Floating single-bucket dredgers class II
Study mode
Question of 244
1. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage not exceeding 1 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 3 [m],
b) not less than 2 [m],c) not less than 5 [m].2. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 15 [m],
b) not less than 5 [m],
c) not less than 10 [m].3. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 5 [m],b) not less than 15 [m],
c) not less than 10 [m].
4. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 15 [m],
b) not less than 10 [m],c) not less than 20 [m]. Dredgers with a single bucket floating Class II5. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 15 [m],
b) not less than 30 [m],
c) not less than 10 [m].6. Can workstations be organized in the danger zone under overhead power lines?
a) no, never,b) yes, always,
c) yes, but only after meeting additional requirements.
7. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [V]?
a) not less than 3 [m],
b) not less than 30 [m],c) not less than 5 [m].8. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV]?
a) not less than 10 [m],b) not less than 15 [m],
c) not less than 5 [m].
9. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?
a) not less than 10 [m],
b) not less than 30 [m],c) not less than 15 [m].10. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?
a) not less than 5 [m],b) not less than 15 [m],
c) not less than 10 [m].
11. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV]?
a) not less than 50 [m],
b) not less than 15 [m],
c) not less than 30 [m].12. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV]?
a) not less than 30 [m],
b) not less than 10 [m],
c) not less than 15 [m].13. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]?
a) not less than 40 [m],b) not less than 3 [m],
c) not less than 30 [m].
14. Work in the danger zone (overhead high voltage power line):
a) may be carried out provided that permission has been granted by the work manager,
b) may be carried out provided that the line has been disconnected from the voltage, work is performed in a zone limited by groundings and at least one grounding is visible from the work site,
c) may not be carried out under any circumstances under electric lines in the danger zone.15. The operator must perform work at a distance X from an active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [V]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 1 [m],
b) 5 [m],
c) 2 [m].16. The operator must perform work at a distance X from an active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 15 [m],
b) 5 [m],c) 3 [m].17. The operator must perform work at a distance X from an active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 5 [m],b) 15 [m],
c) 50 [m].
18. If the injured person has a detectable pulse but is not breathing, then:
a) chest compressions should be performed,
b) the airway should be cleared and artificial respiration started,
c) he should not be touched.19. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, it is essential to:
a) assist those in life-threatening situations,
b) move away from the accident scene to call a doctor,c) give medication to the injured.20. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, it is essential to:
a) assist those in life-threatening situations,
b) ensure your own safety,
c) move away from the accident scene to call a doctor.21. The obligation to provide first aid to accident victims rests with:
a) only those who have medical training,
b) everyone, as part of the rescue tasks can always be performed,
c) everyone, but criminal liability always threatens for mistakes made.22. The accident victim regained consciousness after a few minutes and wants to go home. In this situation, one should:
a) give her something to drink and painkillers,
b) persuade her to stay and call for medical help,
c) let her go home, recommending a visit to the doctor.23. First aid in a situation where a foreign body has entered the eye of the injured person consists of:
a) rinsing with distilled water directing the stream to the inside of the eye,
b) rinsing with clean water directing the stream from the nose outward from the eye,
c) rinsing the eye with eye drops.24. The injured person cut their leg on an unsecured sharp element. Providing first aid in this situation is:
a) sticking a plaster directly on the wound,b) using a tourniquet,
c) applying sterile gauze, wrapping the wound with a bandage.
25. Suspecting spinal injury in a person who has fallen from a height and is conscious, one should:
a) not move her and wait for medical services to arrive,
b) seat her in a semi-reclining position,c) place her in a stable side position.26. To move away from the place where the electric wire was interrupted and the area is under voltage, you should:
a) quickly, with large steps, move away from the source of electric shock while lifting your feet high,
b) leave this place slowly, with small steps, trying to maintain continuous contact of your feet with the ground,
c) run as fast as possible to a place that we assess as safe.27. First aid in the case of a first-degree burn is:
a) pouring cold water on the burned area,
b) applying ointment to the burned area,c) applying greasy cream to the burned area.28. During work, a high voltage power line was torn down, as a result of which a colleague was electrocuted. In this situation, the correct behavior is:
a) call other colleagues for help with the injured person,
b) turn off the power source as quickly as possible,
c) approach the injured person to provide first aid.29. We perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation until:
a) the fire brigade arrives and secures the area,b) 10 minutes pass,
c) we have determined that the victim has started to breathe and circulation has returned.
30. Immediate action in the case of severe bleeding from an injured upper limb includes:
a) applying a dressing, directly pressing the bleeding site, and raising the limb,
b) disinfecting the wound with salicylic alcohol,c) lowering the limb below the level of the heart.31. In case of a nosebleed, one should:
a) lean the bleeding person's head forward, pinch the nostrils,
b) lay the injured person on their back,c) tilt the head back and place a cold compress on the neck.32. The first step in dealing with a victim of carbon monoxide poisoning in a closed room is:
a) conducting a preliminary examination,b) assessing ABC,
c) the quickest possible evacuation of the injured person from that room.
