the natural slope is:
a) the maximum slope at which the soil can remain without sliding - it depends, among other things, on the category of the soil,
b) the angle at which the soil will definitely slide by itself - it depends solely on the temperature of that soil,c) the angle at which the machine can be operated safely - it depends on the parameters of the given machine.120. The wedge of soil collapse:
a) is the zone where the soil becomes unstable - its reach depends solely on the depth of the excavation, the type of soil does not matter here,
b) occurs when the slope of the embankment exceeds the angle of the natural soil slope - its reach depends on the type of soil and the depth of the excavation or the height of the embankment,
c) is the space around the machine, dependent on the speed of the machine's operation and its weight.121. The angle of a natural slope is:
a) the angle at which a machine can safely move on an embankment, regardless of the soil category,b) the slope at which any bank becomes unstable, regardless of the type of soil,
c) the maximum slope at which soil can remain without sliding - it depends on the type of soil, e.g. moisture, cohesion, and grain size.
122. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is performed:
a) when the injured person is breathing but unconscious, with no contact,
b) when the injured person is not breathing and there is no detectable pulse. For a non-professional rescuer, lack of breathing is a sufficient basis to start resuscitation,
c) only in the case of fainting and minor injuries, to improve blood circulation.123. An employee has the right to refrain from performing work due to health and safety regulations, notifying their supervisor immediately when:
a) working conditions pose an immediate threat to health or life,
b) working conditions do not pose a threat, but are too difficult for them,c) the work they are performing has not been reported to the construction supervision.124. Physical factors generating hazards in the workplace are:
a) spilled lubricants, oils, and fuels,
b) lack of appropriate medical examinations for the employee,c) lack of or improper training for employees.125. Working with a machine/device is not allowed when:
a) it is malfunctioning,
b) its repair was carried out after dark,c) the second operator did not report an upcoming inspection.126. Working near overhead power lines:
a) always requires de-energizing the line,b) always requires double grounding of the line,
c) is possible without meeting additional requirements provided that specific distances depending on the rated voltage of the line are maintained.
127. The operator is obliged to refuse to work if:
a) the working machine is defective,
b) there is no construction manager or any other authorized person for supervision at the work site,c) they would have to work under power lines, and the voltage in them has been turned off and the line grounded.128. The danger zone from a machine/technical device is:
a) always the entire fenced construction site,b) a place where the machine/technical device cannot be used,
c) a place where there are hazards to health or life of people.
129. Accidents at work resulting from the poor technical condition of the working machine may involve, for example:
a) injury to a limb, torso, or head,
b) damage to equipment,c) failure of the drive system.130. Unacceptable behaviors are:
a) working after dark in a well-lit place, with full concentration of the operator,
b) working with a defective machine and working under the influence of alcohol,
c) performing daily maintenance of the machine after dark.131. General rules for safely getting on and off the machine are:
a) the person should face the machine, remember the "three-point support" rule, and use only specially made steps and handrails,
b) it is acceptable to step back from the machine, but only when the steps are slippery,c) using cables and levers as aids for getting on is permissible when the machine is turned off.132. Basic employee responsibilities regarding occupational health and safety are:
a) adhering to health and safety regulations and rules, taking care of the condition of machines and tools, and maintaining order in the workplace, using personal protective equipment,
b) enforcing labor code regulations regarding their rights, including payment for overtime worked,c) not being late for work, finishing on time, confirming presence at work in the manner accepted by the employer.133. In the case of a person electrocuted, after disconnecting the power source, one should:
a) check the condition of the injured person, and if necessary: call for help, clear the airways, perform resuscitation, and use an AED if available,
b) move the injured person to another location as quickly as possible,c) leave the injured person alone if they have regained consciousness, without further actions.134. When a person buried under earth or sand is partially dug out, one should:
a) clear the airways as quickly as possible,
b) quickly dig out the left arm to check for a pulse,c) focus on digging out the lower parts of the injured person's body.135. After extinguishing flames on a person with burns and calling for help, one should:
a) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes, first removing any melted clothing,b) use a snow extinguisher to cool the burn areas,
c) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes, without removing any melted clothing.
136. Statement: "The operator's qualifications for the machine you are taking the exam for are sufficient to operate such a machine on public roads" is:
a) true, but only under normal air visibility conditions,
b) false,
c) true.
137. Seeing such a pictogram you are informed about:
a) the location where an external automatic defibrillator is available,
b) the location where a first aid kit is available,c) the location for performing AED.138. Properly performed cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) consists of:
a) connecting the external automatic defibrillator (AED) and following its instructions; CPR is not performed without AED,b) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 30-60 times per minute to a depth of 1–3 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 15 compressions (breaths are mandatory),
c) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 100-120 times per minute to a depth of 5–6 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 30 compressions (breaths are not mandatory).
139. Materials must not be stored in the danger zone of a natural soil collapse:
a) always, when the soil is sandy,b) when the excavation is deeper than 1.5 [m] regardless of its support,
c) when the walls of the excavation are unshored.
140. The abbreviation IBWR stands for:
a) Instruction for Non-Failure Execution of Works,
b) Instruction for Safe Execution of Works,
c) Instruction for Non-Failure Execution of Works.141. Expand the abbreviation IBWR:
a) Information on Safe Execution of Works,b) Implementation of Failure-Free Execution of Works,
c) Instruction for Safe Execution of Works.
142. The BIOZ plan means:
a) plan for Safe Health Protection Instruction,b) plan for Safety and Resource Specification,
c) plan for Safety and Health Protection.
143. When driving a machine for earthworks on a public road, the operator must:
a) have a driving license of the appropriate category, operator's qualifications for the given machine, liability insurance,
b) only have qualifications for the given earthworks machine, there are no additional requirements,c) be at least 20 years old and have operator qualifications for the given earthworks machine.
144. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 1.6 [m],b) 4 [m],
c) 1 [m].
145. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 1 [m],b) 1.6 [m],
c) 1.5 [m].
146. The reach of the wedge of the block for an excavation with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 1 [m],
b) 0.5 [m],
c) 1.6 [m].147. The reach of the wedge of the block for an excavation with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 2 [m],b) 1.6 [m],
c) 1 [m].
148. The reach of the wedge of the block for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 2 [m],
b) 1.6 [m],c) 1 [m].149. The reach of the wedge of the block for an excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 1 [m],b) 2 [m],
c) 3 [m].
150. The reach of the wedge of the block for an excavation with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 2.6 [m],b) 3 [m],
c) 4 [m].
151. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 2.6 [m],b) 1 [m],
c) 1.6 [m].
152. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 6.6 [m],b) 3.6 [m],
c) 2.1 [m].
153. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 2 [m],
b) 2.6 [m],
c) 4.6 [m].154. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 2 [m],b) 2.6 [m],
c) 1.1 [m].
155. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 2 [m],
b) 1.6 [m],
c) 2.6 [m].156. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category III (cracked rocks) is:
a) 2 [m],
b) 2.6 [m],
c) 4.6 [m].157. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category III (cracked rocks) is:
a) 3.6 [m],
b) 2.1 [m],c) 3 [m].158. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category III (cracked rocks) is:
a) 4 [m],b) 2.6 [m],
c) 4.6 [m].
159. Traffic safety devices used in roadworks conducted in the road strip can be colored:
a) white, green, blue,b) red, yellow-red, blue,
c) white, red, yellow, and black.
160. Traffic safety devices used to secure and mark the site of work in the road strip should be visible:
a) during the day and at night,
b) only during the day,c) only at night.161. In a dangerous situation, when the cabin door cannot be opened:
a) you must not leave the cabin until help arrives,
b) you should use the emergency exit provided by the manufacturer,
c) the space can be used as an emergency exit after removing the floor panel.162. In the case of mechanical damage to the FOPS/ROPS cabin (e.g. denting of the cabin element) the operator:
a) can repair the damage on their own without wasting time on downtime,b) can continue working if the cabin windows are intact,
c) should stop working and report the failure to the supervisor or the person responsible for machines in the company.
163. In the case of mechanical damage to the FOPS/ROPS cabin (e.g. denting of the cabin element) the operator:
a) can repair such damage on their own, but only based on the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine,
b) cannot repair such damage on their own,
c) can always repair such damage on their own.164. If the seat belt is damaged, you should:
a) exercise special caution while working,b) continue working and report the problem after finishing work,
c) report the damage and not start working until the belt is repaired or replaced.
165. The operator must wear a safety helmet while operating the machine when:
a) they often lean out of the cabin while working,b) they are working on demolition tasks using long booms,
c) they are working in a machine not equipped with a closed cabin.
166. Entering and exiting the machine should be done:
a) facing the machine, maintaining three points of contact,
b) entering sideways while being careful of the devices in the cabin,c) facing away from the machine, using a three-step ladder.167. Prohibited activities during the operation and servicing of the machine or technical device are:
a) using machines with safety or signaling devices,
b) operating machines by individuals without the appropriate qualifications,
c) using machines on rocky ground during heavy rain.168. The site for earthworks before they begin should be:
a) additionally compacted,
b) marked out and signposted,
c) fenced in a permanent manner.169. In the case of ongoing earthworks, the designation of the danger zone involves:
a) conducting work pointwise while maintaining a 6 [m] zone,b) securing and marking a 6 [m] zone from the machine,
c) securing and marking the entire work area.
170. Visible underground infrastructure devices that provide initial insight into their layout are most often:
a) abandoned road frames where they pass through,b) graphic symbols marked on the road surface,
c) hydrant boxes, water shut-off boxes, manhole covers.
171. The operator can work, without the need for prior loosening, in soil:
a) category V-VIII,b) all categories above IV,
c) category I.
172. The minimum distance from the edge of the excavation with supported walls, in which spoil can be stored is:
a) directly at the edge of the excavation, if the soil is dry,
b) 0.6 [m] from the edge of the excavation, if the spoil load has been taken into account in the selection of the support,
c) 0.3 [m] from the edge of the excavation, without additional conditions.173. Examples of work classified as preparatory work before starting earthworks may include:
a) daily operation of machines and construction devices,b) purchase and storage of materials and tools necessary for the work,
c) preparing the area by removing obstacles, making control trenches, and marking out the construction.
174. Humus is:
a) a mineral used for soil stabilization,
b) the outer layer of soil rich in humus,
c) a deeper layer of earth, usually up to 1 [m] thick.175. The basic methods of dewatering excavations are:
a) extracting water by pumping, manual drying,
b) surface dewatering, deep dewatering, surrounding drainage,
c) mechanical dewatering, natural dewatering, surface dewatering.176. When carrying out the unloading cycle, the operator should start lifting the loading equipment:
a) immediately after starting to drive to the unloading site to reduce rolling resistance,b) before making the last sharp turn with the machine,
c) when approaching the transport vehicle or pile.
177. During work related to wide-area excavations, the loader is particularly useful for:
a) digging trenches narrower than 1.5 [m],b) removing vegetation and roots in the excavation area,
c) moving the excavated material, transporting it to the transport vehicle, and leveling the bottom of the excavation.
178. When driving in off-road conditions, the empty bucket of a single-bucket loader:
a) should be completely lowered to the ground and pushed in front of the machine,b) should be open and lowered just above the ground,
c) should be closed and raised to a height of about 0.5 [m].
