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Machines for laying concrete mixtures class II

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Question of 249

1. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage not exceeding 1 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?

a) not less than 5 [m],b) not less than 2 [m],

c) not less than 3 [m].

2. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?

a) not less than 10 [m],

b) not less than 5 [m],

c) not less than 15 [m].

3. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?

a) not less than 10 [m],

b) not less than 5 [m],c) not less than 15 [m].

4. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?

a) not less than 20 [m],b) not less than 10 [m],

c) not less than 15 [m]. Machines for spreading concrete mixtures Class II

5. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?

a) not less than 15 [m],

b) not less than 30 [m],

c) not less than 10 [m].

6. Can workstations be organized in the danger zone under overhead power lines?

a) yes, but only after meeting additional requirements,

b) yes, always,c) no, never.
Question 7 - illustration

7. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [V]?

a) not less than 5 [m],b) not less than 30 [m],

c) not less than 3 [m].

Question 8 - illustration

8. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV]?

a) not less than 5 [m],

b) not less than 15 [m],c) not less than 10 [m].
Question 9 - illustration

9. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?

a) not less than 10 [m],

b) not less than 30 [m],c) not less than 15 [m].
Question 10 - illustration

10. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?

a) not less than 10 [m],

b) not less than 15 [m],c) not less than 5 [m].
Question 11 - illustration

11. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV]?

a) not less than 50 [m],

b) not less than 15 [m],

c) not less than 30 [m].
Question 12 - illustration

12. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV]?

a) not less than 30 [m],b) not less than 15 [m],

c) not less than 10 [m].

Question 13 - illustration

13. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]?

a) not less than 40 [m],

b) not less than 30 [m],

c) not less than 3 [m].

14. Work in the danger zone (overhead high voltage power line):

a) may be carried out provided that the line is disconnected from voltage, the work is performed in a zone limited by groundings and at least one grounding is visible from the work location,

b) may not be carried out under any circumstances under electric lines in the danger zone,c) may be carried out provided that permission from the work manager has been granted.
Question 15 - illustration

15. The operator must perform work at a distance X from an active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [V]. He can start work if this distance is:

a) 2 [m],b) 1 [m],

c) 5 [m].

Question 16 - illustration

16. The operator must perform work at a distance X from an active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]. He can start work if this distance is:

a) 15 [m],

b) 5 [m],c) 3 [m].
Question 17 - illustration

17. The operator must perform work at a distance X from an active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]. He can start work if this distance is:

a) 50 [m],

b) 5 [m],c) 15 [m].

18. If the injured person has a detectable pulse but is not breathing, then:

a) the airways should be cleared and artificial respiration started,

b) chest compressions should be performed,c) he should not be touched.

19. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, it is essential to:

a) give the injured medication,

b) provide assistance to those in life-threatening situations,

c) move away from the accident scene to call a doctor.

20. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, it is essential to:

a) ensure your own safety,

b) move away from the accident scene to call a doctor,c) provide assistance to those in life-threatening situations.

21. The obligation to provide first aid to accident victims rests with:

a) everyone, as it is always possible to perform part of the rescue tasks,

b) only those who have medical training,c) everyone, but there is always a risk of criminal liability for mistakes.

22. During one cycle of resuscitation in an adult, you should perform:

a) 30 chest compressions and 2 breaths (30:2),

b) 20 chest compressions and 2 breaths (20:2),c) 30 chest compressions and 5 breaths (30:5).

23. The accident victim regained consciousness after a few minutes and wants to go home. In this situation, you should:

a) give her something to drink and painkillers,b) let her go home, advising a visit to the doctor,

c) persuade her to stay and call for medical help.

24. First aid in a situation where a foreign body has entered the eye of the injured person consists of:

a) rinsing the eye with eye drops,

b) rinsing with clean water directing the stream from the nose outward from the eye,

c) rinsing with distilled water directing the stream inward to the eye.

25. The injured person cut their leg on an unsecured sharp object. Providing first aid in this situation is:

a) using sterile gauze, wrapping the wound with a bandage,

b) sticking a plaster directly on the wound,c) using a tourniquet.

26. Suspecting a spinal injury in a person who has fallen from a height and is conscious, one should:

a) lay them in the established side position,b) seat them in a semi-reclining position,

c) not move them and wait for medical services to arrive.

27. To move away from the place where the electric wire has been broken and the area is under voltage, one should:

a) run as quickly as possible to a place that we assess as safe,

b) leave the place slowly, taking small steps, trying to maintain continuous contact of the feet with the ground,

c) quickly, taking large steps, move away from the source of electric shock by lifting the feet high.

28. First aid in the case of a first-degree burn is:

a) applying ointment to the burned area,b) applying greasy cream to the burned area,

c) pouring cold water on the burned area.

29. During work, a high voltage power line was torn down, as a result of which a colleague was electrocuted. In this situation, the correct behavior is:

a) call other colleagues for help with the injured person,

b) turn off the power source as quickly as possible,

c) approach the injured person to provide first aid.

30. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation is performed until:

a) the fire department arrives and secures the area,

b) we have determined that the victim has started breathing and circulation has returned,

c) 10 minutes have passed.

31. Immediate action in the case of severe bleeding from an injured upper limb includes:

a) applying a dressing, direct pressure on the bleeding site, and elevating the limb,

b) disinfecting the wound with salicylic alcohol,c) lowering the limb below the level of the heart.

32. In the case of a nosebleed, one should:

a) lean the bleeding person's head forward, pinch the nostrils,

b) lay the injured person on their back,c) tilt the head back and place a cold compress on the neck.

33. The first step in dealing with a victim of carbon monoxide poisoning in a closed room is:

a) conducting a preliminary examination,b) assessing ABC,

c) the quickest possible evacuation of the victim from that room.

34. First aid during seizures caused by an epileptic attack consists of:

a) placing a wooden object in the injured person's mouth to prevent biting the tongue,b) seating the injured person in a semi-sitting position and giving them something to drink,

c) protecting the injured person's head from injuries.

35. In case of suspected spinal injury in the cervical region in a conscious person, one should:

a) seat the injured person in a chair with a high back,b) place the injured person in a lateral position,

c) not allow the injured person to move their head.