33. First aid during seizures caused by an epileptic attack consists of:
a) placing a wooden object in the injured person's mouth to prevent biting the tongue,
b) securing the injured person's head from injuries,
c) seating the injured person in a semi-sitting position and giving them something to drink.34. In case of suspected spinal injury in the cervical region in a conscious person, one should:
a) not allow the injured person to move their head,
b) seat the injured person in a chair with a high backrest,c) place the injured person in a lateral position.35. The most important thing when a person is buried under earth, sand, or gravel is:
a) waiting for the arrival of the ambulance,b) notifying the family,
c) locating the injured person.
36. First aid for a person with a metal rod embedded in their calf involves calling for help and:
a) removing the embedded rod,
b) securing the rod to prevent movement,
c) moving the rod to check if the artery has been damaged.37. The indication for using an AED defibrillator is:
a) severe dizziness,
b) absence of detectable breath and pulse in the injured person,
c) severe chest pain.38. During the operation of a machine/technical device, the prohibited actions for which you are taking the exam are:
a) making structural changes to the machine/technical device,
b) changing the working tool,c) performing daily technical service (OTC).39. During the operation of a machine/technical device, the prohibited actions for which you are taking the exam are:
a) refueling the machine/technical device from a canister,
b) cleaning the machine/technical device using gasoline or solvents whose vapors can create flammable/explosive gas mixtures with air,
c) cleaning the machine/technical device using a product in accordance with the operating and maintenance instructions.40. When performing earthworks with a machine for which you are taking the exam, it is unacceptable to:
a) have people within a distance greater than the sum of the maximum reach of the working tool plus 6 meters,b) have people near the machine during technical service operations,
c) have people within the working range of the machine's working tool.
41. During the execution of work, it is unacceptable to:
a) work near active overhead power lines at a distance less than specified by regulations,
b) work near an active power line with a rated voltage of 10 [kV] at a distance of 10 [m],c) work near an active power line with a rated voltage of 20 [kV] at a distance of 15 [m].42. The machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam can only be operated by:
a) a person with written confirmation of course completion in the form of a plastic card,
b) a person who has completed training and obtained a positive result from the test conducted by the commission appointed by the Łukasiewicz Research Network – Warsaw Institute of Technology,
c) any adult person with technical education and a driving license of the appropriate category.43. The qualifications to operate machines/technical devices for which you are taking the exam are issued by:
a) Łukasiewicz Research Network - Warsaw Institute of Technology (LRN - WIT),
b) The County Office appropriate for the residence address of the person applying for qualifications,c) The Office of Technical Inspection (UTI).44. The qualifications to operate machines/technical devices for which you are taking the exam:
a) are valid for 10 years from the date of issue,
b) are valid indefinitely,
c) are valid for 5 years from the date of issue.45. A person holding qualifications to operate: "Single-bucket dredgers class II" on this basis:
a) can operate single-bucket floating dredgers and multi-bucket floating dredgers,b) can operate a single-bucket floating dredger and an inland suction dredger,
c) can operate only single-bucket floating dredgers.
46. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam may take up work provided that:
a) has a valid category D driving license,
b) has the qualifications to operate this type of machine/technical device,
c) the machine/technical device has a valid UDT inspection.47. In the event of a threat to life, health, property, or the environment caused by a malfunction of the machine/technical device, the operator:
a) continues working, but at the end of the shift makes an appropriate entry in the maintenance book,b) continues working, but at the end of the shift informs the supervisor of the situation,
c) immediately stops work and informs the supervisor of this fact.
48. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam has the right to refuse to take up work when:
a) there is an overhead power line with a rated voltage of 110 [kV] located 35 meters away,b) has the required personal protective equipment,
c) this work requires special psychophysical fitness, and his psychophysical condition does not ensure its safe performance and poses a threat to others.
49. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is obliged to stop work when:
a) has the required personal protective equipment,b) there is an overhead power line located 35 meters away,
c) the work he is performing poses a direct threat to the health or life of others.
50. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is obliged to:
a) comply with the provisions of the operating and maintenance instructions for the machine/technical device,
b) always have a category B driving license,c) independently perform all current repairs of the machine/technical device.51. The person directly responsible for the safe operation of the machine for which you are taking the exam is:
a) machine operator,
b) machine owner,c) construction manager.52. The operator's book and qualifications for the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam are issued by:
a) Łukasiewicz Research Network - Warsaw Institute of Technology,
b) Office of Technical Inspection (UDT),c) Transport Technical Inspection (TDT).53. The obligation to use personal protective equipment:
a) does not apply on hot days,b) arises only from internal regulations,
c) arises from the operating and maintenance instructions and health and safety regulations.