179. Soils, according to the degree of difficulty of their detachment, are divided into:
a) 10 categories,
b) 16 categories,
c) 4 categories.180. The operator of the machine should know the category of the soil on which he is working:
a) to calculate the safe distance for setting up the machine and the reach of the failure wedge,
b) to know the requirements for operating the machine's chassis,c) to be able to assess the depth of the excavation.181. During the loading of material onto the vehicle, the operator:
a) should not move the bucket with material over the cabin of the vehicle,
b) can move the bucket with material over the cabin of the vehicle if it speeds up the loading,c) can drop the material onto the transport at any convenient height.182. An example of work classified as preparatory work for earthworks is:
a) installation of lighting devices and marking places for heavy machines,
b) making control trenches, removing trees and shrubs, marking buildings on site,
c) laying asphalt pavement and installing fences.183. Removing humus is:
a) the main stage of earthworks,b) work performed always after the completion of construction works,
c) one of the stages of preparatory works.
184. Subsurface drainage consists of:
a) lowering the groundwater level using depression wells or filter points,
b) pumping water from the bottom level of the excavation,c) digging ditches around the excavation.185. The bucket of the loader during the transport of material to the unloading site should be:
a) closed and raised to a height of about 30-50 [cm],
b) maximally raised to increase visibility,c) fully lowered to ensure driving stability.186. The term: "machine efficiency for earthworks" refers to:
a) the amount of fuel consumed by the machine per hour of operation,
b) the effect of the machine's work over a unit of time,
c) the level of engine load during the machine's operation over a unit of time.187. The efficiency of a machine for earthworks can be expressed:
a) in pressure units [bar] or temperature [°C],
b) in volume or mass units per unit of time e.g. [m³/h], [t/h],
c) in speed or revolutions per unit of time e.g. [km/h], [rpm], [rev./s].188. When loading large rock fragments onto a vehicle, a cushioning layer of rubble or sand should be used to:
a) speed up the later unloading of stones,
b) prevent the movement of stones and minimize the risk of damaging the cargo box,
c) balance the vehicle's load and improve its stability.189. When loading large stones onto a vehicle, one should remember to:
a) drop stones from a great height to fit them into the rubble or sand spread on the bottom,
b) place a cushioning layer of sand or rubble at the bottom of the cargo box before loading the stones,
c) load stones directly onto the empty bottom of the box and cover them with sand or rubble to stabilize them.190. Construction excavations are divided into:
a) narrow-space, wide-space, and cavity,
b) small, medium, and deep,c) underground, above ground, and intermediate.191. A trench is classified as wide-ranging when:
a) its width exceeds 1.5 [m], and its length is greater than 1.5 [m],
b) its depth exceeds 2 [m] regardless of length,c) its width is 1 [m], and its length and depth are greater than 1.5 [m].192. Using a snow blower on a loader is more effective than a plow in the following situation:
a) on large, flat, and even surfaces with a small amount of snow,
b) with a large amount of snow when it is required to throw it over a greater distance,
c) in small areas located in tight buildings.193. The operator during the vehicle loading cycle should:
a) avoid looking back while reversing the machine to constantly observe the material,
b) make smooth movements with the attachment and not move the working tool over the operator's cabin,
c) fill the working container only halfway to avoid overloading.194. The soil obtained from the excavation is called a deposit:
a) when it is stored for later, e.g., to fill the excavation,
b) when it is used for compacting the area,c) regardless of future use.195. If the machine is equipped with a hydraulic quick coupler to which the working attachment is connected, then it should:
a) periodically replace the quick coupler, at least once a month,b) check the quick coupler only when a leak appears at the connection,
c) check the condition of the quick coupler and its connections to the working attachment daily.
196. When excavating a high embankment with loading equipment, the operator should remember that:
a) the height of the embankment affects the efficiency of the loader,b) changing the working speed can lead to problems with overhangs,
c) an embankment height greater than the maximum cutting height of the machine can lead to the formation of overhangs.
197. The operator's actions that increase the risk of overhangs during embankment excavation are:
a) using a machine with too low power,
b) incorrect sequence of passes during embankment excavation,
c) working at an embankment lower than the maximum cutting height of the machine.198. It is possible to operate a machine with the cabin doors open:
a) only if the operating and maintenance manual of the machine provides for such a possibility,
b) always,c) only when the air temperature exceeds 25 [°C].199. The operator can determine the maximum load values that can be lifted using the machine:
a) based on the operating and maintenance manual,
b) through trial lifting,c) based on information on the welded hook.200. The "floating" bucket/blade system:
a) protects the equipment from loss during drainage work,
b) works on the principle of automatic adjustment to the terrain, which is possible due to a special hydraulic system,
c) allows the machine to move smoothly on slopes.201. The type of interchangeable working equipment used depends on whether:
a) the equipment has a CE certificate,b) the machine has undergone a periodic inspection,
c) the equipment is approved for use by the machine manufacturer.
202. The course of underground land development should be marked before starting work in order to:
a) enable quick movement of machines in any direction,b) save time and reduce earthwork costs,
c) avoid the risk of damaging the network during work.
203. Which of the listed elements are not part of the hydraulic system:
a) starter, alternator,
b) pump, distributor, actuator,c) hydraulic lock, hydraulic oil tank.204. The hydraulic lock in the machine is:
a) the closure of the hydraulic oil inlet at its tank,
b) a valve that protects against uncontrolled movement of the element in a given line,
c) a valve responsible for controlling the entire hydraulic system.205. The change in hydraulic oil pressure into mechanical movement is caused by:
a) hydraulic distributor,b) hydraulic pump system,
c) hydraulic actuator and hydraulic motor.
206. Pressure in the hydraulic system is generated by:
a) hydraulic actuator,b) hydraulic motor,
c) hydraulic pump.
207. Directing the flow of hydraulic oil to individual systems is carried out by:
a) hydraulic distributor,
b) relief valve,c) hydraulic lock.208. The safety valve protects the hydraulic system from:
a) overheating of hydraulic oil,b) air in the hydraulic system,
c) excessive pressure increase.
