Pile drivers class II
Study mode
Question of 307
1. What is the minimum allowable distance of the machine from the reach of the wedge of the collapse?
a) 0.6 [m],
b) 0.4 [m],c) 0.8 [m].2. The safe distance of the machine from the excavation is:
a) depth of the excavation + 0.6 [m],
b) reach of the wedge of the collapse + 0.6 [m],
c) 1.6 [m].
3. Based on the provided table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] made in cohesive soils:
a) 1 [m],b) 2.6 [m],
c) 1.6 [m].
4. Based on the provided table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] made in fractured rocks:
a) 3.6 [m],
b) 4.6 [m],c) 2.6 [m].5. Based on the provided table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] made in slightly cohesive soils:
a) 2.6 [m],
b) 3.1 [m],
c) 3.6 [m]. Piling machines Class II6. What is the minimum safe distance from the UPPER edge of the embankment that a machine can approach, given the following data: Soil category - I (dry sand), height of the embankment - h = 2 [m], horizontal distance between the upper and lower edges of the embankment - a = 2.5 [m]?
a) 3.6 [m],
b) 1.1 [m],
c) 0.6 [m].7. What is the minimum safe distance from the UPPER edge of the embankment that a machine can approach, given the following data: Soil category - II (slightly cohesive soils), height of the embankment - h = 4 [m], horizontal distance between the upper and lower edges of the embankment - a = 2.5 [m]?
a) 3.1 [m],
b) 5.6 [m],c) 0.6 [m].8. At what horizontal distance from the outermost wires for power lines with a rated voltage not exceeding 1 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 3 [m],
b) not less than 5 [m],c) not less than 2 [m].9. At what horizontal distance from the outermost wires for power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 5 [m],
b) not less than 15 [m],c) not less than 10 [m].10. At what horizontal distance from the outermost wires for power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 5 [m],b) not less than 15 [m],
c) not less than 10 [m].
11. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?
a) not less than 15 [m],
b) not less than 10 [m],c) not less than 20 [m].12. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?
a) not less than 30 [m],
b) not less than 10 [m],c) not less than 15 [m].13. Is it possible to organize workstations in the danger zone under overhead power lines?
a) yes, always,b) no, never,
c) yes, but only after meeting additional requirements.
14. What is the safe distance X for the operation of a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [V]?
a) not less than 5 [m],
b) not less than 3 [m],
c) not less than 30 [m].15. What is the safe distance X for the operation of a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV]?
a) not less than 10 [m],b) not less than 15 [m],
c) not less than 5 [m].
16. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?
a) no less than 30 [m],b) no less than 15 [m],
c) no less than 10 [m].
17. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?
a) no less than 10 [m],
b) no less than 5 [m],c) no less than 15 [m].18. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV]?
a) no less than 15 [m],
b) no less than 30 [m],c) no less than 50 [m].19. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV]?
a) no less than 30 [m],b) no less than 15 [m],
c) no less than 10 [m].
20. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]?
a) no less than 40 [m],
b) no less than 30 [m],
c) no less than 3 [m].21. Work in the danger zone (overhead high voltage power line):
a) may be carried out provided that the work manager's consent has been obtained,
b) may be carried out provided that the line has been disconnected from the voltage, the work is performed in a zone limited by groundings and at least one grounding is visible from the work site,
c) under no circumstances may be carried out under electrical lines in the danger zone.22. The operator is to perform work at a distance X from the active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [V]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 2 [m],b) 1 [m],
c) 5 [m].
23. The operator is to perform work at a distance X from the active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 5 [m],
b) 15 [m],
c) 3 [m].24. The operator is to perform work at a distance X from the active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 50 [m],
b) 5 [m],c) 15 [m].25. If the injured person has a detectable pulse but is not breathing, then:
a) the airways should be cleared and artificial respiration started,
b) he must not be touched,c) cardiac massage should be performed.26. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, one should primarily:
a) move away from the accident scene to call a doctor,
b) provide assistance to those in life-threatening situations,
c) give medication to the injured.27. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, one should primarily:
a) ensure one's own safety,
b) provide assistance to those in life-threatening situations,c) move away from the accident scene to call a doctor.28. The obligation to provide first aid to accident victims rests with:
a) only those with medical training,
b) everyone, as part of the rescue tasks can always be performed,
c) everyone, but criminal liability always threatens for mistakes made.29. The accident victim regained consciousness after a few minutes and wants to go home. In such a situation, one should:
a) give her something to drink and painkillers,b) allow her to go home, recommending a visit to a doctor,
c) persuade her to stay and call for medical help.
30. First aid in a situation where a foreign body has entered the eye of the injured person consists of:
a) rinsing the eye with eye drops,b) rinsing with distilled water directing the stream to the inside of the eye,
c) rinsing with clean water directing the stream from the nose outward from the eye.
31. The injured person cut their leg on an unsecured sharp element. Providing first aid in this situation is:
a) using sterile gauze, wrapping the wound with a bandage,
b) using a tourniquet,c) sticking a plaster directly on the wound.32. Suspecting spinal injury in a person who has fallen from a height and is conscious, one should:
a) not move them and wait for medical services to arrive,
b) place them in the recovery position,c) sit them in a semi-reclining position.33. To move away from the place where the electric wire has been broken and the area is live, one should:
a) quickly step away from the source of electric shock with large steps, lifting feet high,
b) leave the place slowly, taking small steps, trying to maintain continuous contact of feet with the ground,
c) run as fast as possible to a place that we assess as safe.34. First aid in the case of a first-degree burn is:
a) applying ointment to the burned area,
b) pouring cold water on the burned area,
c) applying greasy cream to the burned area.35. During work, a high voltage power line was broken, as a result of which a colleague was electrocuted. In this situation, the correct behavior is:
a) approach the injured person to provide first aid,b) call other colleagues for help with the injured person,
c) turn off the power source as quickly as possible.
36. We perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation until:
a) the fire brigade arrives and secures the area,b) 10 minutes have passed,
c) we have determined that the victim has started to breathe and circulation has returned.
37. Immediate action in the case of severe bleeding from an injured upper limb includes:
a) lowering the limb below the level of the heart,
b) applying a dressing, directly compressing the bleeding site, and elevating the limb,
c) disinfecting the wound with salicylic alcohol.38. In the case of a nosebleed, one should:
a) tilt the head back and place a cold compress on the neck,b) lay the victim on their back,
c) lean the bleeding person's head forward and pinch the nostrils.
39. The first step in dealing with a carbon monoxide poisoning victim in a closed room is:
a) the quickest possible evacuation of the victim from that room,
b) conducting a preliminary examination,c) assessing ABC.40. First aid during seizures caused by an epileptic attack consists of:
a) placing a wooden object in the victim's mouth to prevent biting the tongue,
b) protecting the victim's head from injuries,
c) seating the victim in a semi-sitting position and giving them something to drink.41. In case of suspected spinal injury in the cervical section in a conscious person, one should:
a) seat the injured person in a chair with a high back,b) place the injured person in a lateral position,
c) not allow the injured person to move their head.