36. The most important thing when burying a person with earth, sand, or gravel is:

a) notifying the family,

b) locating the victim,

c) waiting for the ambulance to arrive.

37. The main purpose of a first aid kit is:

a) the ability to make dressings on wounds,b) dressing the injured person,

c) providing first aid in a health or life-threatening situation.

38. First aid for a person who has a metal rod embedded in their lower leg involves calling for help and:

a) securing the rod to prevent movement,

b) moving the rod to check if the artery has been damaged,c) removing the embedded rod.

39. The indication for using an AED defibrillator is:

a) lack of detectable breathing and pulse in the victim,

b) severe chest pain,c) severe dizziness.

40. During the operation of a machine/technical device, the prohibited actions for which you are taking the exam are:

a) changing the working tool,b) performing daily technical service (DTS),

c) making structural changes to the machine/technical device.

41. During the operation of the machine/technical device, the prohibited activities are:

a) cleaning the machine/technical device using a product in accordance with the operating and maintenance instructions,b) refueling the machine/technical device from a canister,

c) cleaning the machine/technical device using gasoline or solvents whose vapors can create flammable/explosive gas mixtures with air.

42. The machine/technical device that you are taking the exam for can only be operated by:

a) a person who has completed training and obtained a positive result from the test conducted by the commission appointed by the Łukasiewicz Research Network – Warsaw Institute of Technology,

b) any adult person with technical education and a driver's license of the appropriate category,c) a person holding written confirmation of course completion in the form of a plastic card.

43. The rights to operate machines/technical devices that you are taking the exam for are issued by:

a) the County Office appropriate for the residence address of the person applying for the rights,b) the Office of Technical Inspection (UDT),

c) the Łukasiewicz Research Network - Warsaw Institute of Technology (SBŁ - WIT).

44. The rights to operate machines/technical devices that you are taking the exam for:

a) are valid for 5 years from the date of issue,

b) are valid indefinitely,

c) are valid for 10 years from the date of issue.

45. A person holding the rights to operate: "Concrete mixture spreading machine class II" can operate based on this:

a) machines for spreading concrete mixtures and sets of machines for producing concrete mixtures,

b) only machines for spreading concrete mixtures,

c) machines for spreading concrete mixtures and machines for spreading mineral-asphalt mixtures.

46. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam may start work provided that:

a) has a valid category D driving license,

b) has the qualifications to operate this type of machine/technical device,

c) the machine/technical device has a valid UDT inspection.

47. In the event of a threat to life, health, property, or the environment caused by a malfunction of the machine/technical device, the operator:

a) continues working but informs the supervisor about the situation at the end of the shift,b) continues working but makes an appropriate entry in the maintenance book at the end of the shift,

c) immediately stops work and informs the supervisor of this fact.

48. Lifting and transporting people using working equipment:

a) is always prohibited,

b) is possible, but only outside the public road area,c) requires the consent of the construction manager.

49. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam has the right to refuse to start work when:

a) there is an overhead power line with a rated voltage of 110 [kV] located 35 meters away,

b) this work requires special psychophysical fitness, and his psychophysical condition does not ensure its safe performance and poses a threat to others,

c) has the required personal protective equipment.

50. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is obliged to stop work when:

a) the work he is performing poses an immediate threat to the health or life of others,

b) there is an overhead power line located 35 meters away,c) has the required personal protective equipment.

51. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is required to:

a) comply with the instructions for operation and use of the machine/technical device,

b) always have a category B driving license,c) independently perform all current repairs of the machine/technical device.

52. The person directly responsible for the safe operation of the machine for which you are taking the exam is:

a) the owner of the machine,b) the construction manager,

c) the machine operator.

53. The operator's book and qualifications for the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam are issued by:

a) Łukasiewicz Research Network - Warsaw Institute of Technology,

b) Transport Technical Supervision (TDT),c) Technical Supervision Office (UDT).

54. The obligation to use personal protective equipment:

a) does not apply on hot days,

b) arises from the instructions for operation and use as well as health and safety regulations,

c) arises only from internal regulations.

55. An employee who witnesses an accident at work:

a) is obliged to provide assistance to the victims and then immediately leave the scene of the accident,

b) is obliged to provide assistance to the victims, notify the supervisor, and if necessary secure the accident site,

c) it is sufficient to notify the supervisor.

56. The danger zone is defined as:

a) a place where there are threats to health and life of people,

b) a place where employees must only wear protective helmets,c) a place where work requiring specialized equipment takes place, and the presence of people is only allowed at night.

57. The danger zone on a construction site:

a) is designated and/or fenced and marked in a way that prevents access to unauthorized persons,

b) is designated after the start of construction work,c) is always designated by a surveyor.

58. The area that the operator should check and secure before starting work with a machine/technical device (because there are threats to health and life of people) is called:

a) the danger zone,

b) the area of increased risk,c) the dead zone.

59. During the charging of batteries, a gas with very explosive properties is released. This gas is:

a) methane,b) ethane,

c) hydrogen.

60. Firefighting foam can be used to extinguish fires of group:

a) A and B,

b) C and D,c) only C.

61. Improper use of a snow extinguisher can result in:

a) burns from the extinguisher components,

b) frostbite caused by the extinguishing agent,

c) fainting.

62. Water, fire blanket, powder extinguisher, carbon dioxide, sand are extinguishing agents that we will use to extinguish:

a) oils,

b) solid bodies,

c) liquids.

63. We can call sorbents:

a) fire blankets,b) petroleum-derived substances,

c) materials made from natural or synthetic substances that absorb liquids.

64. Group A fires concern:

a) solid bodies whose normal combustion occurs with the formation of glowing coals, e.g. wood, paper, etc.,

b) flammable gases,c) flammable liquids.

65. Group B fires concern:

a) flammable gases,

b) liquids and solid materials that melt, e.g. plastics, fuels, oils, etc.,

c) metals, e.g. magnesium, sodium, potassium, aluminum, titanium, etc..