209. The relief valve in the hydraulic system is responsible for:
a) venting the system,b) maintaining a constant position of the working tool,
c) limiting the maximum working pressure in a given circuit.
210. If the pressure in the hydraulic system rises excessively, the excess oil will be directed to:
a) hydraulic oil tank,
b) hydraulic oil filter,c) distributor.211. The basic parameters that characterize an electric battery are:
a) rated voltage [V], capacity [Ah], starting current [A],
b) rated voltage [V], resistance [Ω], power [W],c) rated voltage [V], power [W], weight [kg].212. Lead-acid batteries can be charged:
a) in any room,
b) in a place specifically designated for this purpose,
c) only in an air-conditioned room.213. The pressure in the tires should be adjusted to:
a) the requirements of the landowner,b) the preferences of the operator,
c) the values given in the operating and maintenance manual.
214. Uneven pressure in the tires:
a) reduces the stability of the machine,
b) does not affect the operation of the machine,c) improves the driving properties of the machine.215. In a working machine, the reduction gear is most often located:
a) in the hydraulic system, near the main pump,b) in the operator's cabin, near the drive controller,
c) in the drive system near the driving wheels.
216. Hydraulic distributor:
a) converts mechanical energy into hydraulic energy,
b) directs the flow of hydraulic oil to the appropriate sections,
c) increases the torque in the side gearbox.217. A hydraulic distributor is a technical device that:
a) allows control of individual hydraulic sections of the machine,
b) distributes oil between the engine and the hydraulic system,c) distributes oil between the small and large circuits.218. A ROPS cabin in construction machines protects the operator from:
a) crushing in the event of the machine overturning,
b) being hit by falling objects from above,c) dust in the operator's cabin.219. An FOPS cabin in construction machines protects the operator from:
a) being hit by falling objects from above,
b) excessive noise in the operator's cabin,c) crushing in the event of the machine overturning.220. A ROPS cabin in construction machines protects against:
a) the machine overturning,b) the machine falling from a slope and rolling over,
c) crushing the operator in the event of the machine overturning.
221. The difference between a ROPS cabin and a FOPS cabin is that:
a) the ROPS cabin protects against crushing, while the FOPS protects against falling objects from above,
b) the ROPS cabin protects against noise, while the FOPS protects against the machine overturning,c) the ROPS cabin protects against falling objects from above, while the FOPS protects against crushing.222. The basic condition for ROPS and FOPS cabins to provide effective protection to the operator is:
a) the operator fastening the seat belts,
b) regular maintenance of the cabin,c) lubricating the cabin joints at least once a week.223. The differential mechanism:
a) allows for increased driving speed on straight sections,b) regulates the flow of fluids in the differential system,
c) enables differentiation of the rotational speed of the drive wheels working on a single axle.
224. Joints in drive systems serve to:
a) reduce the rotational speed of the wheels,
b) transmit torque between shafts with inclined axes,
c) stabilize the machine on uneven terrain.225. The operation of cross joints in drive systems involves:
a) keeping them clean and regularly lubricated,
b) daily checking of clearances,c) checking the oil level in the joints as part of daily technical maintenance.226. The term body in earthmoving machines refers to:
a) the base of the machine,b) the upper part of the machine with the drive system,
c) the upper part of the machine.
227. The lifting and lowering of the bucket in the loader attachment is the responsibility of:
a) the boom cylinder,
b) the straightening mechanism,c) the bucket cylinder.228. The hydrokinetic transmission (torque converter) in the drive system of the machine:
a) allows manual control of the torque transmitted to the drive wheels,
b) smoothly increases the torque as the load increases,
c) smoothly decreases the torque as the load increases.229. The smooth increase of torque, depending on the load, is the responsibility of:
a) hydrokinetic transmission,
b) mechanical gearbox,c) drive shaft with joints.230. The reduction of speed while simultaneously increasing the torque transmitted to the drive wheels is achieved by:
a) hydraulic distributor,b) wet brakes,
c) planetary gears.
231. Types of drive systems found in loader chassis are:
a) electric, pneumatic, hydraulic,
b) mechanical, mechanical-hydrodynamic, hydrostatic,
c) only mechanical or mechanical-hydrodynamic.232. The protection of the operator during work is provided by:
a) fenders and work platforms,b) counterweights and windshield wipers,
c) a cabin with ROPS and FOPS shields.
233. The linear mechanism in the working system of the loader:
a) keeps the bucket position in a fixed position during lifting and lowering the boom,
b) is used for easier horizontal guiding of the bucket when cutting and scooping material,c) allows the bucket to move sideways for precise positioning.234. The main function of the grab in loaders is:
a) transporting non-standard and irregular materials, such as wood or scrap,
b) crushing large pieces of soil into smaller parts,c) increasing the loader's traction on uneven terrain.235. The differential mechanism allows the transmission of torque to the wheels:
a) ensuring their rotation always at the same speeds,b) of two different axles,
c) while simultaneously rotating the wheels at different speeds.