42. The most important thing when a person is buried under earth, sand, or gravel is:
a) notifying the family,
b) locating the injured person,
c) waiting for the arrival of the ambulance.43. First aid for a person with a metal rod embedded in the lower leg involves calling for help and:
a) securing the rod to prevent movement,
b) removing the embedded rod,c) moving the rod to check if the artery has been damaged.44. The indication for using an AED defibrillator is:
a) absence of detectable breathing and pulse in the injured person,
b) severe dizziness,c) severe chest pain.45. During the operation of a machine/technical device, the prohibited actions for which you are taking the exam are:
a) performing daily technical service (OTC),
b) making structural changes to the machine/technical device,
c) changing the working tool.46. During the operation of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam, the prohibited activities are:
a) cleaning the machine/technical device using a product in accordance with the operating and maintenance instructions,b) refueling the machine/technical device from a canister,
c) cleaning the machine/technical device using gasoline or solvents whose vapors can create flammable/explosive gas mixtures with air.
47. When performing earthworks with the machine for which you are taking the exam, it is unacceptable to:
a) have people within the range of the machine's working tool,
b) have people near the machine while performing technical maintenance,c) have people at a distance greater than the sum of the maximum reach of the working tool plus 6 meters.48. When performing work, it is unacceptable to:
a) work near active overhead power lines at a distance less than specified by regulations,
b) work near an active power line with a rated voltage of 20 [kV] at a distance of 15 [m],c) work near an active power line with a rated voltage of 10 [kV] at a distance of 10 [m].49. The machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam may only be operated by:
a) any adult person with technical education and a driver's license of the appropriate category,b) a person with written confirmation of completing a course in the form of a plastic card,
c) a person who has completed training and obtained a positive result on the test conducted by the commission appointed by the Łukasiewicz Research Network – Warsaw Institute of Technology.
50. The rights to operate machines/technical devices for which you are taking the exam are issued by:
a) Łukasiewicz Research Network - Warsaw Institute of Technology (ŁRN - WIT),
b) Office of Technical Inspection (UDT),c) the County Office appropriate for the address of the person applying for the rights.51. Permissions to operate machines/technical devices for which you are taking the exam:
a) are valid indefinitely,
b) are valid for 10 years from the date of issue,c) are valid for 5 years from the date of issue.52. A person holding permissions to operate: "Piling machines class II" can operate based on them:
a) all piling machines and ,b) piling machines and vibration devices for driving and pulling out,
c) all piling machines, but this does not grant permissions for any other machines/technical devices.
53. An employee operating a machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam can start working provided that:
a) the machine/technical device has a valid UDT inspection,
b) has permissions to operate this type of machine/technical device,
c) has a valid category D driving license.54. In the event of a threat to life, health, property, or the environment caused by a malfunction of the machine/technical device, the operator:
a) continues working, but at the end of the shift informs the supervisor about the situation,b) continues working, but at the end of the shift makes an appropriate entry in the maintenance book,
c) immediately stops work and informs the supervisor of this fact.
55. Lifting and transporting people using working equipment:
a) is always prohibited,
b) requires the consent of the construction manager,c) is possible, but only outside the public road area.56. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam has the right to refuse to work when:
a) this work requires special psychophysical fitness, and his psychophysical condition does not ensure its safe performance and poses a threat to others,
b) there is an overhead power line at a distance of 35 meters with a rated voltage of 110 [kV],c) he has the required personal protective equipment.57. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is obliged to stop working when:
a) he has the required personal protective equipment,
b) the work he is performing poses an immediate threat to the health or life of others,
c) there is an overhead power line at a distance of 35 meters.58. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is obliged to:
a) always have a category B driving license,
b) comply with the provisions of the operating and maintenance instructions for the machine/technical device,
c) independently perform all current repairs of the machine/technical device.59. The person directly responsible for the safe operation of the machine for which you are taking the exam is:
a) the construction manager,
b) the machine operator,
c) the owner of the machine.60. The operator's book and qualifications for the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam are issued by:
a) Łukasiewicz Research Network - Warsaw Institute of Technology,
b) Technical Supervision Office (UDT),c) Transport Technical Supervision (TDT).61. The obligation to use personal protective equipment:
a) results only from internal regulations,
b) results from the operating and maintenance instructions and health and safety regulations,
c) does not apply on hot days.62. An employee who witnesses an accident at work:
a) is obliged to assist the victims, notify the supervisor, and if necessary secure the accident site,
b) it is enough to notify the supervisor,c) is obliged to assist the victims and then immediately leave the accident site.63. What elements of the machine you are taking the exam on protect the operator in case the machine tips over:
a) ROPS type machine cabin and safety belts,
b) certified safety helmet and reflective vest,c) machine seat.64. In the event of loss of stability by a machine equipped with a ROPS type cabin, the operator should:
a) try to leave the cabin as quickly as possible (before the machine tips over),
b) maintain a seated position holding firmly to the steering wheel or other stable elements in the cabin,
c) quickly turn left and raise the working equipment as high as possible.65. In the event of loss of stability by a machine equipped with a ROPS type cabin, the operator should:
a) immediately jump out of the cabin,
b) stay in the cabin,
c) turn on the warning/hazard lights.66. The danger zone is defined as:
a) a place where there are threats to health and life of people,
b) a place where employees must only wear protective helmets,c) a place where work requiring specialized equipment is carried out, and the presence of people is only allowed at night.67. The danger zone on a construction site:
a) is designated after the construction work has started,
b) is designated and/or fenced and marked in a way that prevents access to unauthorized persons,
c) is always designated by a surveyor.68. The area that the operator should check and secure before starting work with a machine/technical device (because there are threats to health and life of people) is called:
a) dead zone,
b) danger zone,
c) area of increased risk.69. During the charging of batteries, a gas with highly explosive properties is released. This gas is:
a) hydrogen,
b) ethane,c) methane.70. Firefighting foam can be used to extinguish fires of group:
a) C and D,b) only C,
c) A and B.
71. Improper use of a snow extinguisher can result in:
a) fainting,
b) frostbite caused by the extinguishing agent,
c) burns from the extinguisher components.72. Water, fire blanket, powder extinguisher, carbon dioxide, sand are extinguishing agents that we will use to extinguish:
a) solid bodies,
b) oils,c) liquids.73. We can call sorbents:
a) petroleum-derived substances,
b) materials made from natural or synthetic substances that absorb liquids,
c) fire blankets.74. Group A fires concern:
a) flammable gases,
b) solid bodies whose normal combustion occurs with the formation of glowing coals, e.g. wood, paper, etc.,
c) flammable liquids.75. Group B fires concern:
a) flammable gases,b) metals, e.g. magnesium, sodium, potassium, aluminum, titanium, etc.,
c) flammable liquids and solid materials that melt, e.g. plastics, fuels, oils, etc..
76. Group C fires concern:
a) flammable liquids,b) solid bodies,
c) gases, e.g. methane, propane, acetylene, hydrogen.
77. Seeing such a pictogram you are informed about:
a) a larger number of people in a given area,b) danger zone,
c) a gathering place during evacuation.
78. While working you noticed a sign marked 'Zone 0'. It informs about:
a) a zone of the occurring category of fire hazard,
b) a space where an explosive atmosphere exists,
c) a zone of the occurring fire load in the building.
79. The presented pictogram informs about:
a) internal hydrant,
b) set of fire protection equipment,
c) main power switch.
80. Seeing such a pictogram you are informed about:
a) a gathering place during evacuation,b) a first aid station,
c) an emergency exit.
