Soil stabilization machines class III
Study mode
Question of 303
1. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage not exceeding 1 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?
a) not less than 2 [m],b) not less than 5 [m],
c) not less than 3 [m].
2. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?
a) not less than 10 [m],
b) not less than 5 [m],
c) not less than 15 [m].3. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?
a) not less than 10 [m],
b) not less than 5 [m],c) not less than 15 [m].4. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?
a) not less than 15 [m],
b) not less than 10 [m],c) not less than 20 [m]. Machines for soil stabilization Class III5. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?
a) not less than 15 [m],
b) not less than 30 [m],
c) not less than 10 [m].6. Can workstations be organized in the danger zone under overhead power lines?
a) no, never,b) yes, always,
c) yes, but only after meeting additional requirements.
7. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [V]?
a) not less than 3 [m],
b) not less than 5 [m],c) not less than 30 [m].8. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV]?
a) not less than 10 [m],
b) not less than 5 [m],
c) not less than 15 [m].9. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?
a) not less than 15 [m],b) not less than 30 [m],
c) not less than 10 [m].
10. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?
a) not less than 15 [m],
b) not less than 10 [m],
c) not less than 5 [m].11. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV]?
a) not less than 30 [m],
b) not less than 15 [m],
c) not less than 50 [m].12. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV]?
a) not less than 30 [m],b) not less than 15 [m],
c) not less than 10 [m].
13. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]?
a) not less than 40 [m],
b) not less than 30 [m],
c) not less than 3 [m].14. Work in the danger zone (overhead high voltage power line):
a) may be carried out provided that permission has been granted by the work manager,b) may not be carried out under any circumstances under electric lines in the danger zone,
c) may be carried out provided that the line is disconnected from voltage, the work is performed in a limited area with groundings, and at least one grounding is visible from the work location.
15. The operator must perform work at a distance X from an active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [V]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 1 [m],b) 2 [m],
c) 5 [m].
16. The operator must perform work at a distance X from an active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 5 [m],
b) 15 [m],
c) 3 [m].17. The operator must perform work at a distance X from an active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 5 [m],b) 15 [m],
c) 50 [m].
18. If the injured person has a detectable pulse but is not breathing, then:
a) chest compressions should be performed,
b) the airways should be cleared and artificial respiration started,
c) he should not be touched.19. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, it is essential to:
a) assist those with life-threatening conditions,
b) give medication to the injured,c) move away from the accident scene to call a doctor.20. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, it is essential to:
a) move away from the accident scene to call a doctor,
b) ensure your own safety,
c) assist those with life-threatening conditions.21. The obligation to provide first aid to accident victims rests with:
a) only those who have medical training,
b) everyone, as part of the rescue tasks can always be performed,
c) everyone, but for any mistakes, criminal liability always threatens.22. The accident victim regained consciousness after a few minutes and wants to go home. In this situation, one should:
a) give her something to drink and painkillers,
b) persuade her to stay and call for medical help,
c) let her go home, recommending a visit to the doctor.23. First aid in a situation where a foreign body has entered the eye of the injured person consists of:
a) rinsing with clean water directing the stream from the nose outward from the eye,
b) rinsing with distilled water directing the stream inward to the eye,c) rinsing the eye with eye drops.24. The injured person cut their leg on an unsecured sharp element. Providing first aid in this situation is:
a) sticking a plaster directly on the wound,
b) using sterile gauze, wrapping the wound with a bandage,
c) using a tourniquet.25. Suspecting spinal injury in a person who has fallen from a height and is conscious, one should:
a) lay her in the established side position,
b) not move her and wait for medical services to arrive,
c) seat her in a semi-reclining position.26. To move away from the place where the electric wire was interrupted and the area is under voltage, you should:
a) slowly step away from this place, taking small steps, trying to maintain continuous contact of your feet with the ground,
b) quickly step away from the source of electric shock, lifting your feet high,c) run as fast as possible to a place that we assess as safe.27. First aid in the case of a first-degree burn is:
a) pouring cold water on the burned area,
b) applying ointment to the burned area,c) applying greasy cream to the burned area.28. During work, a high voltage power line was torn down, as a result of which a colleague was electrocuted. In this situation, the correct behavior is:
a) turn off the power source as quickly as possible,
b) approach the injured person to provide first aid,c) call other colleagues for help with the injured person.29. We perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation until:
a) 10 minutes have passed,
b) we have determined that the victim has started to breathe and circulation has returned,
c) the fire brigade arrives and secures the area.30. Immediate action in the case of severe bleeding from an injured upper limb includes:
a) applying a dressing, directly compressing the bleeding site, and elevating the limb,
b) disinfecting the wound with salicylic alcohol,c) lowering the limb below heart level.31. In case of a nosebleed, one should:
a) lean the bleeding person's head forward, pinch the nostrils,
b) tilt the head back and place a cold compress on the neck,c) lay the injured person on their back.32. The first step in dealing with a victim of carbon monoxide poisoning in a closed room is:
a) assess ABC,b) conduct a preliminary examination,
c) evacuate the injured person from the room as quickly as possible.
33. First aid during seizures caused by an epileptic attack consists of:
a) placing a wooden object in the injured person's mouth to prevent biting the tongue,
b) protecting the injured person's head from injuries,
c) seating the injured person in a semi-sitting position and giving them something to drink.34. In case of suspected cervical spine injury in a conscious person, one should:
a) seat the injured person in a chair with a high back,b) place the injured person in a lateral position,
c) not allow the injured person to move their head.
35. The most important thing when a person is buried under earth, sand, or gravel is:
a) waiting for the ambulance to arrive,
b) locating the injured person,
c) notifying the family.36. First aid for a person with a metal rod embedded in their calf involves calling for help and:
a) securing the rod to prevent movement,
b) moving the rod to check if the artery is damaged,c) removing the embedded rod.37. The indication for using an AED defibrillator is:
a) absence of detectable breathing and pulse in the victim,
b) severe chest pain,c) severe dizziness.38. During the operation of a machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam, prohibited actions include:
a) making structural changes to the machine/technical device,
b) changing the working tool,c) performing daily technical service (OTC).39. During the operation of a machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam, prohibited actions include:
a) refueling the machine/technical device from a canister,
b) cleaning the machine/technical device using gasoline or solvents whose vapors can create flammable/explosive gas mixtures with air,
c) cleaning the machine/technical device using a product in accordance with the operating and maintenance instructions.40. When performing earthworks with a machine for which you are taking the exam, it is unacceptable to:
a) have people within the reach of the machine's working tool,
b) have people at a distance greater than the sum of the maximum reach of the working tool plus 6 meters,c) have people near the machine during technical service operations.41. During the execution of work, it is unacceptable to:
a) work near active overhead power lines at a distance less than specified by regulations,
b) work near an active power line with a rated voltage of 20 [kV] at a distance of 15 [m],c) work near an active power line with a rated voltage of 10 [kV] at a distance of 10 [m].42. The machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam can only be operated by:
a) a person with written confirmation of course completion in the form of a plastic card,
b) a person who has completed training and obtained a positive result from the test conducted by the commission appointed by the Łukasiewicz Research Network – Warsaw Institute of Technology,
c) any adult person with technical education and a driving license of the appropriate category.43. The qualifications to operate machines/technical devices for which you are taking the exam are issued by:
a) The County Office appropriate for the address of the person applying for the qualifications,
b) The Łukasiewicz Research Network - Warsaw Institute of Technology (ŁRN - WIT),
c) The Office of Technical Inspection (UDT).44. The qualifications to operate machines/technical devices for which you are taking the exam:
a) are valid for 5 years from the date of issue,
b) are valid indefinitely,
c) are valid for 10 years from the date of issue.45. A person holding qualifications to operate: "Soil Stabilization Machine class III" may operate based on them:
a) soil stabilization machines only up to 8 [t] operating mass,b) soil stabilization machines and road rollers,
c) all soil stabilization machines.
46. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam may take up work provided that:
a) has a valid category D driving license,
b) has the qualifications to operate this type of machine/technical device,
c) the machine/technical device has a valid UDT inspection.47. In the event of a threat to life, health, property, or the environment caused by a malfunction of the machine/technical device, the operator:
a) immediately stops work and informs the supervisor of this fact,
b) continues working but makes an appropriate entry in the maintenance book at the end of the shift,c) continues working but informs the supervisor of the situation at the end of the shift.48. Lifting and transporting people using working equipment:
a) is possible, but only outside the public road area,b) requires the consent of the construction manager,
c) is always prohibited.
49. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam has the right to refuse to take up work when:
a) there is an overhead power line with a rated voltage of 110 [kV] located 35 meters away,
b) this work requires special psychophysical fitness, and his psychophysical condition does not ensure its safe performance and poses a threat to others,
c) has the required personal protective equipment.50. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is obliged to stop work when:
a) there is an overhead power line located 35 meters away,b) has the required personal protective equipment,
c) the work he is performing poses a direct threat to the health or life of others.
51. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is required to:
a) comply with the instructions for the operation and use of the machine/technical device,
b) independently perform all current repairs of the machine/technical device,c) always have a category B driving license.52. The person directly responsible for the safe operation of the machine for which you are taking the exam is:
a) the machine operator,
b) the owner of the machine,c) the construction manager.53. The operator's book and qualifications for the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam are issued by:
a) Transport Technical Supervision (TDT),b) Technical Supervision Office (UDT),
c) Łukasiewicz Research Network - Warsaw Institute of Technology.
54. The obligation to use personal protective equipment:
a) does not apply on hot days,
b) results from the instructions for operation and use as well as health and safety regulations,
c) results only from internal company regulations.55. An employee who witnesses an accident at work:
a) is obliged to provide assistance to the victims, notify the supervisor, and if necessary secure the accident site,
b) it is enough to notify the supervisor,c) is obliged to provide assistance to the victims and then immediately leave the accident site.56. What elements of the machine, for which you are taking the exam, protect the operator in case of the machine overturning:
a) ROPS type machine cabin and safety belts,
b) certified protective helmet and reflective vest,c) machine seat.57. In case of loss of stability by a machine equipped with a ROPS type cabin, the operator should:
a) try to leave the cabin as quickly as possible (before the machine overturns),
b) maintain a sitting position while holding on tightly to the steering wheel or other stable elements in the cabin,
c) quickly turn left and raise the working equipment as high as possible.58. In case of loss of stability by a machine equipped with a ROPS type cabin, the operator should:
a) stay in the cabin,
b) immediately jump out of the cabin,c) turn on the warning/emergency lights.59. The danger zone is defined as:
a) a place where workers must only wear protective helmets,
b) a place where there are threats to the health and life of people,
c) a place where work requiring specialized equipment takes place, and the presence of people is only allowed at night.60. The danger zone on a construction site:
a) is always designated by a surveyor,
b) is designated and/or fenced and marked in a way that prevents access to unauthorized persons,
c) is designated after the construction work has started.61. The area that the operator should check and secure before starting work with a machine/technical device (because there are health and life hazards) is called:
a) a high-risk area,
b) a danger zone,
c) a dead zone.62. During the charging of batteries, a gas with highly explosive properties is released. This gas is:
a) hydrogen,
b) ethane,c) methane.63. Firefighting foam can be used to extinguish fires of group:
a) only C,
b) A and B,
c) C and D.64. Improper use of a snow extinguisher can result in:
a) burns from the extinguisher components,b) fainting,
c) frostbite caused by the extinguishing agent.
65. Water, fire blanket, powder extinguisher, carbon dioxide, sand are extinguishing agents that we will use to extinguish:
a) solid bodies,
b) liquids,c) oils.66. Sorbents can be called:
a) fire blankets,b) petroleum substances,
c) materials made of natural or synthetic materials that absorb liquids.
67. Group A fires concern:
a) flammable gases,
b) solid bodies whose normal combustion occurs with the formation of glowing coals, e.g. wood, paper, etc.,
c) flammable liquids.68. Group B fires concern:
a) metals, e.g. magnesium, sodium, potassium, aluminum, titanium, etc.,
b) liquids and solid materials that melt, e.g. plastics, fuels, oils, etc.,
c) flammable gases.69. Group C fires concern:
a) solid bodies,b) flammable liquids,
c) gases, e.g. methane, propane, acetylene, hydrogen.
70. Seeing such a pictogram you are informed about:
a) the collection point during evacuation,
b) a larger number of people in a given area,c) the danger zone.
71. During work, you noticed a sign marked 'Zone 0'. It informs about:
a) the zone of existing fire load in the building,b) the zone of existing fire hazard category,
c) the space where an explosive atmosphere occurs.
72. The presented pictogram informs about:
a) internal hydrant,
b) set of fire protection equipment,
c) main power switch.
73. Seeing such a pictogram, you are informed about:
a) the location of first aid,b) the assembly point during evacuation,
c) the emergency exit.
74. Seeing such a pictogram, you are informed about:
a) the location of the fire extinguisher,
b) high temperature affecting the fire extinguisher,c) the prohibition of using the fire extinguisher.75. You see a person whose clothing is on fire and who is fleeing in panic. Your reaction is:
a) you tell him to wait in an upright position for the arrival of rescue services,
b) you try to stop him, lay him on the ground, and start extinguishing,
c) you wave your arms or outer covering strongly next to him to extinguish the burning clothing.76. Electrical devices and installations can be extinguished using:
a) foam extinguishers,b) water,
c) powder or snow extinguishers.
77. Burning fuel can be extinguished using:
a) low-octane ethylene,
b) powder, foam or snow extinguishers,
c) water.78. Clothing burning on a person can be extinguished using:
a) snow or powder extinguisher,b) plastic material,
c) water mist extinguisher or fire blanket.
79. What obligations does an employee have when they decide to refrain from work due to health and safety regulations?
a) They have no obligations in this situation,b) They should organize work for others,
c) They must immediately notify their supervisor.