236. In vehicles with a differential mechanism when turning:
a) the inner wheel rotates faster than the outer one,
b) the inner wheel rotates slower than the outer one,
c) the load is transferred solely to the inner wheel.237. Damage to the ROPS frame resulting in the need for replacement includes:
a) cracking or bending of the structure,
b) discoloration of the paint caused by weather conditions and the passage of time,c) minor surface scratches.238. Drilling additional holes in the ROPS cabin structure is prohibited because:
a) it causes a decrease in the strength of the structure,
b) it reduces the weight of the machine,c) it lowers the comfort of the operator's work.239. The flow and direction of hydraulic fluid in the system are regulated by:
a) hydraulic motors,
b) hydraulic valves,
c) hydraulic pumps.240. Components of the system, such as actuators and hydraulic motors, convert hydraulic energy into:
a) electrical energy,
b) mechanical energy,
c) pressure in the tank.241. The function of the FOPS protective structure is:
a) protection of the operator from the effects of the machine overturning,
b) protection of the operator from falling objects,
c) protection of the operator from the effects of exhaust fumes and noise.242. The FOPS protective structure must be used when:
a) working where heavy elements may fall on the cabin (e.g. demolition work, in quarries, etc.),
b) underwater work,c) all earthworks.243. In a machine equipped with a ROPS or FOPS protective structure, there must exist and be used by the operator an additional safety system, which is:
a) seat belts,
b) safety helmet, safety footwear,c) safety footwear, hearing protectors, respiratory protection.244. The ROPS protective structure in a machine:
a) is always required,
b) is not required when only qualified machine operators are employed,c) is not required when it is not technically possible, and there is a low risk of the machine overturning (possibility of support with a boom).245. Optimal damping of shocks and vibrations of the operator's seat is ensured by:
a) as flexible a seat adjustment as possible,
b) adjusting the seat to the weight of the operator,
c) setting the seat rigidly.246. The control panel for locking the working tool, when the machine is equipped with a quick-change device with hydraulic locking, is equipped with:
a) protection against unintentional activation of the control panel,
b) protection against excessive engine speed,c) 16-ampere protection against electrical overload.247. Protective equipment that the machine must have during demolition work is:
a) a device warning against overload and protection against cable breakage on the boom,b) a signal lamp and white-red-white safety stickers,
c) a protective canopy – FOPS cabin.
248. The mandatory equipment for observing the area directly behind the machine by the operator is:
a) an audible signal when reversing,
b) an external mirror,
c) a rearview camera.249. Together with the operator in the machine's cabin, other people may ride if:
a) the machine is moving at a low speed,
b) the manufacturer has installed an additional seat,
c) they have undergone health and safety training with the operator and there are a maximum of 2 people.250. The most important element of the operator's cabin equipment from the perspective of his safety is:
a) emergency STOP button,
b) seat belt,
c) mirror or camera.251. Mirrors and rearview camera in the machine are used for:
a) improving the operator's visibility and increasing safety,
b) monitoring the technical condition of the machine,c) facilitating maneuvering of the working equipment.252. In ROPS-type cabins, additional equipment such as phone holders can be installed independently:
a) remembering that installation is only possible on the cabin pillars,b) but this equipment must be permanently screwed to the cabin structure,
c) provided that there is no interference with the cabin structure.
253. In machines that do not have closed cabins, ROPS protection can be implemented using:
a) additional barriers mounted on the machine's body,b) a machine stabilization system or ballasting,
c) rollover protection bars.
254. A green flashing light placed on the machine's cabin signals, among other things:
a) the machine's eco mode is activated,
b) the seat belts are properly fastened,
c) no operator in the cabin.255. With a parallel connection of two identical batteries, the voltage of such a system is:
a) equal to the voltage of a single battery,
b) the product of the voltages of the individual batteries,c) the sum of the voltages of the individual batteries.256. In a series connection of two identical batteries, the voltage of such a system is:
a) the sum of the voltages of the individual batteries,
b) the product of the voltages of the individual batteries,c) equal to the voltage of a single battery.257. Fuses in the electrical installation of a machine protect it from the effects of:
a) high temperature,b) low voltage,
c) short circuits and overloads.
258. One of the elements of the electrical system protecting the motor from seizing is:
a) main fuse,
b) engine oil pressure sensor,
c) speed controller.259. Gel batteries, which are part of the electrical system, do not require:
a) charging with a rectifier,b) replacement when the housing is damaged,
c) electrolyte replenishment.
260. Electrical systems of machines and devices should be equipped with a device that causes emergency stop in at least the amount of:
a) three devices causing emergency stop, according to the European machinery directive,b) two devices causing emergency stop placed on both sides of the machine, according to the European machinery directive,
c) one device causing emergency stop, according to the European machinery directive.
261. The emergency stop device of the machine is a component of:
a) the drive system,b) the fuel system,
c) the electrical system.
262. The main parameters of the internal combustion engine that affect work efficiency are:
a) compression ratio, displacement,
b) torque, rotational speed,
c) type of carburetor, type of ignition system.263. The crank-piston system of the internal combustion engine is designed to:
a) convert mechanical energy into hydraulic energy,
b) convert the reciprocating motion of the piston into the rotational motion of the crankshaft,
c) ensure the effective operation of the clutch.264. The lubrication system in the internal combustion engine:
a) is responsible for the proper lubrication of the moving parts of the engine that work together,
b) provides regulation of the rotational speed and reduces engine vibrations during operation,c) is responsible for removing hazardous substances generated in the combustion process of the mixture.265. Systems present in internal combustion engines include, among others:
a) crank-piston system, fuel system, cooling system,
b) exhaust system, pneumatic system, closed system,c) hydraulic system, intake system.266. The low-pressure part of the diesel engine fuel system is:
a) fuel tank and injectors,
b) fuel tank, supply pump, filters, fuel lines,
c) fuel lines, high-pressure pump, common rail.267. The element controlling the flow of coolant in the so-called "large circuit" is:
a) thermostat,
b) thermocouple,c) hot water bottle.268. An intercooler is:
a) a device for burning solid particles in exhaust gases,b) another name for the engine coolant radiator,
c) an air cooler for turbocharged engines.