81. Seeing such a pictogram you are informed about:
a) the prohibition of using the fire extinguisher,
b) the location of the fire extinguisher,
c) the high temperature affecting the fire extinguisher.82. You see a person whose clothing is on fire and who, in panic, is running away. Your reaction is:
a) you try to stop him, lay him on the ground and start extinguishing,
b) you tell him to wait in an upright position for the arrival of rescue services,c) you wave your arms or outer covering strongly next to him to extinguish the burning clothing.83. Electrical devices and installations can be extinguished using:
a) powder or snow extinguishers,
b) water,c) foam extinguishers.84. Burning fuel can be extinguished using:
a) water,
b) powder, foam or snow extinguishers,
c) low-octane ethylene.85. Clothing on a person that is on fire can be extinguished using:
a) water mist extinguisher or fire blanket,
b) plastic material,c) snow or powder extinguisher.86. What obligations does an employee have when they decide to refrain from work due to health and safety regulations?
a) Must immediately notify the supervisor,
b) Has no obligations in this situation,c) Should organize work for others.87. How can an operator prevent hazards in the workplace?
a) By not reporting faults in machines,
b) By using personal protective equipment to minimize risk,
c) By ignoring health and safety rules.88. It is not permissible to position a workstation directly under active overhead power lines or at a horizontal distance from the outermost conductors of less than:
a) for all voltages - 1 [m] from the power line,
b) for lines: 1 [kV] - 3 [m], 15 [kV] - 5 [m], 30 [kV] - 10 [m], 110 [kV] - 15 [m], 400 [kV] - 30 [m],
c) for lines: 1 [kV] - 1 [m], 15 [kV] - 3 [m], 30 [kV] - 5 [m], 110 [kV] - 10 [m].89. How does the operator know what personal protective equipment is required for a given machine/technical device?
a) Information about necessary personal protective equipment is included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine,
b) The operator must independently choose the appropriate protective measures,c) The choice of personal protective equipment depends on the opinions of colleagues at work.90. The operator should refuse to perform a task when:
a) the work is being done at night,
b) the work is inconsistent with the intended use of the machine/technical device,
c) the work requires familiarization with the location of underground and above-ground utilities.91. The operator can prevent hazards while operating a machine/technical device by:
a) adhering to health and safety rules and following the operating instructions,
b) limiting the use of personal protective equipment,c) inattention and routine.92. Which of the following situations is unacceptable during the use of a machine/technical device?
a) The presence of unauthorized persons in the danger zone caused by the operation of the machine/technical device,
b) Reporting faults directly to the supervisor,c) Operating the machine without supervision.93. An accident at work is considered to be:
a) a long-term event related to the work performed, caused by an internal reason, resulting in equipment damage,b) a sudden event unrelated to the work performed, caused by an external reason, resulting in injury or death,
c) a sudden event related to the work performed, caused by an external reason, resulting in injury or death.
94. A fatal accident at work is considered to be an accident in which death occurred:
a) more than 6 months after the date of the accident,b) only at the moment of the accident,
c) within a period not exceeding 6 months from the date of the accident.
95. It is prohibited to:
a) operate a machine after completing training and obtaining the appropriate qualifications,
b) allow unauthorized persons within the reach of the machine's operation and work on slopes exceeding the permissible incline,
c) report noticed faults to the supervisor before starting work.96. When getting on and off the machine, it is prohibited to:
a) intensively use the handrails and steps,
b) use the control lever as support,
c) face the machine while getting on and off.97. Health and safety regulations require:
a) performing a warranty inspection of the working machine before the end of the year from its purchase,
b) securing the working machine during breaks in its operation against accidental activation by unauthorized persons,
c) scrapping the old working machine within the time specified in its operating and maintenance manual, while adhering to the requirements for the disposal of hazardous materials.98. In the event of a person being electrocuted:
a) immediate resuscitation should be initiated, regardless of whether the power source has been disconnected,
b) do not touch the victim until the power source is disconnected,
c) it is recommended to use any tools to disconnect the power, regardless of their actual purpose.99. Seeing a person whose clothing is on fire, the first thing to do is:
a) cut off the air supply by rolling the victim or wrapping them in a fire blanket, wet clothing, or a wet blanket,
b) leave the victim standing to facilitate air access and extinguish the flames faster,c) use a fire extinguisher, preferably a snow extinguisher, to extinguish the burning clothing, and then try to quickly remove the melted clothing.100. A soil block:
a) occurs when the slope of the embankment exceeds the angle of repose of the natural soil,
b) occurs only when the soil is in a frozen state,c) is the area around the working machine extending a distance of 6 [m] beyond its farthest reach.101. The range of the soil wedge:
a) depends on the speed of the machine's operation and the operator's efficiency,b) depends solely on the soil temperature,
c) depends on the depth of the excavation and the type of soil.
102. The angle of natural slope is:
a) the angle at which the machine can be safely operated - it depends on the parameters of the specific machine,
b) the maximum slope at which the soil can remain stable without sliding - it depends, among other things, on the type of soil,
c) the angle at which the soil will definitely slide on its own - it depends solely on the temperature of that soil.103. The soil wedge:
a) occurs when the slope angle exceeds the natural slope angle of the soil - its range depends on the type of soil and the depth of the excavation or the height of the slope,
b) is the space around the machine, dependent on the machine's working speed and its weight,c) is the zone where the soil becomes unstable - its range depends solely on the depth of the excavation, the type of soil does not matter here.104. The angle of natural slope is:
a) the maximum slope at which the soil can remain stable without sliding - it depends on the type of soil, e.g., moisture, cohesiveness, and granulation,
b) the angle at which the machine can safely move on the embankment, regardless of the type of soil,c) the slope at which any embankment becomes unstable, regardless of the type of soil.105. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is performed:
a) when the victim is breathing but is unconscious and unresponsive,
b) when the victim is not breathing and there is no detectable pulse. For a non-professional rescuer, the absence of breathing is a sufficient reason to start resuscitation,
c) only in cases of fainting and minor injuries, to improve blood circulation.106. An employee has the right to refrain from performing work due to health and safety regulations, notifying their supervisor immediately in case:
a) the working conditions do not pose a threat, but are too difficult for them,b) the work they are performing has not been reported to the construction supervision,
c) the working conditions pose a direct threat to health or life.
107. Physical factors generating hazards in the workplace are:
a) lack of appropriate medical examinations for the employee,b) lack of or improper training for employees,
c) spilled lubricants, oils, and fuels.
108. Working with a machine/technical device is unacceptable when:
a) the second operator has not reported an upcoming inspection,b) its repair was carried out after dark,
c) it is malfunctioning.
109. Working near overhead power lines:
a) always requires de-energizing the line,b) always requires double grounding of the line,
c) is possible without meeting additional requirements provided that certain distances depending on the rated voltage of the line are maintained.
110. The operator is obliged to refuse to undertake work if:
a) the working machine is malfunctioning,
b) they would have to work under power lines, and the voltage in them has been turned off and the line grounded,c) there is no construction manager or any other person authorized to supervise at the work site.111. The danger zone of a machine/technical device is:
a) always the entire fenced construction site,b) a place where the machine/technical device cannot be used,
c) a place where there are hazards to health or life of people.