80. How can an operator prevent hazards in the workplace?
a) By using personal protective equipment to minimize risk,
b) By ignoring health and safety rules,c) By not reporting faults in machines.81. It is not permissible to position the workplace directly under active overhead power lines or at a horizontal distance from the outermost wires of less than:
a) for all voltages - 1 [m] from the power line,
b) for lines: 1 [kV] - 3 [m], 15 [kV] - 5 [m], 30 [kV] - 10 [m], 110 [kV] - 15 [m], 400 [kV] - 30 [m],
c) for lines: 1 [kV] - 1 [m], 15 [kV] - 3 [m], 30 [kV] - 5 [m], 110 [kV] - 10 [m].82. How does the operator know what personal protective equipment is required for a given machine/technical device?
a) The operator must independently choose the appropriate protective measures,
b) Information about the necessary personal protective equipment is included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine,
c) The choice of personal protective equipment depends on the opinion of colleagues at work.83. The operator should refuse to perform a task when:
a) the work is being performed at night,b) the work requires familiarization with the location of underground and above-ground utilities,
c) the work is inconsistent with the purpose of the machine/technical device.
84. The operator can prevent hazards during the operation of the machine/technical device by:
a) following health and safety rules and adhering to the operating instructions,
b) inattention and routine,c) limiting the use of personal protective equipment.85. Which of the following situations is unacceptable during the use of the machine/technical device?
a) The presence of unauthorized persons in the danger zone caused by the operation of the machine/technical device,
b) Operating the machine without supervision,c) Reporting faults directly to the supervisor.86. An accident at work is considered:
a) a long-term event related to the work performed, caused by an internal reason, resulting in equipment damage,b) a sudden event not related to the work performed, caused by an external reason, resulting in injury or death,
c) a sudden event related to the work performed, caused by an external reason, resulting in injury or death.
87. A fatal accident at work is considered to be an accident in which death occurred:
a) only at the moment of the accident,b) within a period exceeding 6 months from the date of the accident,
c) within a period not exceeding 6 months from the date of the accident.
88. It is prohibited to:
a) allow unauthorized persons within the reach of the machine's work and work on slopes exceeding the permissible incline,
b) report noticed defects to the supervisor before starting work,c) operate the machine after completing training and obtaining the appropriate qualifications.89. When getting on and off the machine, it is prohibited to:
a) intensively use the handrails and steps,b) face the machine when getting on and off,
c) use the control lever as support.
90. Health and safety regulations require:
a) conducting a warranty inspection of the working machine before the end of the year from its purchase,
b) securing the working machine during breaks in its operation against accidental activation by unauthorized persons,
c) scrapping the old working machine within the time specified in its operating and maintenance manual, while adhering to the requirements for the disposal of hazardous materials.91. In the case of a person being electrocuted:
a) it is recommended to use any tools to disconnect the power, regardless of their actual purpose,
b) do not touch the victim until the power source is disconnected,
c) immediate resuscitation should be started, regardless of whether the power source has been disconnected.92. In the case of a person being buried under earth or sand:
a) we always calmly wait for rescue services - any attempt to help would be too dangerous,
b) the person should be dug out as quickly as possible, if it is safe for the rescuer,
c) the person should be dug out as quickly as possible regardless of one's own safety - it's about their life.93. Seeing a person whose clothes are on fire, the first thing to do is:
a) use a fire extinguisher, preferably a snow one, to extinguish the burning clothing, and then try to quickly remove the melted clothing,
b) cut off the air supply by rolling the victim or wrapping them in a fire blanket, wet clothing, or a wet blanket,
c) leave the victim standing to facilitate air access and extinguish the flames faster.94. If during earthworks unidentified objects are discovered, then:
a) earthworks can continue if a distance of at least 1 [m] is maintained from such an object,
b) further work is interrupted and the supervising person of the earthworks is notified,
c) a danger zone with a radius of 6 [m] should be designated, outside of which normal work can continue.95. In the case of finding an unexploded ordnance during earthworks, one should:
a) try to carefully remove the unexploded ordnance from the work area and continue working,b) ignore the unexploded ordnance if it does not pose an immediate threat,
c) stop work, remove other workers from the danger area, notify supervisors, and secure the site.
96. Rules and methods of marking works carried out on public roads 'under traffic':
a) defines the Temporary Traffic Organization Project, which presents the types and methods of placing road signs, traffic lights, sound signals, and traffic safety devices,
b) are defined by regulations concerning permanent road marking, which do not take into account temporary changes in traffic,c) is determined solely by the construction manager's decision, without the need to prepare an additional project.97. When carrying out works in the road lane:
a) one must familiarize oneself with the Safe Work Execution Instruction (IBWR) and use personal protective equipment, such as safety helmets, work shoes, and high-visibility protective clothing,
b) vehicles used in the works may be unmarked if they are visible up close,c) employees may work without personal protective equipment, provided that the works are short-term.98. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is performed:
a) when the injured person is breathing but unconscious, with no contact,
b) when the injured person is not breathing and there is no detectable pulse. For a non-professional rescuer, lack of breathing is a sufficient basis to start resuscitation,
c) only in cases of fainting and minor injuries, to improve blood circulation.99. An employee has the right to refrain from performing work due to health and safety regulations, notifying their supervisor immediately if:
a) the working conditions do not pose a threat, but are too difficult for them,b) the work they are performing has not been reported to the construction supervision,
c) the working conditions pose a direct threat to health or life.
100. Physical factors generating hazards in the workplace are:
a) lack of or inadequate training of employees,
b) spilled lubricants, oils, and fuels,
c) lack of appropriate medical examinations of the employee.101. Work with a machine/technical device is unacceptable when:
a) it is malfunctioning,
b) its repair was carried out after dark,c) the second operator did not report an upcoming inspection.102. Working near overhead power lines:
a) always requires double grounding of the line,
b) is possible without meeting additional requirements provided that specific distances depending on the rated voltage of the line are maintained,
c) always requires power to be turned off in the line.103. The operator is obliged to refuse to work if:
a) they would have to work under power lines, and the voltage in them has been turned off and the line grounded,
b) the working machine is malfunctioning,
c) there is no construction manager or any other person authorized to supervise at the work site.104. The danger zone from a machine/technical device is:
a) a place where there are hazards to the health or life of people,
b) always the entire fenced construction site,c) a place where the machine/device cannot be used.105. Accidents at work resulting from the poor technical condition of the working machine may involve, for example:
a) damage to the equipment,
b) injury to a limb, torso, or head,
c) failure of the drive system.106. Unacceptable behaviors are:
a) working after dark in a well-lit place, with full concentration of the operator,
b) operating a faulty machine and working under the influence of alcohol,
c) performing daily maintenance of the machine after dark.107. General rules for safely getting on and off the machine are:
a) using cables and levers as aids when getting on is permissible when the machine is turned off,b) you can step back from the machine, but only when the steps are slippery,
c) a person should face the machine, remember the "three-point support" rule, and use only specially made steps and handrails.
108. Basic employee responsibilities regarding OHS are:
a) not being late for work, finishing on time, confirming presence at work in the manner accepted by the employer,
b) adhering to OHS regulations and rules, taking care of the condition of machines and tools, and maintaining order in the workplace, using personal protective equipment,
c) enforcing labor code regulations regarding their rights, including payment for overtime worked.109. In the case of a person electrocuted, after disconnecting the power source, you should:
a) move the injured person to another location as quickly as possible,b) leave the injured person alone if they have regained consciousness, without further actions,
c) check the condition of the injured person, and if necessary: call for help, clear the airways, perform resuscitation, and use an AED if available.