54. An employee who witnesses an accident at work:
a) only needs to inform their supervisor,b) is obliged to provide assistance to the victims and then immediately leave the accident scene,
c) is obliged to provide assistance to the victims, inform their supervisor, and if necessary secure the accident scene.
55. We define the danger zone as:
a) a place where there are threats to the health and life of people,
b) a place where employees must only wear protective helmets,c) a place where work requiring specialized equipment takes place, and the presence of people is only allowed at night.56. The area that the operator should check and secure before starting work with the machine/technical device (because there are health and life hazards) is called:
a) the area of increased risk,
b) the danger zone,
c) the dead zone.57. During the charging of batteries, a gas with highly explosive properties is released. This gas is:
a) ethane,b) methane,
c) hydrogen.
58. Firefighting foam can be used to extinguish fires of group:
a) only C,
b) A and B,
c) C and D.59. Improper use of a snow extinguisher can result in:
a) burns from the extinguisher components,
b) frostbite caused by the extinguishing agent,
c) fainting.60. Water, fire blanket, powder extinguisher, carbon dioxide, sand are extinguishing agents that we will use to extinguish:
a) solid bodies,
b) liquids,c) oils.61. Sorbents can be called:
a) materials made of natural or synthetic substances that absorb liquids,
b) fire blankets,c) petroleum substances.62. Group A fires concern:
a) flammable liquids,b) flammable gases,
c) solid bodies whose normal combustion occurs with the formation of glowing coals, e.g. wood, paper, etc..
63. Group B fires concern:
a) metals, e.g. magnesium, sodium, potassium, aluminum, titanium, etc.,b) flammable gases,
c) liquids and solid materials that melt, e.g. plastics, fuels, oils, etc..
64. Group C fires concern:
a) gases, e.g. methane, propane, acetylene, hydrogen,
b) flammable liquids,c) solid bodies.
65. Seeing such a pictogram you are informed about:
a) a larger number of people in a given area,b) a danger zone,
c) a gathering place during evacuation.
66. During work, you noticed a sign marked "Zone 0". It informs about:
a) a zone of a specific fire hazard category,b) a zone of existing fire load in the building,
c) a space where an explosive atmosphere exists.
67. The presented pictogram informs about:
a) an internal hydrant,b) the main power switch,
c) a set of fire protection equipment.
68. Seeing such a pictogram, you are informed about:
a) the assembly point during evacuation,b) the location of first aid,
c) the emergency exit.
69. Seeing such a pictogram, you are informed about:
a) high temperature affecting the extinguisher,
b) the location of the extinguisher,
c) the prohibition of using the extinguisher.70. You see a person whose clothing is on fire and who, in panic, is running away. Your reaction is:
a) you tell him to wait in an upright position for the arrival of rescue services,
b) you try to stop him, lay him on the ground, and start extinguishing,
c) you wave your arms or outer covering strongly next to him to extinguish the burning clothing.71. Electrical devices and installations can be extinguished using:
a) powder or snow extinguishers,
b) water,c) foam extinguishers.72. Burning fuel can be extinguished using:
a) low-octane ethylene,b) water,
c) powder, foam, or snow extinguishers.
73. Clothing burning on a person can be extinguished using:
a) snow or powder extinguisher,b) plastic material,
c) water mist extinguisher or fire blanket.
74. What obligations does an employee have when they decide to refrain from work due to health and safety regulations?
a) They should organize work for others,
b) They must immediately notify their supervisor,
c) They have no obligations in this situation.75. How can an operator prevent hazards in the workplace?
a) By using personal protective equipment to minimize risk,
b) By not reporting faults in machines,c) By ignoring health and safety rules.76. It is not permissible to position the workplace directly under active overhead power lines or at a horizontal distance from the outermost conductors of less than:
a) for all voltages - 1 [m] from the power line,
b) for lines: 1 [kV] - 3 [m], 15 [kV] - 5 [m], 30 [kV] - 10 [m], 110 [kV] - 15 [m], 400 [kV] - 30 [m],
c) for lines: 1 [kV] - 1 [m], 15 [kV] - 3 [m], 30 [kV] - 5 [m], 110 [kV] - 10 [m].77. How does the operator know what personal protective equipment is required for a given machine/technical device?
a) The operator must independently choose the appropriate protective measures,
b) Information about the necessary personal protective equipment is included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine,
c) The choice of personal protective equipment depends on the opinion of colleagues at work.78. The operator should refuse to perform a task when:
a) the work is inconsistent with the intended use of the machine/technical device,
b) the work is being performed at night,c) the work requires familiarization with the location of underground and above-ground utilities.79. The operator can prevent hazards during the operation of the machine/technical device by:
a) following health and safety rules and adhering to the operating instructions,
b) limiting the use of personal protective equipment,c) inattention and routine.80. Which of the following situations is unacceptable during the use of the machine/technical device?