112. Accidents at work resulting from the poor technical condition of the working machine may involve, for example:
a) failure of the drive system,
b) injury to a limb, torso, or head,
c) damage to the equipment.113. Unacceptable behaviors are:
a) operating a faulty machine and working under the influence of alcohol,
b) performing daily maintenance of the machine after dark,c) working after dark in a well-lit place, with full concentration of the operator.114. General rules for safely getting on and off the machine are:
a) a person should face the machine, remember the "three-point support" principle, and use only specially made steps and handrails,
b) it is permissible to step back from the machine, but only when the steps are slippery,c) using cables and levers as aids for getting on is allowed when the machine is turned off.115. Basic employee responsibilities regarding OHS are:
a) not being late for work, finishing on time, confirming presence at work in the manner accepted by the employer,b) enforcing labor code regulations regarding their rights, including payment for overtime worked,
c) adhering to OHS regulations and principles, taking care of the condition of machines and tools, maintaining order in the workplace, and using personal protective equipment.
116. In the case of a person electrocuted, after disconnecting the power source, one should:
a) check the condition of the victim, and if necessary: call for help, clear the airways, perform resuscitation, and use an AED if available,
b) move the victim to another location as quickly as possible,c) leave the victim if they have regained consciousness, without further actions.117. After extinguishing flames on a person with burns and calling for help, one should:
a) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes, previously removing any melted clothing,b) use a snow extinguisher to cool the burn areas,
c) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes, without removing any melted clothing.
118. If the operator notices faults that may prevent the proper operation of the machine, they should:
a) continue working and repair the machine after completing the task,b) ignore the faults if the machine is currently operating correctly,
c) be obliged to refuse to start the machine and report this fact to the supervisor.
119. Seeing such a pictogram, you are informed about:
a) a place to perform AED,b) a place where a first aid kit is available,
c) a place where an external automatic defibrillator is available.
120. Properly performed cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) consists of:
a) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 30-60 times per minute to a depth of 1–3 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 15 compressions (breaths are mandatory),
b) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 100-120 times per minute to a depth of 5–6 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 30 compressions (breaths are not mandatory),
c) connecting an external automatic defibrillator (AED) and following its instructions; CPR is not performed without an AED.121. The abbreviation IBWR stands for:
a) Instruction for Non-Failure Execution of Works,b) Instruction for Non-Failure Execution of Works,
c) Instruction for Safe Execution of Works.
122. Expand the abbreviation IBWR:
a) Instruction for Safe Execution of Works,
b) Information on Safe Execution of Works,c) Implementation of Non-Failure Execution of Works.123. The Instruction for Safe Execution of Construction Works is:
a) a plan of the route in construction works,
b) a document containing information regarding safety on the construction site,
c) a document confirming qualifications for operating machines and technical devices in earthworks, construction, and road works.124. The BIOZ plan stands for:
a) plan for Safe Health Protection Instruction,
b) plan for Safety and Health Protection,
c) plan for Safety and Resource Specification.
125. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 1.6 [m],
b) 1 [m],
c) 4 [m].126. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 1.6 [m],b) 1 [m],
c) 1.5 [m].
127. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 1 [m],
b) 0.5 [m],
c) 1.6 [m].128. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 1 [m],
b) 1.6 [m],c) 2 [m].129. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 2 [m],
b) 1.6 [m],c) 1 [m].130. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 3 [m],
b) 2 [m],c) 1 [m].131. The reach of the wedge of the block for an excavation with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 3 [m],b) 2.6 [m],
c) 4 [m].
132. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 2.6 [m],b) 1 [m],
c) 1.6 [m].
133. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 3.6 [m],
b) 2.1 [m],
c) 6.6 [m].134. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 2 [m],b) 4.6 [m],
c) 2.6 [m].
135. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 1.1 [m],
b) 2 [m],c) 2.6 [m].136. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category III (cracked rocks) is:
a) 1.6 [m],
b) 2.6 [m],c) 2 [m].137. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category III (cracked rocks) is:
a) 2.6 [m],
b) 2 [m],c) 4.6 [m].138. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category III (cracked rocks) is:
a) 2.1 [m],b) 3 [m],
c) 3.6 [m].
139. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category III (cracked rocks) is:
a) 4 [m],b) 2.6 [m],
c) 4.6 [m].
140. In a situation of danger, when the cabin doors cannot be opened:
a) one must not leave the cabin until help arrives,b) the space after removing the floor panel can be used as an emergency exit,
c) the emergency exit provided by the manufacturer should be used.
141. In the case of mechanical damage to the FOPS/ROPS cabin (e.g. denting of a cabin element) the operator:
a) can continue working if the cabin windows are intact,
b) should stop working and report the failure to the supervisor or the person responsible in the company for the machines,
c) can repair the damage on their own without wasting time on downtime.142. In the case of mechanical damage to the FOPS/ROPS cabin (e.g. denting of a cabin element) the operator:
a) cannot repair such damage on their own,
b) can repair such damage on their own, but only based on the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine,c) can always repair such damage on their own.143. If the seat belt is damaged, one should:
a) report the damage and not start working until the belt is repaired or replaced,
b) exercise special caution while performing work,c) continue working and report the problem after finishing work.144. The operator must wear a safety helmet while operating the machine when:
a) working on demolition tasks using long booms,b) frequently leaning out of the cabin during work,
c) working in a machine not equipped with a closed cabin.
145. Entering and exiting the machine should be done:
a) backwards to the machine, using a three-step ladder,b) entering sideways while being careful of the devices in the cabin,
c) facing the machine, maintaining three points of contact.
146. The operator of the machine should know the category of the soil on which he works:
a) to calculate the safe distance for setting up the machine and the reach of the wedge of the collapse,
b) to know the requirements for operating the machine's chassis,c) to be able to assess the depth of the excavation.147. Piles in constructions are intended to:
a) transfer loads to deeper layers of soil,
b) separate different categories of soil,c) protect against surface erosion.148. In the context of construction, a "pile" is:
a) an element used to define the boundaries of the construction site,b) a tool for checking the stability of foundations,
c) a longitudinal element made of materials such as wood, concrete, or reinforced concrete that transfers load to deeper layers of the substrate.
149. A pile transfers load to the ground:
a) only through the feet, on the basis of point pressure,
b) through the feet, side members, or collectively through the feet and side members,
c) exclusively through the side members, due to lateral friction with the ground.150. The walking chassis in pile drivers is used:
a) exclusively in water conditions,b) on hardened surfaces, such as asphalt roads,
c) mainly in areas with complicated topography.
151. A major advantage of a tracked chassis in difficult terrain conditions is that:
a) it speeds up work on all surfaces,b) it provides high pressure on the ground,
c) it provides low pressure on the ground.
152. An unauthorized action during the piling process is:
a) carrying out work in limited visibility, but with additional lighting,b) operating the piling machine away from areas at risk of landslides,
c) moving the mast while the piling machine is in motion.