110. When a person buried under earth or sand is partially dug out, you should:
a) focus on digging out the lower parts of the injured person's body,
b) clear the airways as quickly as possible,
c) dig out the left arm as quickly as possible to check the pulse.111. After extinguishing the flames on a person with burns and calling for help, one should:
a) use a snow extinguisher to cool the burn area,b) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes, previously removing any melted clothing,
c) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes, without removing any melted clothing.
112. If the operator notices faults that may prevent the proper operation of the machine, then:
a) should continue working and repair the machine after completing the task,
b) is obliged to refuse to start the machine and report this fact to the supervisor,
c) should ignore the faults if the machine is currently operating correctly.113. For optical marking of works carried out in the road lane, the following are used:
a) traffic cones in any well-visible color and uniform red obstacles placed at the work site,b) only traffic lights, flashing,
c) traffic cones in red or orange, and after dark, cones with white reflective stripes and separators.
114. What markings should vehicles and machines used for work in the road lane have?
a) Vehicles should be equipped with yellow lights visible from at least 150 m, and machines on the roadway should be marked with road barriers with reflective elements and warning lights,
b) Vehicles should use lights of any color visible from a distance. Other machines do not need additional marking,c) Vehicles and machines should be marked only when working after dark. The method of marking is specified in the operating and maintenance instructions of the given machine.
115. Seeing such a pictogram, you are informed about:
a) a location where an automatic external defibrillator is available,
b) a location where a first aid kit is available,c) a location for performing AED.116. Properly performed cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) consists of:
a) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 30-60 times per minute to a depth of 1–3 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 15 compressions (breaths are mandatory),
b) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 100-120 times per minute to a depth of 5–6 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 30 compressions (breaths are not mandatory),
c) connecting an automated external defibrillator (AED) and following its instructions; CPR is not performed without an AED.117. The abbreviation IBWR stands for:
a) Instruction for Safe Execution of Works,
b) Instruction for Failure-Free Execution of Works,c) Instruction for Failure-Free Execution of Works.118. Expand the abbreviation IBWR:
a) Information on Safe Execution of Works,b) Implementation of Failure-Free Execution of Works,
c) Instruction for Safe Execution of Works.
119. The Instruction for Safe Execution of Construction Works is:
a) a document confirming qualifications for operating machines and technical devices in earthworks, construction, and road works,
b) a document containing information regarding safety on the construction site,
c) a plan of the road in construction works.120. The BIOZ plan stands for:
a) plan for Safety and Health Protection,
b) plan for Safe Health Protection Instruction,c) plan for Safety and Resource Specification.121. A vehicle performing maintenance, repair, or modernization work on the road should send:
a) orange flashing signals,b) red flashing signals,
c) yellow flashing signals.
122. Traffic safety devices used during work conducted in the road lane may be colored:
a) red, yellow-red, blue,
b) white, red, yellow, and black,
c) white, green, blue.123. Traffic safety devices used to secure and mark the work site in the road lane should be visible:
a) only at night,
b) during the day and at night,
c) only during the day.124. In the case of mechanical damage to the FOPS/ROPS cabin (e.g., denting of the cabin element) the operator:
a) can repair the damage on their own without wasting time on downtime,b) can continue working if the cabin windows are intact,
c) should stop working and report the failure to the supervisor or the person responsible in the company for the machines.
125. In the case of mechanical damage to the FOPS/ROPS cabin (e.g., denting of the cabin element) the operator:
a) can repair such damage on their own, but only based on the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine,
b) cannot repair such damage on their own,
c) can always repair such damage on their own.126. The operator must wear a safety helmet while working with the machine when:
a) frequently leaning out of the cabin during work,
b) working in a machine not equipped with a closed cabin,
c) working on demolition work using long booms.127. Entering and exiting the machine should be done:
a) backwards to the machine, using a three-step ladder,
b) facing the machine, maintaining three points of contact,
c) entering from the side while being careful of the devices in the cabin.128. The operator can work without the need for prior loosening in soil:
a) of all categories above IV,b) categories V-VIII,
c) category I.
129. The machine operator should know the category of the soil on which they are working:
a) to understand the requirements for operating the machine's chassis,b) to be able to assess the depth of the excavation,
c) to calculate the safe distance for setting up the machine and the reach of the debris wedge.
130. Subsurface drainage involves:
a) lowering the groundwater level using depressional wells or filter points,
b) pumping water from the bottom level of the excavation,c) digging trenches around the excavation.131. The main function (task) of the soil stabilization machine is:
a) stabilization of the road subgrade by mixing in strengthening materials such as lime, cement, or ash,
b) screening gravel for road applications,c) removing the top layer of soil with tree roots and humus.132. The most commonly used binders in soil stabilization in road construction are:
a) peat and compost,
b) cement and lime,
c) sand and gravel.133. The main goal of soil stabilization is:
a) achieving the required strength parameters by mixing soil with hydraulic binder,
b) enriching the soil with organic minerals,c) reducing the natural moisture of the soil without adding binder.134. A method of soil stabilization is not:
a) stabilization in place,b) stabilization in a stationary plant,
c) stabilization with a RHA mixer.
135. A part of the soil stabilization process on site is:
a) preliminary compaction of the layer using a vibrating roller,
b) complete replacement of the soil with new material,c) loosening the soil using a loader.136. The dosing of ingredients in the soil stabilization process at a stationary plant is done:
a) by manually measuring individual ingredients,
b) automatically according to a programmed laboratory recipe,
c) solely by mechanically mixing the soil on the construction site.137. A key stage in the soil stabilization process with cement is:
a) loosening and leveling the soil before adding cement,
b) compacting the mixture of soil, cement, and water after thorough mixing,
c) directly spreading the mixture on cohesive soil.138. Unslaked quicklime in the soil stabilization process is used when:
a) the soil is excessively moist,
b) the soil is low cohesive and dry,c) the soil is moderately cohesive.139. The share of fly ash in relation to the mass of dry soil during its stabilization is usually:
a) from 6 [%] to 10 [%],
b) always less than 3 [%],c) above 15 [%].140. The process of mixing and compacting the soil after spreading the binder should be completed:
a) within 5 - 6 hours,b) within 6 - 8 hours,
c) within a maximum of 3 hours.
141. In addition to soil stabilization, a soil stabilization machine can be used for:
a) milling and crushing old surfaces,
b) transporting and embedding surface material in another location,c) loading bulk materials onto transport means.142. To improve the strength and durability of the road surface, soil stabilization should be applied using:
a) soil with the addition of water or hydraulic slurry,
b) cement, lime, and hydraulic road binder,
c) sand and volcanic ash.143. Soil stabilization requires the application of optimal moisture and
a) sand, which increases the flexibility of the soil,
b) hydraulic binder, which increases the strength of the mixture,
c) water, to create a natural mixture of soil and moisture.144. The method of soil stabilization is:
a) stabilization in a stationary mixer PHA,b) stabilization in a four-axle mobile plant,
c) stabilization on site.
145. The primary goal of on-site soil stabilization is:
a) preparation for leveling the substrate surface,b) facilitating soil exchange,
c) achieving the desired load-bearing capacity, strength, and frost resistance parameters.