66. Group C fires concern:

a) flammable liquids,

b) gases, e.g. methane, propane, acetylene, hydrogen,

c) solids.
Question 67 - illustration

67. Seeing such a pictogram you are informed about:

a) the assembly point during evacuation,

b) a larger number of people in a given area,c) the danger zone.
Question 68 - illustration

68. While working you noticed a sign marked 'Zone 0'. It informs about:

a) the zone of existing fire load in the building,

b) the space where an explosive atmosphere exists,

c) the zone of existing fire hazard category.
Question 69 - illustration

69. The presented pictogram informs about:

a) internal hydrant,b) main power switch,

c) set of fire protection equipment.

Question 70 - illustration

70. Seeing such a pictogram you are informed about:

a) emergency exit,

b) first aid medical station,c) the assembly point during evacuation.
Question 71 - illustration

71. Seeing such a pictogram informs you about:

a) high temperature affecting the extinguisher,b) prohibition of using the extinguisher,

c) location of the extinguisher.

72. You see a person whose clothing is on fire and who, in panic, is running away. Your reaction is:

a) you try to stop him, lay him on the ground, and start extinguishing,

b) you tell him to wait in an upright position for the arrival of rescue services,c) you wave your arms or outer covering strongly next to him to extinguish the burning clothing.

73. Electrical devices and installations can be extinguished using:

a) water,

b) powder or snow extinguishers,

c) foam extinguishers.

74. Burning fuel can be extinguished using:

a) water,

b) powder, foam, or snow extinguishers,

c) low-octane ethylene.

75. Clothing on a person that is on fire can be extinguished using:

a) water mist extinguisher or fire blanket,

b) snow or powder extinguisher,c) plastic material.

76. What obligations does an employee have when they decide to refrain from performing work due to health and safety regulations?

a) They should organize work for others,b) They have no obligations in this situation,

c) They must immediately notify their supervisor.

77. How can an operator prevent hazards in the workplace?

a) By not reporting faults in machines,b) By ignoring health and safety rules,

c) By using personal protective equipment to minimize risk.

78. It is not permissible to position a workplace directly under active overhead power lines or at a horizontal distance from the outermost conductors of less than:

a) for lines: 1 [kV] - 3 [m], 15 [kV] - 5 [m], 30 [kV] - 10 [m], 110 [kV] - 15 [m], 400 [kV] - 30 [m],

b) for lines: 1 [kV] - 1 [m], 15 [kV] - 3 [m], 30 [kV] - 5 [m], 110 [kV] - 10 [m],c) for all voltages - 1 [m] from the power line.

79. How does the operator know what personal protective equipment is required for a given machine/technical device?

a) The choice of personal protective equipment depends on the opinions of colleagues at work,

b) Information about necessary personal protective equipment is included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine,

c) The operator must independently choose the appropriate protective measures.

80. The operator should refuse to perform a task when:

a) the work is being done at night,

b) the work is inconsistent with the purpose of the machine/technical device,

c) the work requires familiarization with the location of underground and above-ground utilities.

81. The operator can prevent hazards while operating a machine/technical device by:

a) limiting the use of personal protective equipment,b) inattention and routine,

c) following health and safety rules and adhering to the operating instructions.

82. Which of the following situations is unacceptable during the use of a machine/technical device?

a) The presence of unauthorized persons in the danger zone caused by the operation of the machine/technical device,

b) Operating the machine without supervision,c) Reporting faults directly to the supervisor.

83. An accident at work is considered to be:

a) a sudden event related to the work performed, caused by an external factor, resulting in injury or death,

b) a prolonged event related to the work performed, caused by an internal factor, resulting in equipment damage,c) a sudden event unrelated to the work performed, caused by an external factor, resulting in injury or death.

84. A fatal accident at work is considered to be an accident in which death occurred:

a) within a period not exceeding 6 months from the date of the accident,

b) after a period exceeding 6 months from the date of the accident,c) only at the moment of the accident.

85. Health and safety regulations require:

a) scrapping the old working machine within the time specified in its operating and maintenance instructions, while adhering to the requirements for the disposal of hazardous materials,

b) securing the working machine during breaks in its operation against accidental activation by unauthorized persons,

c) performing a warranty inspection of the working machine before the end of the year from its purchase.

86. In the case of a person being electrocuted:

a) it is recommended to use any tools to disconnect the power, regardless of their actual purpose,

b) do not touch the victim until the power source is disconnected,

c) immediate resuscitation should be started, regardless of whether the power source has been disconnected.

87. Seeing a person whose clothes are on fire, the first thing to do is:

a) cut off the air supply by rolling the victim or wrapping them in a fire blanket, wet clothing, or a wet blanket,

b) use a fire extinguisher, preferably a snow extinguisher, to extinguish the burning clothing, and then try to quickly remove the melted clothing,c) leave the victim standing to facilitate air access and extinguish the flames faster.

88. The rules and method of marking works carried out on public roads 'under traffic':

a) is defined by the Temporary Traffic Organization Project, which presents the types and methods of placing road signs, traffic lights, sound signals, and traffic safety devices,

b) is determined solely by the construction manager's decision, without the need for an additional project,c) is defined by regulations concerning permanent road marking, which do not take into account temporary changes in traffic.

89. When carrying out work in the road lane:

a) vehicles used for the work may be unmarked if they are visible up close,

b) one must familiarize themselves with the Safe Work Execution Instruction (IBWR) and use personal protective equipment, such as safety helmets, work shoes, and high-visibility protective clothing,

c) workers may work without personal protective equipment, provided the work is short-term.

90. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is performed:

a) when the victim is breathing but unconscious and unresponsive,

b) when the victim is not breathing and there is no detectable pulse. For a non-professional rescuer, the absence of breath is a sufficient basis to start resuscitation,

c) only in cases of fainting and minor injuries, to improve blood circulation.

91. An employee has the right to refrain from performing work due to health and safety regulations, notifying their supervisor immediately if:

a) the work they are performing has not been reported to the construction supervision,b) the working conditions do not pose a threat, but are too difficult for them,

c) the working conditions pose a direct threat to health or life.

92. Physical factors generating hazards in the workplace are:

a) lack of appropriate medical examinations for the employee,

b) spilled lubricants, oils, and fuels,

c) lack of or improper training for employees.