153. A correct action during the piling process is:
a) operating the machine while maintaining a safe distance from the edge of the cliff and excavations,
b) operating the machine while standing on the tracks of the machine,c) moving the mast while the machine is moving on the construction site.154. It is possible to operate the machine with the cabin doors open:
a) always,
b) only if the operating and maintenance manual of the machine allows for such possibility,
c) only if the air temperature exceeds 25 [°C].155. Disconnecting the hydraulic-powered working equipment from the quick coupler is related to:
a) zeroing the hydraulic system,
b) venting the hydraulic system,c) relieving pressure from the central lubrication system.156. The type of interchangeable working equipment used depends on whether:
a) the machine has undergone a periodic inspection,b) the equipment has a CE certificate,
c) the equipment is approved for use by the machine manufacturer.
157. Positioning the mast of the working system is used for:
a) determining the exact position in the event of a collision with underground infrastructure,
b) maintaining the proper working direction of the equipment,
c) securing against sliding into the excavation.158. Before starting work, it is necessary to ensure a stable base for the working position and:
a) anchoring the machine with ropes,b) performing a preliminary drilling,
c) performing mast positioning.
159. The task of the drilling fluid is:
a) carrying cuttings,
b) flushing the working system after work,c) increasing soil moisture.160. Permissible geometric deviations for piles are:
a) up to 5 [cm] on the plan and deviation from vertical up to 1.5 [%],
b) 5-10 [cm] on the plan and deviation from vertical 2 [%],c) 5 [cm] on the plan and deviation from vertical 5 [%].161. The advantages of drilled piles by Strauss and Wolfsholz are:
a) the possibility of installing piles without concrete batching,
b) the possibility of use in tight spaces and no vibrations,
c) fast execution time and lower cost.162. For the construction of displacement piles, one can use:
a) only concrete and steel,
b) wood, cast iron, concrete, steel, and various injection materials,
c) only wood and concrete.163. The continuous auger in CFA pile technology is designed to:
a) displace soil under the pile base,b) increase the stability of the machine,
c) screw to full depth, creating a hole for injecting concrete.
164. The Franki pile installation technology consists of:
a) driving a steel casing pipe with a plug at the bottom, and then filling it with concrete,
b) using a special prefabricated pile,c) using a special hydraulic hammer for driving piles.165. Casing pipes used in Franki pile technology:
a) most often have a diameter of about 400-600 [mm],
b) most often have a diameter of about 1.5-2 [m],c) always have a length of 6 [m].166. The course of underground site preparation must be marked before the work begins in order to:
a) save time and reduce earthwork costs,b) allow for quick movement of machines in any direction,
c) avoid the risk of damaging the network during work.
167. The procedure for concreting a Wolfsholz pile consists of:
a) concrete is laid in layers and compacted on the surface by vibrators,
b) concrete is compacted with compressed air, which presses it against the surrounding soil and increases the load-bearing capacity of the pile,
c) concrete is mixed with groundwater directly in the hole while pulling out the casing pipe.168. "Gravel piles" is a method that involves:
a) forming columns of gravel compacted during the removal of the casing,
b) forming gravel into columns in holes drilled directly in the ground,c) driving a tightly closed pipe filled with gravel.169. "Micropiles" are:
a) needle systems that are screwed in,b) piles in a small quantity at one installation site,
c) drilled piles with a diameter of less than 300 [mm].
170. The technique for performing CFA piles consists of:
a) driving a reinforced concrete pile to the desired depth,
b) creating a hole with a drill, without casing, and then filling the hole with concrete,
c) creating a reinforced pile in a casing pipe.171. The execution of gravel columns is:
a) a method of improving soil bearing capacity,
b) a method of improving soil permeability for faster drainage,c) a method of strengthening existing pillars of bridge structures.172. Vibroflotation is a method used in:
a) the execution of gravel columns,
b) the execution of impermeable walls,c) piling of photovoltaic farms.173. Which of the listed elements are not part of the hydraulic system:
a) pump, distributor, actuator,b) hydraulic lock, hydraulic oil tank,
c) starter, alternator.
174. The hydraulic lock in a machine is:
a) a valve responsible for controlling the entire hydraulic system,
b) a valve protecting against uncontrolled movement of an element in a given line,
c) a closure of the hydraulic oil inlet at its tank.175. The change in hydraulic oil pressure into mechanical motion is caused by:
a) hydraulic distributor,b) hydraulic pump system,
c) hydraulic actuator and hydraulic motor.
176. The pressure in the hydraulic system is generated by:
a) hydraulic pump,
b) hydraulic motor,c) hydraulic actuator.177. Directing the flow of hydraulic oil to individual systems is carried out by:
a) relief valve,
b) hydraulic distributor,
c) hydraulic lock.178. The safety valve protects the hydraulic system from:
a) air in the hydraulic system,b) overheating of the hydraulic oil,
c) excessive pressure increase.
179. The relief valve in the hydraulic system is responsible for:
a) maintaining a constant position of the working tool,
b) limiting the maximum working pressure in a given circuit,
c) venting the system.180. If the pressure in the hydraulic system increases excessively, the excess oil will be directed to:
a) hydraulic oil tank,
b) hydraulic oil filter,c) distributor.181. The basic parameters that characterize an electric battery are:
a) rated voltage [V], capacity [Ah], starting current [A],
b) rated voltage [V], power [W], weight [kg],c) rated voltage [V], resistance [Ω], power [W].182. Lead-acid batteries can be charged:
a) in any room,
b) in a place specifically designated for this purpose,
c) only in an air-conditioned room.183. In a working machine, the reduction gear is most often located:
a) in the hydraulic system, near the main pump,
b) in the drive system near the driving wheels,
c) in the operator's cabin, near the drive controller.184. The main function of the reduction gear (side gearbox) is:
a) to increase the stability of the machine,b) to reduce fuel consumption,
c) to change the torque and transfer drive to the driving wheels.
185. The hydraulic distributor:
a) increases the torque in the side gearbox,
b) directs the flow of hydraulic oil to the appropriate sections,
c) converts mechanical energy into hydraulic energy.186. The hydraulic distributor is a technical device that:
a) distributes oil between the engine and the hydraulic system,b) distributes oil between the small circuit and the large circuit,
c) allows control of individual hydraulic sections of the machine.
187. The ROPS cabin in construction machines protects the operator from:
a) being hit by falling objects from above,b) dust in the operator's cabin,
c) crushing in the event of the machine overturning.
188. The ROPS cabin in construction machines protects against:
a) the machine falling from a slope and rolling over,b) the machine overturning,
c) crushing the operator in the event of the machine overturning.
189. In protective cabins of the ROPS and FOPS type, safety is ensured by structural elements such as:
a) ventilation system in ROPS and additional protective windows in FOPS,
b) strong frame in ROPS and reinforced shell in FOPS,
c) reinforced shell in ROPS and strong frame in FOPS.190. The difference between the ROPS cabin and the FOPS cabin is that:
a) the ROPS cabin protects against falling objects from above, while FOPS protects against crushing,
b) the ROPS cabin protects against crushing, while FOPS protects against falling objects from above,
c) the ROPS cabin protects against noise, while FOPS protects against the machine overturning.191. The basic condition for ROPS and FOPS cabins to provide effective protection to the operator is:
a) fastening the seat belts by the operator,
b) regular maintenance of the cabin,c) lubricating the cabin joints at least once a week.192. Drilling additional holes in the structure of a ROPS cabin is prohibited because:
a) it causes a decrease in the strength of the structure,
b) it reduces the comfort of the operator's work,c) it decreases the weight of the machine.193. Counterweights placed in the body of the pile driver:
a) provide stability to the machine by balancing forces during pile drilling,
b) drive the working mechanism,c) reduce friction between the body and the chassis.194. In the case of a pile driver, we define the 'basic machine' as:
a) the working equipment mounted on the chassis,
b) the body and chassis without mounted working equipment,
c) only the chassis frame and the operator's cabin.195. The flow and direction of hydraulic fluid in the system are regulated by:
a) hydraulic valves,
b) hydraulic pumps,c) hydraulic motors.196. System elements, such as actuators and hydraulic motors, convert hydraulic energy into:
a) mechanical energy,
b) pressure in the tank,c) electrical energy.197. The primary task of the hydraulic accumulator in the hydrostatic system is:
a) regulating the temperature of the working fluid,b) evenly distributing oil to the system receivers,
c) storing energy in the form of pressure of the working fluid.