146. The composition of the mixture in the stabilization process at the stationary plant is controlled by:
a) visual monitoring of components during mixing on site,b) variable dosing of components based on soil moisture at the construction site,
c) programming the dosing of components according to the laboratory recipe.
147. Soil stabilization with cement is used to:
a) give the soil greater flexibility during earthworks,
b) improve the load-bearing capacity of the soil and reduce its sensitivity to atmospheric influences,
c) facilitate water drainage from the soil.148. The main purpose of using lime for soil stabilization is:
a) to increase the load-bearing capacity of excessively wet cohesive soils,
b) to increase the load-bearing capacity of non-cohesive soils,c) to increase the permeability of the soil for water in the substrate.149. The main purpose of using fly ash for soil stabilization is:
a) to reduce the content of natural minerals in the soil,
b) to decrease the soil's sensitivity to atmospheric influences,
c) to improve drainage in the substrate.150. The first stage of preparing the substrate in the soil stabilization process is:
a) moistening the soil to the assumed optimal moisture,
b) spreading the stabilizing material,c) compacting and profiling the soil.151. The use of a soil stabilizer mounted on another vehicle is preferred:
a) in situations where intensive compaction is required,
b) in hard-to-reach areas where greater mobility is key,
c) in projects requiring work in large, open spaces.152. The machine operator can choose which of the lifting columns will take on the role:
a) pendulum/leveling axis,
b) drive axis,c) stabilizer.153. Setting the milling depth in a self-propelled machine is done by:
a) lowering the milling-mixing drum,
b) manual adjustment of the lifting columns,c) automatic height adjustment of the columns.154. The process of foaming bitumen in the injection system takes place:
a) in the gear rail,
b) in the injection rail,
c) in the main gear pump.155. A soil stabilizer can be attached to a tractor using:
a) specialized mounting arms,
b) three-point hitch,
c) hydraulic system.156. The working depth of milling in a stabilizer attached to a tractor is adjusted:
a) by manual adjustment of the side plates,
b) using the rear tool lift on the tractor,
c) automatically using the PTO.157. You can operate the machine with the cabin doors open:
a) always,
b) only if the operating and maintenance manual of the machine provides for such a possibility,
c) only when the air temperature exceeds 25 [°C].158. Which of the listed elements are not part of the hydraulic system:
a) starter, alternator,
b) hydraulic lock, hydraulic oil tank,c) pump, distributor, actuator.159. The hydraulic lock in the machine is:
a) a valve that protects against uncontrolled movement of the element in a given line,
b) the closure of the hydraulic oil inlet at its tank,c) a valve responsible for controlling the entire hydraulic system.160. The change of hydraulic oil pressure into mechanical movement is the responsibility of:
a) hydraulic distributor,b) hydraulic pump system,
c) hydraulic actuator and hydraulic motor.
161. The pressure in the hydraulic system is generated by:
a) hydraulic actuator,
b) hydraulic pump,
c) hydraulic motor.162. Directing the flow of hydraulic oil to individual systems is carried out by:
a) hydraulic lock,b) relief valve,
c) hydraulic distributor.
163. The safety valve protects the hydraulic system from:
a) excessive pressure increase,
b) overheating of hydraulic oil,c) air in the hydraulic system.164. The relief valve in the hydraulic system is responsible for:
a) venting the system,
b) limiting the maximum working pressure in a given circuit,
c) maintaining a constant position of the working tool.165. If the pressure in the hydraulic system increases excessively, the excess oil will be directed to:
a) hydraulic oil tank,
b) distributor,c) hydraulic oil filter.166. The basic parameters that characterize an electric battery are:
a) rated voltage [V], power [W], weight [kg],b) rated voltage [V], resistance [Ω], power [W],
c) rated voltage [V], capacity [Ah], starting current [A].
167. Lead-acid batteries can be charged:
a) in any room,
b) in a place specifically designated for this purpose,
c) only in an air-conditioned room.168. The pressure in the tires should be adjusted to:
a) values given in the operating and maintenance manual,
b) the preferences of the operator,c) the requirements of the landowner.169. Uneven pressure in the tires:
a) does not affect the operation of the machine,b) improves the driving properties of the machine,
c) reduces the stability of the machine.
170. The ROPS cabin in construction machines protects the operator from:
a) being hit by falling objects from above,
b) crushing in the event of the machine overturning,
c) dust in the operator's cabin.171. ROPS cabin in construction machines protects against:
a) the machine falling off a slope and rolling over,
b) crushing the operator in case the machine tips over,
c) the machine tipping over.172. The element of the hydrostatic drive system that converts the mechanical energy of the engine into hydraulic energy is:
a) hydraulic motor or hydraulic actuator,b) rotation column,
c) hydraulic oil pump.
173. Damage to the ROPS frame that necessitates its replacement includes:
a) cracking or bending of the structure,
b) discoloration of the paint caused by weather conditions and the passage of time,c) minor surface scratches.174. Drilling additional holes in the ROPS cabin structure is prohibited because:
a) it reduces the operator's comfort,
b) it causes a decrease in the strength of the structure,
c) it reduces the weight of the machine.175. Soil stabilizers are divided into:
a) heavy self-propelled machines and devices mounted on another vehicle,
b) hydraulic and electric stabilizers,c) wheeled and tracked machines.176. The drive for the conveyor belts of the milling-mixing drum is provided by:
a) hydraulic cylinder,
b) direct drive from the engine,c) mechanical clutch.177. How is the milling-mixing drum powered in a self-propelled machine?
a) electrically, directly from the diesel engine,b) hydraulically, using a piston pump,
c) mechanically, through a clutch system and conveyor belts.
178. Each wheel in a self-propelled machine is driven by:
a) differential mechanism,
b) its own hydraulic motor,
c) central drive motor.179. The flow meter in the injection system for foamed bitumen is used for:
a) measuring the amount of pumped bitumen,
b) controlling the water temperature,c) regulating the amount of air.180. The drive of the soil stabilizer in the towed system is realized by:
a) power take-off/power relay shaft (PTO),
b) belt drive,c) independent electric motor.181. The optimal efficiency and full utilization of the tractor's power in the drum drive are ensured by:
a) mechanical belt drives on both sides,
b) direct drive PTO,c) hydraulic transmission systems.182. Before overload, the drive of the milling-mixing drum is protected by:
a) an additional PTO lock,
b) a clutch on the stabilizer side,
c) an automatic cooling system.183. The side plates are designed to:
a) slide over the ground without embedding into it,
b) increase friction and improve stability,c) block the material at greater depth.184. The flow and direction of hydraulic fluid in the system are regulated by:
a) hydraulic valves,
b) hydraulic pumps,c) hydraulic motors.185. Components of the system, such as actuators and hydraulic motors, convert hydraulic energy into:
a) electrical energy,b) pressure in the tank,
c) mechanical energy.
186. The primary task of the hydraulic accumulator in the hydrostatic system is:
a) storing energy in the form of pressure of the working fluid,
b) evenly distributing oil to the system receivers,c) regulating the temperature of the working fluid.187. In the hydrostatic system, the energy of the fluid pressure is transmitted to:
a) oil coolers and manometers,
b) hydraulic motors or hydraulic actuators,
c) thermostatic, overflow, and check valves.188. The function of the FOPS protective structure is:
a) protecting the operator from the effects of the machine overturning,b) protecting the operator from the effects of exhaust fumes and noise,
c) protecting the operator from falling objects.