93. Working with a machine/technical device is unacceptable when:

a) the second operator has not reported an upcoming inspection,

b) it is malfunctioning,

c) its repair was carried out after dark.

94. Working near overhead power lines:

a) always requires the power in the line to be turned off,b) always requires double grounding of the line,

c) is possible without meeting additional requirements provided that certain distances depending on the rated voltage of the line are maintained.

95. The operator is obliged to refuse to undertake work if:

a) the machine is malfunctioning,

b) they would have to work under power lines, and the voltage in them has been turned off and the line grounded,c) there is no construction manager or any other person authorized to supervise at the work site.

96. The danger zone of a machine/technical device is:

a) always the entire fenced construction site,b) a place where the machine/technical device cannot be used,

c) a place where there are hazards to health or life of people.

97. Accidents at work resulting from the poor technical condition of the working machine may involve, for example:

a) failure of the drive system,

b) injury to a limb, torso, or head,

c) damage to the equipment.

98. Unacceptable behaviors are:

a) working after dark in a well-lit place, with full concentration of the operator,b) performing daily maintenance of the machine after dark,

c) operating a faulty machine and working under the influence of alcohol.

99. The basic duties of an employee in terms of OHS are:

a) not being late for work, finishing it on time, confirming presence at work in the manner accepted by the employer,b) enforcing the provisions of the labor code regarding their rights, including payment for overtime worked,

c) adhering to OHS regulations and principles, taking care of the condition of machines and tools, maintaining order in the workplace, using personal protective equipment.

100. In the case of a person electrocuted, after disconnecting the power source, one should:

a) check the condition of the injured person, and if necessary: call for help, clear the airways, perform resuscitation, and use an AED if available,

b) leave the injured person alone if they have regained consciousness, without further actions,c) move the injured person to another place as quickly as possible.

101. After extinguishing the flames on a person with burns and calling for help, you should:

a) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes, previously removing any melted clothing,b) use a snow extinguisher to cool the burn area,

c) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes, without removing any melted clothing.

102. For optical marking of works carried out in the road lane, the following are used:

a) road cones in any well-visible color and uniform red obstacles placed at the work site,b) only traffic lights, flashing,

c) road cones in red or orange, and after dark, cones with white reflective stripes and separators.

103. What markings should vehicles and machines used for work in the road lane have?

a) Vehicles should be equipped with yellow lights visible from at least 150 m, and machines on the roadway should be marked with road barriers with reflective elements and warning lights,

b) Vehicles and machines should be marked only when working after dark. The method of marking is specified in the operating and maintenance manual of the given machine,c) Vehicles should use lights of any color that is visible from a distance. Other machines do not need additional marking.
Question 104 - illustration

104. Seeing such a pictogram, you are informed about:

a) a place to perform AED,b) a place where a first aid kit is available,

c) a place where an external automatic defibrillator is available.

105. Properly performed cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) consists of:

a) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 30-60 times per minute to a depth of 1–3 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 15 compressions (breaths are mandatory),

b) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 100-120 times per minute to a depth of 5–6 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 30 compressions (breaths are not mandatory),

c) connecting an external automatic defibrillator (AED) and following its instructions; CPR is not performed without AED.

106. The abbreviation IBWR stands for:

a) Instruction for Non-Failure Execution of Works,

b) Instruction for Safe Execution of Works,

c) Instruction for Non-Failure Execution of Works.

107. Expand the abbreviation IBWR:

a) Information on Safe Execution of Works,b) Implementation of Non-Failure Execution of Works,

c) Instruction for Safe Execution of Works.

108. The Instruction for Safe Execution of Construction Works is:

a) a document containing information regarding safety on the construction site,

b) a document confirming qualifications for operating machines and technical devices in earthworks, construction, and road works,c) a road plan in construction works.

109. The BIOZ plan stands for:

a) plan for Safety and Resource Specification,

b) plan for Safety and Health Protection,

c) plan for Safe Health Protection Instruction.

110. A vehicle performing cleaning, repair, or modernization work on the road should send:

a) red flashing signals,b) orange flashing signals,

c) yellow flashing signals.

111. Traffic safety devices used during work conducted in the road strip may be colored:

a) red, yellow-red, blue,

b) white, red, yellow, and black,

c) white, green, blue.

112. Traffic safety devices used to secure and mark the work site in the road strip should be visible:

a) only at night,b) only during the day,

c) during the day and at night.

113. Persons performing work in the area of 2-lane roads and highways should have:

a) orange flashing lights,

b) class III high-visibility clothing,

c) red warning clothing.

114. The operator must wear a safety helmet while working with the machine when:

a) frequently leaning out of the cabin during work,

b) working in a machine not equipped with a closed cabin,

c) working on demolition tasks using long booms.

115. Entering and exiting the machine should be done:

a) facing the machine, maintaining three points of contact,

b) entering sideways, being careful of the devices in the cabin,c) backwards to the machine, using a three-step ladder.

116. The component of the concrete mix responsible for binding all materials into a uniform mass is:

a) water,

b) cement,

c) sand.

117. Dowels and anchors in the concrete road surface cause:

a) temporary support during the binding of the concrete,b) increased thermal insulation of the layers,

c) reduced likelihood of displacement of the structural layers.

118. Dowel and anchor machines affect the stability of the concrete surface during the distribution of the mix by:

a) mixing concrete with additional components,b) accelerating the binding process of the concrete mix,

c) securing the slabs against displacements and assisting in the even distribution of load on the surface.

119. Brushing the concrete surface a few hours after embedding the mix aims to:

a) ensure the appropriate moisture of the concrete mix before further hardening,

b) remove the surface layer and expose the aggregate,

c) improve the uniformity of the compaction of the lower layer of concrete.

120. Sensors mounted on the machine in the lead wire system are designed to:

a) regulate the speed of the machine moving over the surface,b) detect obstacles in the operating area of the machine,

c) monitor deviations from the position of the wire and send information to the machine's control system.

121. The former offset in concrete mixture pavers is used for:

a) mixing concrete ingredients,

b) forming monolithic profiles,

c) transporting concrete to the operator's station.