198. In the hydrostatic system, the pressure energy of the fluid is transmitted to:
a) thermostatic, overflow, and check valves,
b) hydraulic motors or hydraulic actuators,
c) oil coolers and pressure gauges.199. The function of the FOPS protective structure is:
a) protecting the operator from the effects of machine overturning,b) protecting the operator from the effects of exhaust gases and noise,
c) protecting the operator from falling objects.
200. The FOPS protective structure must be used when:
a) performing work where heavy elements may fall on the cabin (e.g., demolition work, in quarries, etc.),
b) all earthworks,c) underwater work.201. In a machine equipped with a ROPS or FOPS protective structure, there must be an additional safety system used by the operator, which is:
a) protective footwear, hearing protectors, respiratory protection,
b) seat belts,
c) protective helmet, protective footwear.202. The ROPS protective structure in a machine:
a) is not required when only qualified machine operators are employed,
b) is always required,
c) is not required when it is not technically possible, and there is a low risk of the machine overturning (possibility of support with a boom).203. Optimal shock and vibration damping of the operator's seat is achieved by:
a) as flexible seat adjustment as possible,
b) adjusting the seat to the weight of the operator,
c) setting the seat rigidly.204. Mandatory equipment for the operator to observe the area directly behind the machine is:
a) external mirror,
b) sound signal when reversing,c) rear camera.205. Together with the operator in the machine's cabin, other people may ride if:
a) they have undergone health and safety training with the operator and there are a maximum of 2 people,b) the machine is moving at a low speed,
c) the manufacturer has installed an additional seat.
206. The most important element of the operator's cabin equipment from the perspective of his safety is:
a) mirror or camera,
b) seat belt,
c) emergency STOP button.207. Mirrors and rearview cameras in the machine are used for:
a) checking the technical condition of the machine,b) facilitating the maneuvering of working equipment,
c) improving the operator's visibility and increasing safety.
208. In ROPS-type cabins, additional equipment such as phone holders can be installed independently:
a) but this equipment must be permanently screwed to the cabin structure,b) remembering that installation is only possible on the cabin pillars,
c) provided that there is no interference with the cabin structure.
209. A green flashing light placed on the machine's cabin signals, among other things:
a) the machine's eco mode is activated,b) no operator in the cabin,
c) correct fastening of the seat belts.
210. When two identical batteries are connected in parallel, the voltage of such a system is:
a) the product of the voltages of the individual batteries,b) the sum of the voltages of the individual batteries,
c) equal to the voltage of a single battery.
211. In a series connection of two identical batteries, the voltage of such a system is:
a) the sum of the voltages of the individual batteries,
b) equal to the voltage of a single battery,c) the product of the voltages of the individual batteries.212. Fuses in the electrical installation of the machine protect it from the effects of:
a) high temperature,b) low voltage,
c) short circuits and overloads.
213. One of the elements of the electrical system protecting the motor from seizing is:
a) engine oil pressure sensor,
b) speed controller,c) main fuse.214. Gel batteries that are part of the electrical system do not require:
a) replacement when the housing is damaged,
b) electrolyte replenishment,
c) charging with a rectifier.215. Electrical systems of machines and devices should be equipped with a device that causes emergency stop in at least the amount of:
a) three devices causing emergency stop, according to the European machinery directive,
b) one device causing emergency stop, according to the European machinery directive,
c) two devices causing emergency stop placed on both sides of the machine, according to the European machinery directive.216. The emergency stop device of the machine is a component of:
a) the drive system,b) the fuel system,
c) the electrical system.
217. The main parameters of the internal combustion engine that affect work efficiency are:
a) compression ratio, displacement,
b) torque, rotational speed,
c) type of carburetor, type of ignition system.218. The crank-piston system of the internal combustion engine is designed to:
a) ensure the effective operation of the clutch,b) convert mechanical energy into hydraulic energy,
c) convert the reciprocating motion of the piston into the rotational motion of the crankshaft.
219. The lubrication system in the internal combustion engine:
a) provides regulation of the rotational speed and reduces engine vibrations during operation,b) is responsible for removing hazardous substances generated in the combustion process of the mixture,
c) is responsible for the proper lubrication of the moving elements of the engine that work together.
220. The engine timing system is used for:
a) damping noise and minimizing engine vibrations during operation,b) ensuring the optimal composition of the fuel-oil-air mixture for combustion,
c) controlling the filling of the combustion chamber with air or fuel-air mixture and controlling the emptying of this chamber of exhaust gases.
221. The systems present in internal combustion engines include:
a) crankshaft-piston system, fuel system, cooling system,
b) exhaust system, pneumatic system, closed system,c) hydraulic system, intake system.222. The low-pressure part of the fuel system of a diesel engine is:
a) fuel tank and injectors,
b) fuel tank, supply pump, filters, fuel lines,
c) fuel lines, high-pressure pump, common rail.223. The element controlling the flow of coolant in the so-called "large circuit" is:
a) thermocouple,
b) thermostat,
c) heat exchanger.224. An intercooler is:
a) an air cooler for turbocharged engines,
b) another name for the engine coolant radiator,c) a device for burning solid particles in exhaust gases.225. The DPF filter:
a) is a dry particulate filter responsible for capturing soot from exhaust gases,
b) is used to reduce NOx (nitrogen oxides) emissions,c) is a precise cabin filter protecting the operator while working in high dust conditions.226. The frequency and scope of periodic maintenance of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam:
a) is determined by the owner of the machine/technical device,
b) is included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine,
c) is included in the IBWR documentation.227. The operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device is:
a) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device,
b) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device, which includes among others IBWR,c) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by the health and safety services on the construction site.228. The operator of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is not allowed to:
a) use the machine/technical device contrary to its intended purpose,
b) check the technical condition of the machine/technical device during operation,c) make any repairs or maintenance.229. A symptom of too low a level of hydraulic oil may be:
a) loud operation of the starter,b) uneven operation of the diesel engine,
c) "jerky" intermittent movement of hydraulic actuators.
230. If the warning light for too low engine oil pressure comes on, the operator:
a) may continue working if the hydraulic system is functioning properly,b) does not have to take any action,
c) should stop working and turn off the engine.
231. Operating and maintenance instructions for the machine/technical device:
a) is established by the owner or user of the machine,b) is used to record information about faults,
c) includes, among other things, information about hazards during the operation of the machine/technical device.