189. The FOPS protective structure must necessarily be used in:
a) underwater work,
b) work where heavy elements may fall on the cabin (e.g., demolition work, in quarries, etc.),
c) all earthworks.190. In a machine equipped with a ROPS or FOPS protective structure, there must exist and be used by the operator an additional safety system, which is:
a) seat belts,
b) safety helmet, safety footwear,c) safety footwear, hearing protection, respiratory protection.191. The ROPS protective structure in a machine:
a) is not required when only qualified machine operators are employed,
b) is always required,
c) is not required when it is not technically possible, and there is a small risk of the machine overturning (possibility of support with a boom).192. Optimal damping of shocks and vibrations of the operator's seat is achieved by:
a) setting the seat rigidly,
b) adjusting the seat to the weight of the operator,
c) as flexible adjustment of the seat as possible.193. Mandatory equipment for the operator to observe the area directly behind the machine is:
a) a sound signal when reversing,b) a rear camera,
c) an external mirror.
194. Together with the operator in the machine's cabin, other people may ride if:
a) the machine is moving at a low speed,b) they have undergone health and safety training with the operator and there are a maximum of 2 people,
c) the manufacturer has installed additional seating.
195. In ROPS-type cabins, additional equipment such as phone holders can be installed independently:
a) remembering that installation is only possible on the cabin posts,
b) provided that there is no interference with the cabin structure,
c) but this equipment must be permanently screwed to the cabin structure.196. The green flash lamp placed on the machine cabin signals, among other things:
a) the machine's eco mode is on,
b) the seat belts are properly fastened,
c) no operator in the cabin.197. In a parallel connection of two identical batteries, the voltage of such a system is:
a) the sum of the voltages of the individual batteries,
b) equal to the voltage of a single battery,
c) the product of the voltages of the individual batteries.198. In a series connection of two identical batteries, the voltage of such a system is:
a) the sum of the voltages of the individual batteries,
b) equal to the voltage of a single battery,c) the product of the voltages of the individual batteries.199. Fuses in the electrical installation of the machine protect it against the effects of:
a) high temperature,
b) short circuits and overloads,
c) low voltage.200. One of the elements of the electrical system protecting the motor from seizing is:
a) speed controller,
b) engine oil pressure sensor,
c) main fuse.201. Gel batteries that are part of the electrical system do not require:
a) charging with a rectifier,b) replacement in case of housing damage,
c) electrolyte replenishment.
202. Electrical systems of machines and technical devices should be equipped with a device that causes emergency stop in at least the following quantity:
a) two devices causing emergency stop placed on both sides of the machine, in accordance with the European Machinery Directive,
b) one device causing emergency stop, in accordance with the European Machinery Directive,
c) three devices causing emergency stop, in accordance with the European Machinery Directive.203. The emergency stop device of a machine is a part of:
a) the electrical system,
b) the fuel system,c) the drive system.204. The main parameters of an internal combustion engine that affect work efficiency are:
a) type of carburetor, type of ignition system,b) compression ratio, displacement,
c) torque, rotational speed.
205. The crank-piston system of an internal combustion engine is designed to:
a) convert the reciprocating motion of the piston into the rotational motion of the crankshaft,
b) convert mechanical energy into hydraulic energy,c) ensure the effective operation of the clutch.206. The lubrication system in an internal combustion engine:
a) is responsible for removing hazardous substances generated in the combustion process of the mixture,
b) is responsible for properly lubricating the moving parts of the engine that work together,
c) provides regulation of the rotational speed and reduces engine vibrations during operation.207. The engine timing system is used for:
a) controlling the filling of the combustion chamber with air or a fuel-air mixture and controlling the emptying of this chamber of exhaust gases,
b) ensuring the optimal composition of the fuel-oil-air mixture for combustion,c) damping noise and minimizing engine vibrations during operation.208. Systems present in internal combustion engines include, among others:
a) exhaust system, pneumatic system, closed system,b) hydraulic system, intake system,
c) crankshaft-piston system, fuel system, cooling system.
209. The low-pressure part of the fuel system in a diesel engine is:
a) fuel lines, high-pressure pump, common rail,
b) fuel tank, supply pump, filters, fuel lines,
c) fuel tank and injectors.210. The element controlling the flow of coolant in the so-called "large circuit" is:
a) thermophore,b) thermocouple,
c) thermostat.
211. Intercooler is:
a) an air cooler for turbocharged engines,
b) a device for burning solid particles in exhaust gases,c) another name for the engine coolant radiator.212. DPF filter:
a) is a dry particulate filter responsible for capturing soot from exhaust gases,
b) is a precise cabin filter protecting the operator during work in high dust conditions,c) is used to reduce NOx (nitrogen oxides) emissions.213. The frequency and scope of periodic maintenance of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam:
a) are included in the IBWR documentation,
b) are included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine,
c) is determined by the owner of the machine/technical device.214. The operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device is:
a) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device, which includes among others IBWR,b) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by the health and safety services on the construction site,
c) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device.
215. The operator of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is not allowed to:
a) check the technical condition of the machine/technical device during operation,
b) use the machine/technical device for purposes other than intended,
c) make any repairs or maintenance.216. A symptom of too low hydraulic oil level may be:
a) "jerky" intermittent movement of hydraulic actuators,
b) loud operation of the starter,c) uneven operation of the diesel engine.217. In the event of detecting tire damage that may pose a threat, the operator should:
a) continue working by reducing the speed and load of the machine,b) notify the supervisor and cautiously continue working,
c) stop working.
218. If the low engine oil pressure warning light comes on, the operator:
a) may continue working if the hydraulic system is functioning properly,
b) should stop working and turn off the engine,
c) does not have to take any action.219. The cause of the machine's loss of stability may be:
a) too low tire pressure,
b) operation of the machine in a suitable location,c) driving on a hardened surface.220. The operating and maintenance manual for the machine/technical device:
a) is used to record information about faults,
b) includes information about hazards during the operation of the machine/technical device,
c) is established by the owner or user of the machine.221. The CE Declaration of Conformity is a document:
a) issued by institutions dealing with testing machines for resistance to weather conditions,
b) in which the manufacturer confirms that their product meets all applicable EU requirements regarding safety, health protection, and the environment,
c) confirming that the product was manufactured in the countries of the European Union.222. Information regarding the use of personal protective equipment and ways to limit the occupational risk the operator can find:
a) in the CE Declaration of Conformity,b) in the service book,
c) in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device.
223. The operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device:
a) is developed by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device or the entity that places the machine/technical device on the market,
b) is created by institutions that conduct testing and accreditation of prototypes of machines/technical devices before allowing them for serial production,c) is created by the construction manager based on information from the manufacturer.224. The operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device:
a) should be kept in the office along with the company's documentation and be available in case of inspection,b) does not matter where it is located, the most important thing is that the owner of the machine has it in case of resale of the machine,
c) should be located in the machine or with the technical device, treated as part of the machine/technical device and be available at any time.