122. Vibration systems in machines for spreading concrete mixtures are used for:

a) quality control of the mixture,b) laying layers of different thicknesses,

c) compacting the laid concrete mixture.

123. The parameter of the machine that determines the width of the surface that can be laid in one pass is:

a) the transverse dimension of the entire machine,

b) working width,

c) engine power.

124. To create monolithic elements, it is necessary to:

a) install a pre-loosener,b) use a dosing attachment,

c) install the proper former.

125. To ensure proper longitudinal slopes of the laid surfaces, it is essential to:

a) use leveling sensors,

b) lay a new surface using the slopes of already existing surfaces,c) operate the machine according to the existing route.

126. The maximum width of laid concrete surfaces depends on:

a) the design assumptions,b) the amount of delivered concrete mix,

c) the capabilities of a given machine.

127. Concrete mix is:

a) completely and uniformly mixed components of concrete that are still in a state allowing compaction by a chosen method,

b) completely and uniformly mixed components of concrete after the cement binding process is completed,c) a mixture mainly composed of aggregates and binder, from which bituminous surfaces are made.

128. Concrete is defined as:

a) a material obtained by mixing cement, aggregates, water, and any possible admixtures and additives, which has already acquired its properties as a result of cement hydration,

b) a material obtained by mixing cement, aggregates, water, and any possible admixtures and additives, which is still in a state allowing compaction,c) a mixture mainly composed of aggregates and binder, from which bituminous surfaces are made.

129. The shape of the monolithic profile made by the paver is closely related to:

a) the frequency of operation of the vibrators in the working system of the paver,b) the shape of the substrate on which the paver works,

c) the type of used offset former.

130. In order to ensure the proper parameters of laying (longitudinal slopes), the pavers cooperate with:

a) a leveling system with height sensors (mechanical, ultrasonic),

b) a system of height contactors,c) a system of slope limiters.

131. Which of the listed elements are not part of the hydraulic system:

a) pump, distributor, actuator,

b) starter, alternator,

c) hydraulic lock, hydraulic oil tank.

132. The hydraulic lock in a machine is:

a) closure of the hydraulic oil inlet at its tank,

b) valve protecting against uncontrolled movement of the element located in a given line,

c) valve responsible for controlling the entire hydraulic system.

133. The change of hydraulic oil pressure into mechanical motion is caused by:

a) hydraulic pump system,

b) hydraulic actuator and hydraulic motor,

c) hydraulic distributor.

134. Pressure in the hydraulic system is generated by:

a) hydraulic motor,b) hydraulic actuator,

c) hydraulic pump.

135. Directing the flow of hydraulic oil to individual systems is carried out by:

a) overflow valve,

b) hydraulic distributor,

c) hydraulic lock.

136. The safety valve protects the hydraulic system from:

a) air in the hydraulic system,b) overheating of the hydraulic oil,

c) excessive pressure increase.

137. The relief valve in the hydraulic system is responsible for:

a) maintaining a constant position of the working tool,

b) limiting the maximum working pressure in a given circuit,

c) venting the system.

138. If the pressure in the hydraulic system increases excessively, the excess oil will be directed to:

a) the hydraulic oil tank,

b) the hydraulic oil filter,c) the distributor.

139. The basic parameters that characterize an electric accumulator are:

a) rated voltage [V], resistance [Ω], power [W],

b) rated voltage [V], capacity [Ah], starting current [A],

c) rated voltage [V], power [W], mass [kg].

140. Lead-acid batteries can be charged:

a) in any room,

b) in a place specifically designated for this purpose,

c) only in an air-conditioned room.

141. The element of the hydrostatic drive system that converts the mechanical energy of the engine into hydraulic energy is:

a) rotation column,

b) hydraulic oil pump,

c) hydraulic motor or hydraulic actuator.

142. The flow and direction of hydraulic fluid in the system are regulated by:

a) hydraulic pumps,

b) hydraulic valves,

c) hydraulic motors.

143. Elements of the system, such as actuators and hydraulic motors, convert hydraulic energy into:

a) electrical energy,b) pressure in the tank,

c) mechanical energy.

144. The primary task of the hydraulic accumulator in the hydrostatic system is:

a) storing energy in the form of pressure of the working fluid,

b) regulating the temperature of the working fluid,c) evenly distributing oil to the system receivers.

145. In the hydrostatic system, the pressure energy of the fluid is transmitted to:

a) oil coolers and manometers,

b) hydraulic motors or hydraulic actuators,

c) thermostatic, overflow, and check valves.

146. Concrete for the form in the feeder is supplied by:

a) transverse screw feeder mounted outside the outline of the machine,

b) gravity hopper placed on the frame,c) piston system powered by hydraulic pressure.

147. The element of the machine responsible for transporting the mixture to the work table is:

a) hydraulic system,

b) mixture feeding system,

c) control system.

148. The function of self-braking in the hydrostatic drive system in machines is based on:

a) automatic locking of the wheels during a stop,b) controlling the rotational speed of the wheels during operation,

c) using the resistance of liquid flow in a closed circuit to stop the machine.

149. The hydraulic system in machines for distributing concrete mixtures is responsible for:

a) driving and controlling the working elements of the machine,

b) regulating the flow of the concrete mixture,c) transporting the mixture to the hopper.

150. Multi-disc brakes in the drive transmissions of machines for concrete mixture activate:

a) automatically after shifting the drive distributors to the neutral position,

b) only after manual activation by the operator,c) during switching the machine to emergency mode.

151. The equivalent sound level at which hearing protection must be used when operating a machine with the cabin doors open, if permitted in the machine's DTR or when operating a machine/technical device not equipped with such a cabin, is:

a) 85 [dB(A)],

b) 55 [dB(A)],c) 105 [dB(A)].

152. Optimal shock and vibration damping of the operator's seat is achieved by:

a) as flexible seat adjustment as possible,

b) adjusting the seat to the weight of the operator,

c) setting the seat rigidly.

153. The mandatory equipment used for the operator to observe the area directly behind the machine is:

a) rear camera,b) audible signal when reversing,

c) external mirror.