269. DPF filter:
a) is a dry particulate filter responsible, among other things, for capturing soot from exhaust gases,
b) is a precise cabin filter protecting the operator while working in high dust conditions,c) is used to reduce NOx (nitrogen oxides) emissions.270. The frequency and scope of periodic maintenance of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam:
a) are included in the IBWR documentation,
b) are included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine,
c) is determined by the owner of the machine/technical device.271. The operating and maintenance manual for a machine/technical device is:
a) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by the health and safety services on the construction site,
b) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device,
c) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device, which includes, among other things, IBWR.272. The operator of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam must not:
a) use the machine/technical device for purposes other than intended,
b) make any repairs or maintenance,c) during operation, check the technical condition of the machine/technical device.273. A symptom of too low a level of hydraulic oil may be:
a) "jerky" intermittent movement of hydraulic actuators,
b) uneven operation of the diesel engine,c) loud operation of the starter.274. In the event of damage to the tires that may pose a threat, the operator should:
a) continue working by reducing the speed and load of the machine,
b) stop working,
c) notify the supervisor and cautiously continue working.275. If the warning light for too low engine oil pressure comes on, the operator:
a) does not need to take any action,b) may continue working if the hydraulic system is functioning properly,
c) should stop working and turn off the engine.
276. The cause of the machine's instability may be:
a) the machine operating in a place suitable for it,b) driving on a hardened surface,
c) too low tire pressure.
277. The cause of the machine's instability may be:
a) driving on a hardened surface,b) driving with the working tool lowered to the transport height,
c) driving with the working tool raised high.
278. The operating and maintenance manual for the machine/technical device:
a) includes, among others, information about hazards when operating the machine/technical device,
b) is established by the owner or user of the machine,c) is used to record information about faults.279. The CE Declaration of Conformity is a document:
a) confirming that the product was manufactured in the countries of the European Union,b) issued by institutions dealing with testing machines for resistance to weather conditions,
c) in which the manufacturer confirms that its product meets all applicable EU requirements regarding safety, health protection, and environmental protection.
280. Information regarding the use of personal protective equipment and ways to limit the occupational risk can be found by the operator:
a) in the service book,
b) in the operating and maintenance manual for the machine/technical device,
c) in the CE Declaration of Conformity.281. The operating and maintenance manual for the machine/technical device:
a) is developed by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device or the entity that introduces the machine/technical device to the market,
b) is created by the construction manager based on information from the manufacturer,c) is created by institutions that conduct testing and accreditation of machine/technical device prototypes before allowing them for serial production.282. The operating and maintenance manual for the machine/technical device:
a) should be located in the machine or with the device, treated as part of the machine/technical device and be available at all times,
b) should be located in the office together with the company's documentation and be available in case of inspection,c) does not matter where it is located, the most important thing is that the owner of the machine has it in case of resale of the machine.283. Identification data of the machine/technical device:
a) should be recorded on the inner side of the protective helmet assigned to the given machine/technical device,
b) are located on the nameplate of the machine/technical device, additionally they may be in the marking places described in the manual,
c) due to their importance are always printed in red.284. To minimize the risk of malfunction of the machine/technical device, the operator should:
a) regularly visually assess the condition of the machine/technical device and report any irregularities noticed,
b) use the machine/technical device until the failure becomes serious,c) perform maintenance activities only when the machine/technical device stops working.285. Key activities for the safe technical operation of the machine are:
a) securing equipment, covers, and doors against accidental closure and using personal protective equipment,
b) using latex gloves, without the need for other personal protective equipment,c) performing technical service without securing working equipment to save time.286. The rules for safely performing technical service on machines are:
a) the engine can remain on to expedite service, especially if the machine is running idle,b) the machine can be left on sloped terrain, as long as the operator plans a short technical service,
c) the machine should be positioned on level ground, with working equipment lowered to the ground, the engine turned off, and the key removed from the ignition.
287. Breaking in a machine during the initial period of operation is:
a) an intensive full load test of the machine,b) a stage of the machine's operation without load,
c) the process of achieving optimal clearances and even wear of parts.
288. The operator uses the operating and maintenance manual of the machine or technical device to:
a) record the hours worked and fuel consumption by the machine,b) record all faults of the machine or technical device noticed during operation,
c) understand the technical specifications, safety rules, and methods of repairing faults.
289. The operational part of the operating and maintenance manual of the machine or technical device includes:
a) instructions regarding, among others, controlling the machine/device,
b) a detailed description of the construction and operation of all elements of the machine/device,c) a catalog of spare parts.290. The operating and maintenance manual must always be present with the machine/device because:
a) it minimizes the risk of it being lost,b) it is essential for periodic technical inspections,
c) its absence may be a reason for the machine not being allowed to operate by the safety inspector.
291. The elements of the working system that require regular lubrication are:
a) connecting pins of individual parts of the equipment,
b) side surfaces of hydraulic cylinders,c) flexible hydraulic hoses.292. When operating a machine equipped with a hydrokinetic transmission, long slippages should be avoided because:
a) they cause excessive heating of the converter, which can lead to its damage,
b) they can cause leakage and oil spillage from the hydraulic system,c) they reduce the overall power transmitted to the drive system.293. The articulated frame of a wheeled single-bucket loader should be secured:
a) while driving straight,
b) while lifting the loader on wire ropes,
c) while driving on uneven terrain.294. For safety reasons, it is recommended to secure the articulated frame of the loader during:
a) work on steep slopes,
b) performing maintenance and technical service tasks,
c) long straight drives with a load.295. The SAE designation on oil refers to:
a) the viscosity of engine oil, that is, its ability to flow and lubricate,
b) the pressure of engine oil,c) the multi-season qualification of the oil.296. Oil with the symbol SAE 15W-40 means that:
a) at negative temperature has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 15W, and at positive temperature of summer oil class SAE 40,
b) at positive temperature has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 15W,c) at positive temperature has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40.297. Oil with the symbol SAE 10W-30 means that:
a) at positive temperature has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W,b) at negative temperature has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 30,
c) at negative temperature has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W, and at positive temperature of summer oil class SAE 30.
298. The symbol SAE 10W-30 means:
a) a mixture of engine oil and hydraulic oil,b) hydraulic oil with specified parameters,
c) multi-season engine oil with specified parameters.