232. The CE Declaration of Conformity is a document:
a) in which the manufacturer confirms that their product meets all applicable EU requirements regarding safety, health protection, and environmental protection,
b) confirming that the product was manufactured in the countries of the European Union,c) issued by institutions that test machines for resistance to weather conditions.233. Information regarding the use of personal protective equipment and ways to limit the occupational risk the operator can find:
a) in the service book,
b) in the operating and maintenance instructions for the machine/technical device,
c) in the CE Declaration of Conformity.234. The operating and maintenance instructions for the machine/technical device:
a) are created by the construction manager based on information from the manufacturer,
b) are developed by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device or the entity that introduces the machine/technical device to the market,
c) are created by institutions that conduct testing and accreditation of machine/technical device prototypes before allowing them for serial production.235. The operating and maintenance instructions for the machine/technical device:
a) do not matter where they are located, the most important thing is that the owner of the machine has them in case of resale of the machine,
b) should be located in the machine or with the device, treated as part of the machine/technical device and be available at any time,
c) should be located in the office together with the company's documentation and be available in case of inspection.236. Identification data of the machine/technical device:
a) are located on the nameplate of the machine/technical device, additionally they may be in the marking places described in the manual,
b) should be noted on the inner side of the protective helmet assigned to the given machine/technical device,c) due to their importance are always printed in red.237. To minimize the risk of machine/technical device failure, the operator should:
a) use the machine/technical device until the failure becomes serious,b) perform maintenance activities only when the machine/technical device stops working,
c) regularly visually assess the condition of the machine/technical device and report any noticed irregularities.
238. Key activities for the safe technical operation of the machine are:
a) using latex gloves, without the need for other personal protective equipment,b) performing technical service without securing the working equipment to save time,
c) securing the equipment, covers, and doors against accidental closure and using personal protective equipment.
239. The principles of safe technical servicing of machines are:
a) the machine can be left on a sloped area, as long as the operator plans a short technical service,b) the engine can remain on to perform the service faster, especially if the machine is running idle,
c) the machine should be positioned on level ground, working equipment lowered to the ground, engine turned off, and the key removed from the ignition.
240. Breaking in the machine during the initial period of operation is:
a) the process of achieving optimal clearances and even wear of parts,
b) the stage of the machine's operation without load,c) an intensive test of the machine under full load.241. During the arrival of the machine, the operator should pay attention to:
a) limit the load of the machine to the level specified in the operation and maintenance manual,
b) always turn off the lubrication systems before work,c) operate at maximum load.242. The operator uses the operation and maintenance manual of the machine or technical device to:
a) record all faults of the machine or device noticed during operation,
b) learn the technical specifications, health and safety rules, and methods of repairing faults,
c) record the hours worked and fuel consumption by the machine.243. The operational part of the operation and maintenance manual of the machine or device contains:
a) a detailed description of the construction and operation of all elements of the machine/device,
b) instructions regarding, among others, controlling the machine/device,
c) a catalog of spare parts.244. The operation and maintenance manual must always be present with the machine/device because:
a) its absence may be the reason for the inspector not allowing the machine to operate,
b) it minimizes the risk of it being lost,c) it is essential for periodic technical inspections.245. Maintaining the appropriate tension of the tracks in the pile driver is very important because:
a) the appropriate tension increases the efficiency of the distributor's work,
b) incorrect tension can lead to the tracks slipping or damage to the running gear,
c) incorrect tension causes improper operation of the hydraulic motors.246. As part of the maintenance of the tracked chassis of pile drivers, it is necessary to regularly check:
a) only the condition of the running rollers,
b) the tension of the tracks, the oil level in the gearboxes, the condition of the chassis, the presence of leaks, and any damage,
c) only the tension of the tracks and the condition of the tensioning wheel.247. The SAE designation on oil refers to:
a) the viscosity of engine oil, that is, its ability to flow and lubricate,
b) the pressure of engine oil,c) the multi-season qualification of the oil.248. Oil with the symbol SAE 15W-40 means that:
a) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 15W, and at positive temperatures of summer oil class SAE 40,
b) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40,c) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 15W.249. Oil with the symbol SAE 10W-30 means that:
a) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W, and at positive temperatures of summer oil class SAE 30,
b) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W,c) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 30.250. The symbol SAE 10W-30 means:
a) multi-season engine oil with specified parameters,
b) a mixture of engine oil and hydraulic oil,c) hydraulic oil with specified parameters.251. Engine oil with the symbol SAE 5W-40 means that:
a) at negative temperature it has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40,
b) at negative temperature it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 5W, and at positive temperature of summer oil class SAE 40,
c) at positive temperature it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 5W.
252. The symbol of the warning light shown in the graphic means:
a) low engine oil pressure,
b) low engine oil level,
c) low coolant level.
253. The symbol of the warning light shown in the graphic means:
a) low fuel level,b) low coolant level,
c) low engine oil pressure.
254. The symbol of the light shown means:
a) hydraulic oil,
b) engine oil,
c) engine oil filter.
255. The symbol of the light shown means:
a) hydraulic oil level,b) engine coolant level,
c) engine oil level.
256. Oils marked 70W, 85W, 80W-90 are:
a) brake oils,b) engine oils,
c) gear oils.
257. In the case of the need to dismantle the cover/protection for maintenance, it is not allowed to:
a) reattach the cover/protection,b) record such a fact in the documentation,
c) start working with the device without the cover/protection installed.
258. The lighting of the battery charging indicator signals to the operator of the construction machine a failure of:
a) the battery switch,b) the starter,
c) the V-belt and/or alternator.
259. The operator's seat cannot be adjusted when:
a) the machine is in motion,
b) the engine is not started,c) the seat is turned backwards.260. If during daily technical maintenance before work the operator notices that one of the windows in the cabin is cracked, then:
a) he can start work provided that the window is only cracked and has not "fallen out",b) he can start work if it is not the front window,
c) he should not start work.
261. Before starting work, the operator should:
a) install window sun shields,
b) clean the windows by removing snow, ice, and other contaminants,
c) open the windows for better communication.262. When changing hydraulic oils, one should:
a) always use only biodegradable oils,
b) use only types of oils recommended by the machine manufacturer,
c) use any type of oil.263. To ensure the technical efficiency of the working machine, one should:
a) operate the machine/technical device without exceeding 50% of the permissible load,b) operate the machine/technical device only under full load,
c) follow technical service and maintenance according to the operating and maintenance instructions.
264. On the construction site, empty containers of lubricants, oil filters, and used oils should be:
a) thrown into any waste container,b) thrown into the mixed waste container,
c) placed in a properly marked hazardous waste container.
265. Stickers (pictograms) located on the machine/technical device serve to:
a) indicate places where one can stay without any risk,
b) convey important information about safety and the use of the machine/technical device,
c) inform about the prohibition of approaching the machine/technical device.266. Grease points in the machine should be serviced:
a) during all breaks in work,
b) according to the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine,
c) always after 10 hours of work.267. Engine oil with parameters 5W-50 is:
a) a multi-season oil,
b) an oil only for winter,c) an oil only for summer.268. Before starting work on a new type of machine/technical device, the operator should:
a) perform a periodic inspection,
b) familiarize themselves with the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine/technical device,
c) perform a trial work.269. OTC service is:
a) round-the-clock technical service,
b) daily technical service,
c) temporary technical service.270. The basic types of service are:
a) visual, active, passive service,b) round-the-clock, multi-seasonal, annual, technological service,
c) daily, periodic, warehouse, transport service.