154. The most important element of the operator's cabin equipment from the perspective of his safety is:

a) seat belt,

b) mirror or camera,c) emergency STOP button.

155. Mirrors and the reversing camera in the machine are used for:

a) checking the technical condition of the machine,b) facilitating the maneuvering of working equipment,

c) improving the operator's visibility and increasing safety.

156. The green flash lamp placed on the machine cabin signals, among other things:

a) the machine's eco mode is activated,b) no operator in the cabin,

c) seat belts are properly fastened.

157. In a parallel connection of two identical batteries, the voltage of such a system is:

a) the product of the voltages of individual batteries,b) the sum of the voltages of individual batteries,

c) equal to the voltage of a single battery.

158. In a series connection of two identical batteries, the voltage of such a system is:

a) equal to the voltage of a single battery,

b) the sum of the voltages of individual batteries,

c) the product of the voltages of individual batteries.

159. Fuses in the electrical installation of the machine protect it against the effects of:

a) short circuits and overloads,

b) high temperature,c) low voltage.

160. One of the elements of the electrical system protecting the motor from seizing is:

a) engine oil pressure sensor,

b) main fuse,c) speed controller.

161. Gel batteries that are part of the electrical system do not require:

a) charging with a rectifier,b) replacement in case of housing damage,

c) electrolyte replenishment.

162. Electrical systems of machines and devices should be equipped with a device that causes emergency stop in at least the amount of:

a) two devices causing emergency stop placed on both sides of the machine, according to the European machinery directive,

b) one device causing emergency stop, according to the European machinery directive,

c) three devices causing emergency stop, according to the European machinery directive.

163. The emergency stop device of a machine is a part of:

a) the drive system,b) the fuel system,

c) the electrical system.

164. The main parameters of an internal combustion engine that affect work efficiency are:

a) type of carburetor, type of ignition system,

b) torque, rotational speed,

c) compression ratio, displacement.

165. The crank-piston system of an internal combustion engine is designed to:

a) ensure effective operation of the clutch,b) convert mechanical energy into hydraulic energy,

c) convert the reciprocating motion of the piston into the rotational motion of the crankshaft.

166. The lubrication system in an internal combustion engine:

a) is responsible for removing hazardous substances generated during the combustion process of the mixture,b) provides regulation of the rotational speed and reduces engine vibrations during operation,

c) is responsible for the proper lubrication of the moving parts of the engine that work together.

167. The engine timing system is used for:

a) damping noise and minimizing engine vibrations during operation,b) ensuring the optimal composition of the fuel-oil-air mixture for combustion,

c) controlling the filling of the combustion chamber with air or the fuel-air mixture and controlling the emptying of this chamber of exhaust gases.

168. Systems present in internal combustion engines include, among others:

a) crankshaft-piston system, fuel supply system, cooling system,

b) hydraulic system, intake system,c) exhaust system, pneumatic system, closed system.

169. The low-pressure part of the fuel supply system in a diesel engine is:

a) fuel tank, supply pump, filters, fuel lines,

b) fuel tank and injectors,c) fuel lines, high-pressure pump, common rail.

170. The element controlling the flow of coolant in the so-called "large circuit" is:

a) thermostat,

b) thermos,c) thermocouple.

171. Intercooler is:

a) another name for the engine coolant radiator,b) a device for burning solid particles in exhaust gases,

c) an air cooler for turbocharged engines.

172. DPF filter:

a) is used to reduce NOx (nitrogen oxides) emissions,b) is a precise cabin filter protecting the operator during work in high dust conditions,

c) is a dry particulate filter responsible, among other things, for capturing soot from exhaust gases.

173. The frequency and scope of periodic maintenance of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam:

a) is determined by the owner of the machine/technical device,b) is included in the IBWR documentation,

c) is included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine.

174. The operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device is:

a) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device,

b) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by health and safety services on the construction site,c) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device, which includes, among other things, IBWR.

175. The operator of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is not allowed to:

a) use the machine/technical device for purposes other than intended,

b) make any repairs or maintenance,c) during work, check the technical condition of the machine/technical device.

176. A symptom of too low a level of hydraulic oil may be:

a) loud operation of the starter,

b) "jerky" intermittent movement of hydraulic actuators,

c) uneven operation of the diesel engine.

177. If the warning light for too low engine oil pressure lights up, the operator:

a) can continue working if the hydraulic system is functioning properly,b) does not have to take any action,

c) should stop working and turn off the engine.

178. The operating and maintenance manual for the machine/technical device:

a) is established by the owner or user of the machine,b) is used to record information about faults,

c) contains information regarding hazards present at the workplace and their prevention.

179. The CE Declaration of Conformity is a document:

a) confirming that the product was manufactured in the countries of the European Union,b) issued by institutions that test machines for resistance to weather conditions,

c) in which the manufacturer confirms that their product meets all applicable EU requirements regarding safety, health protection, and environmental protection.

180. Information regarding the use of personal protective equipment and ways to limit occupational risk can be found by the operator:

a) in the operating and maintenance manual for the machine/technical device,

b) in the service book,c) in the CE Declaration of Conformity.

181. The operating and maintenance manual for the machine/technical device:

a) is created by the construction manager based on information from the manufacturer,b) are created by institutions that conduct research and accreditation of machine/technical device prototypes before allowing them for serial production,

c) is developed by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device or the entity that introduces the machine/technical device to the market.

182. The operating and maintenance manual for the machine/technical device:

a) should be located in the machine or with the device, treated as part of the machine/technical device and be available at any time,

b) does not matter where it is located, the most important thing is that the owner of the machine has it in case of resale of the machine,c) should be located in the office along with the company's documentation and be available in case of inspection.

183. Identification data of the machine/technical device:

a) are located on the nameplate of the machine/technical device, additionally they may be in marking places described in the manual,

b) due to their importance are always printed in red,c) should be noted on the inner side of the protective helmet assigned to the given machine/technical device.

184. To minimize the risk of malfunction of the machine/technical device, the operator should:

a) perform maintenance activities only when the machine/technical device stops working,b) use the machine/technical device until the failure becomes serious,

c) regularly visually assess the condition of the machine/technical device and report any noticed irregularities.