225. Identification data of the machine/technical device:
a) should be noted on the inner side of the protective helmet assigned to the given machine/technical device,
b) are located on the nameplate of the machine/technical device, additionally they may be in the marking places described in the manual,
c) due to their importance are always printed in red.226. To minimize the risk of machine/technical device failure, the operator should:
a) use the machine/technical device until the failure becomes serious,
b) regularly visually assess the condition of the machine/technical device and report any irregularities noticed,
c) perform maintenance activities only when the machine/technical device stops working.227. Key activities for the safe technical operation of the machine are:
a) performing technical service without securing the working equipment to save time,
b) securing the equipment, covers, and doors against accidental closure and using personal protective equipment,
c) using latex gloves, without the need for other personal protective equipment.228. The principles of safe technical servicing of machines are:
a) the engine can remain on to perform servicing faster, especially if the machine is idling,
b) the machine should be positioned on level ground, working equipment lowered to the ground, engine turned off, and the key removed from the ignition,
c) the machine can be left on a slope, as long as the operator plans a short technical service.229. Breaking in the machine during the initial period of operation is:
a) the process of achieving optimal clearances and even wear of parts,
b) the stage of the machine's operation without load,c) an intensive full load test of the machine.230. When driving on public roads, the following turning mode should be used:
a) turning all wheels simultaneously (AWS),b) only the rear wheels turning,
c) only the front wheels turning.
231. The main advantage of AWS mode (steering all wheels simultaneously) is that:
a) it increases the stability of the machine on uneven terrain,
b) it allows for achieving small turning radii,
c) it reduces tire wear during long stretches of driving.232. The operator uses the operating and maintenance manual of the machine or technical device to:
a) record all faults of the machine or device noticed during operation,
b) learn the technical specifications, safety rules, and methods of repairing faults,
c) record the hours worked and fuel consumption by the machine.233. The service part of the operating and maintenance manual of the machine or technical device includes:
a) a catalog of spare parts,b) a detailed description of the construction and operation of all elements of the machine/device,
c) instructions regarding, among others, controlling the machine/device.
234. The operating and maintenance manual must always be present with the machine/device because:
a) it is necessary for periodic technical inspections,
b) its absence may be a reason for the inspector to disallow the machine to operate,
c) it minimizes the risk of it being lost.235. In 'normal' mode, the machine is controlled by:
a) exclusively using the rear wheels, while the front ones are automatically set,
b) the steering wheel via the front wheels, while the rear wheels are kept straight,
c) using a joystick that controls both the front and rear wheels simultaneously.236. The SAE designation on oil refers to:
a) the multi-season qualification of the oil,b) the pressure of the engine oil,
c) the viscosity of the engine oil, which is its ability to flow and lubricate.
237. Oil with the symbol SAE 15W-40 means that:
a) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40,
b) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 15W, and at positive temperatures of summer oil class SAE 40,
c) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 15W.238. Oil with the symbol SAE 10W-30 means that:
a) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 30,
b) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W, and at positive temperatures of summer oil class SAE 30,
c) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W.239. The symbol SAE 10W-30 means:
a) multi-season engine oil with specified parameters,
b) hydraulic oil with specified parameters,c) a mixture of engine oil and hydraulic oil.240. Engine oil with the symbol SAE 5W-40 means that:
a) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40,
b) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 5W, and at positive temperatures of summer oil class SAE 40,
c) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 5W.
241. The symbol of the warning light shown in the graphic means:
a) low coolant level,b) low engine oil pressure,
c) low engine oil level.
242. The symbol of the warning light shown in the graphic means:
a) low fuel level,
b) low engine oil pressure,
c) low coolant level.
243. The symbol shown means:
a) engine oil filter,
b) engine oil,
c) hydraulic oil.
244. The symbol shown means:
a) hydraulic oil level,
b) engine oil level,
c) engine coolant level.245. Oils with designations 70W, 85W, 80W-90 are:
a) brake oils,b) engine oils,
c) gear oils.
246. In the case of the need to dismantle the cover/protection for maintenance, one must not:
a) reassemble the cover/protection,
b) start working with the machine without the cover/protection installed,
c) record such a fact in the documentation.247. The lighting of the battery charging indicator signals to the operator of the construction machine a malfunction of:
a) the starter,b) the battery switch,
c) the V-belt and/or alternator.
248. The operator's seat cannot be adjusted when:
a) the machine is in motion,
b) the engine is not started,c) the seat is turned backwards.249. If during daily technical maintenance before work the operator notices that one of the windows in the cabin is cracked, then:
a) he should not start working,
b) he may start working if it is not the front window,c) he may start working provided that the window is only cracked and has not "fallen out".250. Before starting work, the operator should:
a) install sun shields on the windows,
b) clean the windows by removing snow, ice, and other contaminants,
c) open the windows for better communication.251. When changing hydraulic oils, one should:
a) use any type of oil,b) always use only biodegradable oils,
c) use only types of oils recommended by the machine manufacturer.
252. To ensure the technical efficiency of the working machine, one should:
a) follow technical service and maintenance according to the operating and maintenance instructions,
b) operate the machine/device only under full load,c) operate the machine/device not exceeding 50% of the permissible load.253. On the construction site, empty containers of lubricants, oil filters, and used oils should be:
a) thrown into any waste container,b) thrown into the mixed waste container,
c) placed in a properly marked hazardous waste container.
254. Stickers (pictograms) located on the machine/device serve to:
a) inform about the prohibition of approaching the machine/device,
b) convey important information about safety and the use of the machine/device,
c) indicate places where one can stay without any risk.255. Lubrication points in the machine should be serviced:
a) during all breaks in work,b) always after 10 hours of operation,
c) according to the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine.
256. Engine oil with parameters 5W-50 is:
a) a multi-season oil,
b) a summer oil only,c) a winter oil only.257. Before starting work on a new type of machine/technical device, the operator should:
a) familiarize themselves with the operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device,
b) perform a trial work,c) conduct a periodic inspection.258. OTC service is:
a) round-the-clock technical service,
b) daily technical service,
c) temporary technical service.259. The basic types of services are:
a) daily, periodic, warehouse, transport service,
b) round-the-clock, multi-seasonal, annual, technological service,c) visual, active, passive service.260. Batteries, when starting the machine using a supporting battery, should be connected:
a) in parallel,
b) crosswise,c) in series.261. In the case of electrolyte loss caused by spillage through a cracked battery casing, one should:
a) add electrolyte to the proper level and charge the battery,
b) secure the leak area in terms of environmental protection, and then replace the battery,
c) add demineralized water to a level of 10 mm above the upper edges of the plates.262. The activities performed by the operator as part of daily maintenance during operation include:
a) cleaning the machine,b) replenishing operating fluids and daily lubrication,
c) auditory monitoring of the machine's operation and observing indicators.
263. When inflating a tire of a machine's wheel, one should:
a) not stand directly next to the inflated wheel,
b) stand next to the inflated wheel provided that a safety helmet is worn,c) check the condition of the inflated wheel by observing the deflection of the sidewall of the tire.264. If the manufacturer has provided for operational breaking-in, it should be carried out:
a) with maximum load,b) without load,
c) with the load recommended in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device.
265. During the storage of a machine on a wheeled chassis, the machine's wheels should be:
a) secured with wedges,b) removed from the machine,
c) relieved of load.
266. Driving a machine on public roads should be done in the position:
a) transfer position,b) working position,
c) transport position.