271. Batteries, when starting a machine using a supporting battery, should be connected:
a) in parallel,
b) crosswise,c) in series.272. In the case of electrolyte loss caused by spillage through a cracked battery casing, one should:
a) add electrolyte to the proper level and charge the battery,
b) secure the leakage area in terms of environmental protection, and then replace the battery,
c) add demineralized water to a level 10 mm above the upper edges of the plates.273. The activities performed by the operator as part of daily maintenance during operation are:
a) replenishing operating fluids and daily lubrication,
b) auditory monitoring of the machine's operation and observing indicators,
c) cleaning the machine.274. If the manufacturer has provided for operational running-in, it should be carried out:
a) without load,
b) with the load recommended in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device,
c) with the maximum load.275. When loading the machine onto the transport vehicle, the operator should:
a) approach at a speed of at least 5 [km/h],b) know the maximum speed allowed for the given transport vehicle,
c) know the permissible angle of inclination of the loading ramps for the given machine.
276. The person responsible for the placement and securing of the machine on the transport vehicle is:
a) the carrier (e.g. driver),
b) the owner or the person responsible for machines in the company,c) the machine operator.277. When storing the machine, one should ensure that:
a) there are no leaks of operating fluids,
b) the machine is facing the exit,c) no documents of the machine are left in the cabin.278. Securing the machine during storage downtime involves:
a) filling the hydraulic oil tank to the top,
b) cleaning the machine of dirt and corrosion,
c) disassembling all filters and protecting them from moisture.279. The rods of hydraulic cylinders, during technical maintenance of the stored machine, should be:
a) disassembled and the seals replaced,
b) protected against corrosion,
c) disassembled and cleaned.280. When loading the machine onto the transport vehicle:
a) assistance from a second person is recommended,
b) the operator should drive onto the transport vehicle independently,c) assistance from a second person is recommended only when loading onto a low-loader trailer.281. The recommended way to load heavy working machines onto low-loader trailers is:
a) mechanized loading from the front ramp,
b) loading using other machines,c) loading on ropes.282. During longer storage of the machine, the fuel tank should be:
a) filled to 1/3 of its capacity and left open,b) empty to avoid fire hazards,
c) filled to the top to prevent condensation of water vapor inside the tank.
283. During daily operation of the machine, the condition of should be checked:
a) connections and tightness of the hydraulic system,
b) tools and equipment,c) the value of working pressure in the hydraulic system.284. If the machine's engine has not been running for a long time, during daily operation you should:
a) check the oil level and other operating fluids,
b) replace the fuel pre-filter,c) start the engine and gently increase the RPM to reach the operating temperature faster.285. Information regarding faults, their codes, and methods of removal can be found in the document titled:
a) daily report,b) construction machine book,
c) operating and maintenance manual.
286. The correct order of connecting the auxiliary battery to the discharged battery in the machine is as follows:
a) negative terminal of the battery in the machine, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, machine frame,
b) positive terminal of the battery in the machine, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, machine frame,
c) machine frame, positive terminal of the battery in the machine, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery.287. In case of electrolyte loss in the battery, one should:
a) refill it with water other than distilled,b) refill it with DOT-3 fluid,
c) refill it with distilled or demineralized water.
288. Checking the charge state of the 12 [V] starter battery by "sparking" poses a risk of:
a) explosion of hydrogen escaping from the battery,
b) seizure of the alternator,c) electric shock from high voltage.289. The scope of daily technical service of the machine does not include:
a) checking the condition of the tires and tire pressure,
b) checking and adjusting valve clearances,
c) checking the oil level in the engine.290. When cleaning the radiator, to avoid damaging it, one should:
a) use a strong stream of water under high pressure,b) use sharp tools for cleaning,
c) keep the compressed air nozzle at an appropriate distance from the radiator.
291. The purpose of lubrication in working machines is:
a) to increase the engine speed,
b) to reduce friction,
c) to raise the temperature of cooperating elements.292. The most commonly used type of fuses in electrical installations of working machines is:
a) fuse links,
b) residual current devices,c) automatic fuses.293. The phenomenon of electrostatic discharge during refueling a machine can lead to:
a) a short circuit in the electrical installation,b) poisoning,
c) a fire.
294. In the case of connecting two batteries in parallel with different rated voltages:
a) both batteries may discharge,
b) there may be an explosion of the battery with the lower rated voltage,
c) thicker cables should be used than with batteries of the same rated voltages.295. The correct way to connect a battery to a charger during charging is:
a) the positive terminal of the battery to the negative terminal of the charger, the negative terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger,b) the positive terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger, the negative terminal of the charger to the "ground" of the machine,
c) the positive terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger, the negative terminal of the battery to the negative terminal of the charger.
296. After connecting the battery, the terminals are lubricated with:
a) graphite grease,b) grease containing molybdenum disulfide,
c) technical vaseline.
297. One of the goals of warehouse management is:
a) protecting the machine from corrosion and other harmful factors during long-term storage,
b) preparing the machine for transport for the future user,c) repairing damaged machine components before the next season.298. If during daily technical service the operator notices a leak in the cooling system, they should:
a) organize fluid and refill to the minimum level if the leak is small,
b) report the leak and not use the machine until it is repaired,
c) top up the coolant and continue working.299. The level of coolant in the expansion tank should be checked:
a) only during periodic technical service,
b) during every daily technical service,
c) only in case of engine overheating.300. If the operator notices a hydraulic fluid leak during daily technical service, they should:
a) top up the oil and continue working,b) reduce the RPM and continue working,
c) report the leak and not use the machine until it is repaired.
301. The frequency of performing periodic technical service depends on:
a) the number of hours worked (engine hours),
b) the number of completed working cycles,c) the production date of the machine.302. If during daily technical service the operator notices a low level of engine oil, he should:
a) continue working if the level is not very low and the warning light is not on,
b) top up the oil to the appropriate level,
c) top up the level with any available oil, even if it is of a different type.303. A characteristic activity for seasonal technical service is:
a) checking the charging voltage value,
b) replacing the coolant with one appropriate for the season,
c) checking the working pressure value of the hydraulic system.304. The basic service activities that must be performed before starting a diesel engine are:
a) bleeding the fuel system, checking the level of transmission oil, checking the starter,b) checking the oil level in the gearbox, checking the operation of the working system, checking the operation of the brakes,
c) checking the oil level in the engine, checking the coolant level, checking the condition of the air filter.
305. Activities performed as part of daily technical service (OTC) carried out during the operation of the machine include:
a) primarily the sensory control of the proper operation of the machine's working system,b) observation only of control and measurement indicators such as: oil pressure, engine temperature, hydraulic oil temperature,
c) observation of control and measurement instruments and checking the proper operation of the machine using sight, hearing, and smell.
306. We distinguish, among others, the following types of technical services:
a) transport, arrival, daily, periodic, seasonal, storage,
b) arrival, daily, periodic, seasonal, storage, emergency, night,c) transport, arrival, storage, service-repair (SR), catalog.307. We perform technical services for the purpose of:
a) ensuring quiet operation of the machine or technical device,