185. Breaking in the machine during the initial period of operation is:

a) an intensive full load test of the machine,b) a stage of the machine's operation without load,

c) a process of achieving optimal clearances and even wear of parts.

186. The operator uses the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine or technical device to:

a) record the hours worked and fuel consumption by the machine,b) record all faults of the machine or device noticed during operation,

c) understand the technical specifications, operating instructions, health and safety rules, and methods of repairing faults.

187. The responsibility for issuing the operating and maintenance instructions lies with:

a) the operator, who independently creates documentation for their own needs,

b) the manufacturer of the device,

c) the health and safety inspector on the construction site or the site manager.

188. The informational part of the operating and maintenance instructions includes:

a) only the health and safety rules regarding the operation of the device,

b) the technical characteristics of the device, technical description, and list of equipment,

c) detailed assembly instructions for the device.

189. The SAE designation on the oil refers to:

a) the viscosity of the engine oil, that is, its ability to flow and lubricate,

b) the pressure of the engine oil,c) the multi-season qualification of the oil.

190. Oil with the symbol SAE 15W-40 means that:

a) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 15W, and at positive temperatures of summer oil class SAE 40,

b) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40,c) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 15W.

191. Oil with the symbol SAE 10W-30 means that:

a) at negative temperature it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 30,b) at positive temperature it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W,

c) at negative temperature it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W, and at positive temperature of summer oil class SAE 30.

192. The symbol SAE 10W-30 means:

a) a mixture of engine oil and hydraulic oil,

b) multi-season engine oil with specified parameters,

c) hydraulic oil with specified parameters.

193. Engine oil with the symbol SAE 5W-40 means that:

a) at negative temperature it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 5W, and at positive temperature of summer oil class SAE 40,

b) at positive temperature it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 5W,c) at negative temperature it has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40.
Question 194 - illustration

194. The symbol of the warning light shown in the graphic means:

a) low engine oil level,

b) low coolant level,c) low engine oil pressure.
Question 195 - illustration

195. The symbol of the warning light shown in the graphic means:

a) low fuel level,

b) low engine oil pressure,

c) low coolant level.
Question 196 - illustration

196. The presented symbol of the indicator means:

a) engine oil filter,b) hydraulic oil,

c) engine oil.

Question 197 - illustration

197. The presented symbol of the indicator means:

a) level of hydraulic oil,b) level of engine coolant,

c) level of engine oil.

198. Oils with designations 70W, 85W, 80W-90 are:

a) engine oils,

b) transmission oils,

c) brake oils.

199. In case of the need to dismantle the cover/protection for maintenance, it is not allowed to:

a) start working with the device without installing the cover/protection,

b) record such a fact in the documentation,c) reinstall the cover/protection.

200. The lighting of the battery charging indicator signals to the operator of the construction machine a failure of:

a) the V-belt and/or alternator,

b) the battery switch,c) the indicator light.

201. The operator's seat cannot be adjusted when:

a) the seat is turned backwards,b) the engine is not started,

c) the machine is in motion.

202. If during daily technical service before work the operator notices that one of the windows in the cabin is cracked, then:

a) he can start working if it is not the front window,

b) he should not start working,

c) he can start working provided that the window is only cracked and has not "fallen out".

203. Before starting work, the operator should:

a) open the windows for better communication,

b) clean the windows by removing snow, ice, and other contaminants,

c) install sun shields on the windows.

204. When changing hydraulic oils, one should:

a) always use only biodegradable oils,

b) use only types of oils recommended by the machine manufacturer,

c) use any type of oil.

205. To ensure the technical efficiency of the working machine, one should:

a) operate the machine/technical device without exceeding 50% of the permissible load,

b) follow technical service and maintenance according to the operating and maintenance instructions,

c) operate the machine/device only under full load.

206. On the construction site, empty containers for lubricants, oil filters, and used oils should be:

a) thrown into the mixed waste container,b) thrown into any waste container,

c) placed in a properly marked hazardous waste container.

207. Stickers (pictograms) located on the machine/technical device serve to:

a) convey important information about safety and the use of the machine/technical device,

b) inform about the prohibition of approaching the machine/technical device,c) indicate places where one can stay without any risk.

208. Lubrication points in the machine should be serviced:

a) during all breaks in work,b) always after 10 hours of work,

c) according to the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine.

209. Engine oil with parameters 5W-50 is:

a) oil only for summer,

b) all-season oil,

c) oil only for winter.

210. Before starting work on a new type of machine/technical device, the operator should:

a) perform a test run,b) conduct a periodic inspection,

c) familiarize themselves with the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine/technical device.

211. OTC service is:

a) round-the-clock technical service,b) temporary technical service,

c) daily technical service.

212. The basic types of services are:

a) daily, periodic, warehouse, transport service,

b) visual, active, passive service,c) round-the-clock, multi-seasonal, annual, technological service.

213. Batteries, when starting a machine using a supporting battery, should be connected:

a) in series,b) crosswise,

c) in parallel.

214. In the event of electrolyte loss caused by spillage through a cracked battery casing, one should:

a) add electrolyte to the proper level and charge the battery,b) add demineralized water to a level 10 mm above the upper edges of the plates,

c) secure the leak area in terms of environmental protection, and then replace the battery.

215. The activities performed by the operator as part of daily service during work are:

a) auditory control of the machine's operation and observation of indicators,

b) cleaning the machine,c) replenishing operating fluids and daily lubrication.

216. If the manufacturer has provided for operational arrival, it should be carried out:

a) without load,b) with maximum load,

c) with the load recommended in the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine/technical device.

217. When loading the machine onto the transport vehicle, the operator should:

a) approach at a speed of at least 5 [km/h],b) know the maximum speed allowed for the given transport vehicle,

c) know the permissible angle of inclination of the loading ramps for the given machine.

218. The responsibility for the placement and securing of the machine on the transport vehicle lies with:

a) the carrier (e.g. driver),

b) the machine operator,c) the owner or person responsible for machines in the company.