299. Engine oil with the symbol SAE 5W-40 means that:
a) at negative temperature has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40,b) at positive temperature has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 5W,
c) at negative temperature has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 5W, and at positive temperature of summer oil class SAE 40.
300. The symbol of the warning light shown in the graphic means:
a) low engine oil level,
b) low engine oil pressure,c) low coolant level.
301. The symbol of the warning light presented in the graphic means:
a) low engine oil pressure,
b) low fuel level,c) low coolant level.
302. The symbol of the light presented means:
a) engine oil,
b) engine oil filter,c) hydraulic oil.
303. The symbol of the light presented means:
a) engine coolant level,
b) engine oil level,
c) hydraulic oil level.304. Oils with the designations 70W, 85W, 80W-90 are:
a) engine oils,
b) transmission oils,
c) brake oils.305. In case of the need to dismantle the cover/protection for maintenance, it is not allowed to:
a) record such a fact in the documentation,b) reassemble the cover/protection,
c) start working with the device without installing the cover/protection.
306. The lighting of the battery charging control lamp signals to the construction machine operator a failure of:
a) the V-belt and/or alternator,
b) the battery switch,c) the starter.307. The operator's seat cannot be adjusted when:
a) the seat is turned backwards,b) the engine is not running,
c) the machine is in motion.
308. If during daily technical service before work the operator notices that one of the windows in the cabin is cracked, then:
a) he can start work provided that the window is only cracked and has not "fallen out",
b) he should not start work,
c) he can start work if it is not the front window.309. Before starting work, the operator should:
a) install sun shields on the windows,b) open the windows for better communication,
c) clean the windows by removing snow, ice, and other contaminants.
310. When changing hydraulic oils, one should:
a) use only types of oils that are recommended by the machine manufacturer,
b) always use only biodegradable oils,c) use any type of oil.311. To ensure the technical efficiency of the working machine, one should:
a) use the machine/technical device only under full load,b) use the machine/technical device not exceeding 50% of the permissible load,
c) follow technical service and maintenance according to the operating and maintenance instructions.
312. On the construction site, empty containers of lubricants, oil filters, and used oils should be:
a) thrown into the mixed waste container,
b) placed in a properly marked hazardous waste container,
c) thrown into any waste container.313. Stickers (pictograms) located on the machine/technical device serve to:
a) convey essential information about safety and the use of the machine/technical device,
b) inform about the prohibition of approaching the machine/technical device,c) indicate places where one can stay without any risk.314. Lubrication points in the machine should be serviced:
a) during all breaks in work,
b) according to the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine,
c) always after 10 hours of operation.315. Engine oil with parameters 5W-50 is:
a) a multi-season oil,
b) an oil only for winter,c) an oil only for summer.316. Before starting work on a new type of machine/technical device, the operator should:
a) perform a periodic inspection,b) conduct a trial operation,
c) familiarize themselves with the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine/technical device.
317. OTC service is:
a) daily technical service,
b) temporary technical service,c) round-the-clock technical service.318. The basic types of services are:
a) round-the-clock, multi-seasonal, annual, technological service,b) visual, active, passive service,
c) daily, periodic, warehouse, transport service.
319. Batteries, when starting the machine using a supporting battery, should be connected:
a) in series,b) crosswise,
c) in parallel.
320. In the case of electrolyte loss caused by spillage through a cracked battery casing, one should:
a) add demineralized water to a level 10 mm above the upper edges of the plates,b) add electrolyte to the proper level and charge the battery,
c) secure the leakage area in terms of environmental protection, and then replace the battery.
321. The activities performed by the operator as part of daily maintenance during work are:
a) auditory control of the machine's operation and observation of indicators,
b) replenishing operating fluids and daily lubrication,c) cleaning the machine.322. When inflating a tire of the machine's wheel, one should:
a) not stand directly next to the inflated wheel,
b) stand next to the inflated wheel provided that a safety helmet is worn,c) check the state of the inflated wheel by observing the deflection of the sidewall of the tire.323. If the manufacturer has provided for operational run-in, it should be carried out:
a) without load,b) with maximum load,
c) with the load recommended in the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine/technical device.
324. During the storage of the machine on a wheeled chassis, the machine's wheels should be:
a) removed from the machine,
b) unloaded,
c) secured with wedges.325. Driving the machine on public roads should be done in the position:
a) transport,
b) transfer,c) working.326. During the loading of the machine onto the transport vehicle, the operator should:
a) know the maximum speed allowed for the given transport vehicle,b) perform the approach at a speed of at least 5 [km/h],
c) know the permissible angle of inclination of the approach plates for the given machine.
327. The responsibility for the placement and securing of the machine on the transport vehicle lies with:
a) the carrier (e.g. driver),
b) the owner or the person responsible for machines in the company,c) the machine operator.328. When storing the machine, one should ensure that:
a) no machine documents are left in the cabin,b) the machine is facing the exit,
c) there are no leaks of operating fluids.
329. Securing the machine during storage downtime involves:
a) cleaning the machine of dirt and corrosion,
b) disassembling all filters and protecting them from moisture,c) filling the hydraulic oil tank to the top.330. The rods of hydraulic cylinders, during the technical maintenance of the stored machine, should be:
a) disassembled and the seals replaced,b) disassembled and cleaned,
c) protected against corrosion.
331. During the transport of the machine:
a) tools and other items can be transported in the bucket if it is free,b) tools and other items can be transported in the working tool over short distances,
c) tools and other items cannot be transported in the working tool.
332. When loading the machine onto the transport vehicle:
a) the operator should drive onto the transport vehicle independently,
b) assistance from a second person is recommended,
c) assistance from a second person is recommended only when loading onto a low-loader trailer.333. The recommended method for loading heavy working machines onto low-loader trailers is:
a) mechanized loading from the front ramp,
b) loading on ropes,c) loading using other machines.334. During longer storage of the machine, the fuel tank should be:
a) filled to the top to prevent condensation of water vapor inside the tank,
b) filled to 1/3 of its capacity and left open,c) empty to avoid fire hazards.335. During daily operation of the machine, the condition of should be checked:
a) the value of working pressure in the hydraulic system,b) tools and equipment,
c) connections and tightness of the hydraulic system.