267. When loading the machine onto the transport vehicle, the operator should:
a) approach at a speed of at least 5 [km/h],
b) know the permissible angle of inclination of the loading plates for the given machine,
c) know the maximum speed allowed for the given transport vehicle.268. The responsibility for the placement and securing of the machine on the transport vehicle lies with:
a) the carrier (e.g. driver),
b) the machine operator,c) the owner or the person responsible for machines in the company.269. When storing the machine, one should ensure that:
a) there are no leaks of operating fluids,
b) no documents of the machine are left in the cabin,c) the machine is facing the exit.270. Securing the machine during storage downtime involves:
a) cleaning the machine of dirt and corrosion,
b) filling the hydraulic oil tank to the top,c) disassembling all filters and protecting them from moisture.271. The rods of hydraulic cylinders, during the technical service of the warehouse machine, should be:
a) disassembled and cleaned,b) taken apart and their seals replaced,
c) protected against corrosion.
272. During the loading of the machine onto the transport vehicle:
a) assistance from a second person is recommended,
b) the operator should drive onto the transport vehicle independently,c) assistance from a second person is recommended only when loading onto a low-loader trailer.273. The recommended method for loading heavy working machines onto low-loader trailers is:
a) mechanized loading from the front ramp,
b) loading with ropes,c) loading using other machines.274. During longer storage of the machine, the fuel tank should be:
a) empty, to avoid fire hazards,
b) filled to the top, to prevent condensation of water vapor inside the tank,
c) filled to 1/3 of its capacity and left open.275. During daily operation of the machine, the condition of should be checked:
a) the working pressure values in the hydraulic system,
b) the connections and tightness of the hydraulic system,
c) the tools and equipment.276. If the machine's engine has not been running for a longer time during daily maintenance, you should:
a) check the oil level and other operating fluids,
b) start the engine and gently increase the RPM to reach the operating temperature faster,c) replace the fuel pre-filter.277. When inflating tires on a working machine, the operator should:
a) stand directly in front of the tire to monitor the pressure,
b) stand to the side of the tire tread or on the other side of the machine,
c) ensure that bystanders are nearby.278. Information regarding faults, their codes, and methods of removal can be found in a document called:
a) daily report,b) construction machine book,
c) operating and maintenance manual.
279. The correct order for connecting the auxiliary battery to the discharged battery in the machine is as follows:
a) negative terminal of the machine's battery, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, machine frame,
b) positive terminal of the machine's battery, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, machine frame,
c) machine frame, positive terminal of the machine's battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery.280. In case of electrolyte loss in the battery, you should:
a) top it up with water other than distilled,b) top it up with DOT-3 fluid,
c) top it up with distilled or demineralized water.
281. Checking the charge status of the starting battery 12 [V] by "sparking" poses a risk of:
a) seizing the alternator,b) electric shock from high voltage,
c) explosion of hydrogen escaping from the battery.
282. Before storing wheels in a wheeled machine, it is necessary to:
a) inflate to maximum pressure to prevent tire deformation,b) loosen to reduce the static load on the mounting bolts,
c) relieve to prevent tire deformation.
283. The scope of daily technical service of the machine does not include:
a) checking and adjusting valve clearances,
b) checking the oil level in the engine,c) checking the condition of the tires and tire pressure.284. When cleaning the radiator, to avoid damaging it, one should:
a) use sharp tools for cleaning,b) apply a strong stream of water under high pressure,
c) keep the compressed air nozzle at an appropriate distance from the radiator.
285. The purpose of lubrication in working machines is:
a) to raise the temperature of cooperating elements,
b) to reduce friction,
c) to increase the engine speed.286. The most commonly used type of fuses in electrical installations of working machines is:
a) differential fuses,
b) cartridge fuses,
c) automatic fuses.287. The phenomenon of electrostatic discharge during refueling a machine can lead to:
a) poisoning,b) short circuit of the electrical installation,
c) fire.
288. In the case of connecting two batteries in parallel with different rated voltages:
a) thicker cables should be used than with batteries of the same rated voltages,
b) there may be an explosion of the battery with the lower rated voltage,
c) both batteries may discharge.289. When checking the pressure in a tire, the machine should be:
a) unloaded, and the tire should be cold,
b) started and warmed up,c) loaded to make the measurement more accurate.290. The correct way to connect a battery to a charger during charging is:
a) the positive terminal of the battery to the negative terminal of the charger, the negative terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger,
b) the positive terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger, the negative terminal of the battery to the negative terminal of the charger,
c) the positive terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger, the negative terminal of the charger to the "ground" of the machine.291. After connecting the battery, the terminals should be lubricated with:
a) grease containing molybdenum disulfide,b) graphite grease,
c) technical vaseline.
292. To safely inflate a tire, one should:
a) stand in front of the tire valve while inflating,b) use a short pneumatic hose with a pressure gauge,
c) stand beside the tire tread and use a long pneumatic hose.
293. One of the goals of warehouse management is:
a) repairing damaged machine parts before the next season,b) preparing the machine for transport for the future user,
c) protecting the machine from corrosion and other harmful factors during long-term storage.
294. If during daily technical service the operator notices a leak in the cooling system, they should:
a) report the leak and not use the machine until it is repaired,
b) top up the coolant and continue working,c) organize the fluid and top it up to the minimum level if the leak is small.295. The level of coolant in the expansion tank should be checked:
a) only during periodic technical service,b) only in case of engine overheating,
c) during every daily technical service.
296. If the operator notices a hydraulic fluid leak during daily technical service, he should:
a) top up the oil and continue working,b) reduce the RPM and continue working,
c) report the leak and not use the machine until it is repaired.
297. The frequency of performing periodic technical service depends on:
a) the number of hours worked (engine hours),
b) the production date of the machine,c) the number of completed working cycles.298. If during daily technical service the operator notices a low level of engine oil, he should:
a) start working if the level is not very low and the warning light is not on,b) top up the level with any available oil, even if it is of a different type,
c) top up the oil to the appropriate level.
299. A characteristic activity for seasonal technical service is:
a) checking the charging voltage value,
b) replacing the coolant with one suitable for the season,
c) checking the working pressure value of the hydraulic system.300. The basic service activities that should be performed before starting a diesel engine are:
a) checking the oil level in the gearbox, checking the operation of the working system, checking the operation of the brakes,b) bleeding the fuel system, checking the level of transmission oil, checking the starter,
c) checking the oil level in the engine, checking the coolant level, checking the condition of the air filter.
301. Activities performed as part of daily technical service (OTC) carried out during the operation of the machine include:
a) observation of control and measurement instruments and monitoring the proper operation of the machine using sight, hearing, and smell,
b) primarily organoleptic control of the proper functioning of the machine's working system,c) observation only of control and measurement indicators such as: oil pressure, engine temperature, hydraulic oil temperature.302. We distinguish, among others, the following types of technical services:
a) commissioning, daily, periodic, seasonal, storage, emergency, night,
b) transport, commissioning, daily, periodic, seasonal, storage,
c) transport, commissioning, storage, operational-repair (ON), catalog.303. We perform technical services for the purpose of:
a) maintaining the value of the machine or technical device at a constant, unchanged level,