219. When storing the machine, one should ensure that:

a) there are no leaks of operating fluids,

b) no machine documents are left in the cabin,c) the machine is facing the exit.

220. Securing the machine during storage downtime involves:

a) filling the hydraulic oil tank to the top,b) disassembling all filters and protecting them from moisture,

c) cleaning the machine of dirt and corrosion.

221. The rods of hydraulic cylinders, during the technical service of the warehouse machine, should be:

a) disassembled and cleaned,b) disassembled and the seals replaced,

c) protected against corrosion.

222. When loading the machine onto the trailer:

a) assistance from a second person is recommended,

b) assistance from a second person is recommended only when loading onto a low-loader trailer,c) the operator should drive onto the trailer independently.

223. The recommended method for loading heavy working machines onto low-loader trailers is:

a) mechanized loading from the front ramp,

b) loading on ropes,c) loading using other machines.

224. During longer storage of the machine, the fuel tank should be:

a) empty, to avoid fire hazards,

b) filled to the top, to prevent condensation of water vapor inside the tank,

c) filled to 1/3 of its capacity and left open.

225. During daily operation of the machine, the condition of should be checked:

a) the value of working pressure in the hydraulic system,b) tools and equipment,

c) connections and tightness of the hydraulic system.

226. If the machine's engine has not been running for a longer time during daily maintenance, you should:

a) check the oil level and other operating fluids,

b) start the engine and gently increase the RPM to reach the operating temperature faster,c) replace the fuel suction filter.

227. Information regarding faults, their codes, and methods of removal can be found in the document named:

a) operating and maintenance manual,

b) daily report,c) construction machine book.

228. The correct order for connecting the auxiliary battery to the discharged battery in the machine is as follows:

a) negative terminal of the battery in the machine, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, machine frame,b) machine frame, positive terminal of the battery in the machine, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery,

c) positive terminal of the battery in the machine, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, machine frame.

229. In case of electrolyte loss in the battery, you should:

a) top it up with DOT-3 fluid,

b) top it up with distilled or demineralized water,

c) top it up with tap water.

230. Checking the charge state of the starting battery 12 [V] by "sparking" poses a risk of:

a) explosion of hydrogen escaping from the battery,

b) jamming the alternator,c) electric shock from high voltage.

231. The scope of daily technical service of the machine does not include:

a) checking the oil level in the engine,

b) control and adjustment of valve clearances,

c) checking the condition of tires and tire pressure.

232. When cleaning the radiator, to avoid damaging it, you should:

a) use a strong stream of water under high pressure,b) use sharp tools for cleaning,

c) keep the compressed air nozzle at an appropriate distance from the radiator.

233. The purpose of lubrication in working machines is:

a) to reduce friction,

b) to increase the engine speed,c) to raise the temperature of cooperating elements.

234. The most commonly used type of fuses in electrical installations of working machines is:

a) fuse links,

b) residual current devices,c) automatic fuses.

235. The phenomenon of electrostatic charge during refueling of the machine can lead to:

a) short circuit of the electrical installation,b) poisoning,

c) fire.

236. In the case of connecting two batteries in parallel with different rated voltages:

a) thicker cables should be used than with batteries of the same rated voltages,b) both batteries may discharge,

c) there may be an explosion of the battery with the lower rated voltage.

237. The correct way to connect a battery to a charger during charging is:

a) the positive terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger, the negative terminal of the charger to the "ground" of the machine,b) the positive terminal of the battery to the negative terminal of the charger, the negative terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger,

c) the positive terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger, the negative terminal of the battery to the negative terminal of the charger.

238. After connecting the battery, the terminals are lubricated with:

a) technical vaseline,

b) grease containing molybdenum disulfide,c) graphite grease.

239. One of the goals of warehouse handling is:

a) preparing the machine for transport for the future user,

b) protecting the machine from corrosion and other harmful factors during long-term storage,

c) repairing damaged parts of the machine before the next season.

240. If during daily technical service the operator notices a leak in the cooling system, he should:

a) organize fluid and refill to the minimum level if the leak is small,

b) report the leak and not use the machine until it is repaired,

c) refill the coolant and continue working.

241. The level of coolant in the expansion tank should be checked:

a) only in case of engine overheating,b) only during periodic technical service,

c) during every daily technical service.

242. If the operator notices a hydraulic fluid leak during daily technical service, they should:

a) top up the oil and continue working,b) reduce the RPM and continue working,

c) report the leak and not use the machine until it is repaired.

243. The frequency of performing periodic technical service depends on:

a) the number of hours worked (engine hours),

b) the number of completed working cycles,c) the production date of the machine.

244. If during daily technical service the operator notices a low level of engine oil, they should:

a) top up the level with any available oil, even if it is of a different type,

b) top up the oil to the appropriate level,

c) proceed with work if the level is not very low and the warning light is not on.

245. A characteristic activity for seasonal technical service is:

a) replacing the coolant with one suitable for the season,

b) checking the working pressure values of the hydraulic system,c) checking the charging voltage values.

246. Basic service activities that must be performed before starting a diesel engine are:

a) checking the oil level in the engine, checking the coolant level, checking the condition of the air filter,

b) bleeding the fuel system, checking the oil level in the transmission, checking the starter,c) checking the oil level in the gearbox, checking the operation of the working system, checking the operation of the brakes.

247. Activities performed as part of daily technical service (OTC) carried out during the operation of the machine are:

a) observing only control and measurement indicators such as: oil pressure, engine temperature, hydraulic oil temperature,

b) observing control and measurement instruments and monitoring the proper operation of the machine using sight, hearing, and smell,

c) primarily conducting sensory checks of the proper operation of the machine's working system.

248. We distinguish, among others, the following types of technical services:

a) transport, arrival, storage, service-repair (ON), catalog,

b) transport, arrival, daily, periodic, seasonal, storage,

c) arrival, daily, periodic, seasonal, storage, emergency, night.

249. We perform technical services in order to:

a) ensure quiet operation of the machine or technical device,b) maintain the value of the machine or technical device at a constant, unchanged level,

c) extend the lifespan and ensure safe operation of the machine or technical device. Service tasks for the practical exam

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