336. If the machine's engine has not been running for a longer time during daily maintenance, you should:
a) start the engine and gently increase the RPM to reach the operating temperature faster,
b) check the oil level and other operating fluids,
c) replace the fuel pre-filter.337. When inflating tires on a working machine, the operator should:
a) stand beside the tire tread or on the other side of the machine,
b) stand directly in front of the tire to monitor the pressure,c) ensure that bystanders are nearby.338. Information regarding faults, their codes, and methods of removal can be found in a document called:
a) construction machine book,b) daily report,
c) operating and maintenance manual.
339. The correct order for connecting the auxiliary battery to the discharged battery in the machine is as follows:
a) positive terminal of the machine's battery, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, machine frame,
b) machine frame, positive terminal of the machine's battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery,c) negative terminal of the machine's battery, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, machine frame.340. In case of electrolyte loss in the battery, you should:
a) top it up with water other than distilled,
b) top it up with distilled or demineralized water,
c) top it up with DOT-3 fluid.341. Checking the charge status of the starter battery 12 [V] by "sparking" poses a risk of:
a) an explosion of hydrogen escaping from the battery,
b) seizing the alternator,c) electric shock from high voltage.342. Before storing wheels in a wheeled machine, it is necessary to:
a) loosen to reduce the static load on the mounting screws,b) inflate to maximum pressure to prevent tire deformation,
c) relieve to prevent tire deformation.
343. The scope of daily technical service of the machine does not include:
a) checking the oil level in the engine,
b) checking and adjusting valve clearances,
c) checking the condition of the tires and tire pressure.344. When cleaning the radiator, to avoid damaging it, one should:
a) use a strong stream of water under high pressure,b) use sharp tools for cleaning,
c) keep the compressed air nozzle at a proper distance from the radiator.
345. The purpose of lubrication in working machines is:
a) to reduce friction,
b) to increase the engine speed,c) to raise the temperature of cooperating elements.346. The most commonly used type of fuses in electrical installations of working machines is:
a) differential fuses,b) automatic fuses,
c) cartridge fuses.
347. The phenomenon of electrostatic discharge during refueling a machine can lead to:
a) fire,
b) poisoning,c) short circuit of the electrical installation.348. In the case of connecting two batteries in parallel with different rated voltages:
a) it may lead to an explosion of the battery with the lower rated voltage,
b) it may lead to the discharge of both batteries,c) thicker cables should be used than with batteries of the same rated voltages.349. When checking the pressure in a tire, the machine should be:
a) loaded to make the measurement more accurate,b) running and warmed up,
c) unloaded, and the tire should be cold.
350. The correct way to connect a battery to a charger during charging is:
a) positive terminal of the battery to the negative terminal of the charger, negative terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger,b) positive terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger, negative terminal of the charger to the "ground" of the machine,
c) positive terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger, negative terminal of the battery to the negative terminal of the charger.
351. After connecting the battery, the terminals should be greased with:
a) technical vaseline,
b) graphite grease,c) grease containing molybdenum disulfide.352. To safely inflate a tire, one should:
a) stand in front of the tire valve while inflating,b) use a short pneumatic hose with a manometer,
c) stand beside the tire tread and use a long pneumatic hose.
353. One of the goals of warehouse management is:
a) repairing damaged machine parts before the next season,b) preparing the machine for transport for the future user,
c) protecting the machine from corrosion and other harmful factors during long-term storage.
354. If during daily technical service the operator notices a leak in the cooling system, they should:
a) top up the coolant and continue working,
b) report the leak and not use the machine until it is repaired,
c) organize the fluid and top it up to the minimum level if the leak is small.355. The level of coolant in the expansion tank should be checked:
a) during every daily technical service,
b) only during periodic technical service,c) only in case of engine overheating.356. If the operator notices a hydraulic fluid leak during daily maintenance, he should:
a) reduce the RPM and continue working,
b) report the leak and not use the machine until it is repaired,
c) top up the oil and continue working.357. The frequency of performing periodic technical maintenance depends on:
a) the number of completed working cycles,b) the production date of the machine,
c) the number of hours worked (engine hours).
358. If during daily maintenance the operator notices a low level of engine oil, he should:
a) top up the level with any available oil, even if it is of a different type,
b) top up the oil to the appropriate level,
c) start working if the level is not very low and the warning light is not on.359. A characteristic activity for seasonal technical maintenance is:
a) checking the charging voltage value,b) checking the working pressure value of the hydraulic system,
c) replacing the coolant with one appropriate for the season.
360. The basic maintenance tasks that should be performed before starting a diesel engine are:
a) bleeding the fuel system, checking the level of transmission oil, checking the starter,b) checking the oil level in the gearbox, checking the operation of the working system, checking the operation of the brakes,
c) checking the oil level in the engine, checking the coolant level, checking the condition of the air filter.
361. Activities performed as part of daily technical service (OTC) carried out during the operation of the machine include:
a) observation of control and measurement instruments and monitoring the proper operation of the machine using sight, hearing, and smell,
b) observation only of control and measurement indicators such as: oil pressure, engine temperature, hydraulic oil temperature,c) primarily organoleptic control of the proper functioning of the machine's working system.362. We distinguish, among others, the following types of technical services:
a) transport, arrival, storage, service-repair (ON), catalog,
b) transport, arrival, daily, periodic, seasonal, storage,
c) arrival, daily, periodic, seasonal, storage, emergency, night.363. We perform technical services in order to:
a) ensure quiet operation of the machine or technical device,