a) Operating the machine without supervision,
b) Unauthorized persons being in the danger zone caused by the operation of the machine/technical device,
c) Reporting faults directly to the supervisor.81. An accident at work is considered:
a) a sudden event related to the work performed, caused by an external factor, resulting in injury or death,
b) a long-term event related to the work performed, caused by an internal factor, resulting in equipment damage,c) a sudden event unrelated to the work performed, caused by an external factor, resulting in injury or death.82. A fatal accident at work is considered to be an accident in which death occurred:
a) within a period not exceeding 6 months from the date of the accident,
b) only at the moment of the accident,c) after a period of more than 6 months from the date of the accident.83. How can the operator of a dredger prevent hazards in the workplace?
a) It is enough to use collective protective measures and occasionally check the technical condition of the machine,
b) By using individual and collective protective measures, regularly checking the technical condition of the machine, and adhering to health and safety rules,
c) He should not undertake dredging if he cannot see the bottom of the water body.84. The collective protective measures used when operating a dredger are:
a) railings and a lifebuoy,
b) a life jacket and a safety helmet worn by the operator,c) emergency lighting and spare tools.85. When operating a floating dredger, it is prohibited to:
a) exert any external forces on the elements of the dredger that do not result from the normal operation of the technical device,
b) raise the digging tool above the water level,c) stop the dredger to take measurements or perform maintenance.86. Occupational health and safety regulations require:
a) securing the working machine during breaks in its operation against accidental activation by unauthorized persons,
b) scrapping the old working machine within the time specified in its operating and maintenance manual, while adhering to the requirements for the disposal of hazardous materials,c) performing a warranty inspection of the working machine before one year from its purchase.87. In the event of a person being electrocuted:
a) do not touch the victim until the power source is disconnected,
b) it is recommended to use any tools to disconnect the power, regardless of their actual purpose,c) immediate resuscitation should be initiated, regardless of whether the power source has been disconnected.88. Seeing a person whose clothing is on fire, the first thing to do is:
a) leave the victim standing to facilitate air access and extinguish the flames more quickly,b) use a fire extinguisher, preferably a snow extinguisher, to extinguish the burning clothing, and then try to quickly tear off the melted clothing,
c) cut off the air supply by rolling the victim or wrapping them in a fire blanket, wet clothing, or a wet blanket.
89. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is performed:
a) when the victim is breathing but unconscious and unresponsive,b) only in cases of fainting and minor injuries to improve blood circulation,
c) when the victim is not breathing and there is no detectable pulse. For a non-professional rescuer, the absence of breathing is a sufficient basis to start resuscitation.
90. An employee has the right to refrain from performing work due to occupational health and safety regulations, notifying their supervisor immediately if:
a) the working conditions do not pose a threat, but are too difficult for them,
b) the working conditions pose a direct threat to health or life,
c) the work they are performing has not been reported to the construction supervision.91. Physical factors generating hazards in the workplace are:
a) spilled lubricants, oils, and fuels,
b) lack of appropriate medical examinations of the employee,c) lack of or inadequate training of employees.92. Working with a machine/technical device is not allowed when:
a) its repair was carried out after dark,
b) it is malfunctioning,
c) the second operator did not report an upcoming inspection.93. Working near overhead power lines:
a) always requires de-energizing the line,b) always requires double grounding of the line,
c) is possible without meeting additional requirements provided that specific distances depending on the rated voltage of the line are maintained.
94. The operator is obliged to refuse to work if:
a) the machine is malfunctioning,
b) they would have to work under power lines, and the voltage in them has been turned off and the line grounded,c) there is no construction manager or any other person authorized to supervise at the work site.95. The danger zone from a machine/technical device is:
a) a place where the machine/device cannot be used,b) always the entire fenced construction site,
c) a place where there are hazards to health or life of people.
96. Accidents at work resulting from the poor technical condition of the working machine may include, for example:
a) damage to the equipment,b) failure of the drive system,
c) injury to the limb, torso, or head.
97. Unacceptable behaviors are:
a) working after dark in a well-lit place, with full concentration of the operator,b) performing daily maintenance of the machine after dark,
c) operating a faulty machine and working under the influence of alcohol.
98. General rules for safely getting on and off the machine are:
a) the person should face the machine, remember the "three-point support" rule, and use only specially made steps and handrails,
b) it is permissible to step back from the machine, but only when the steps are slippery,c) using cables and levers as aids when getting on is allowed when the machine is turned off.99. Operational hazards that may occur in the workplace of a dredger include:
a) working in a closed room without access to sunlight,b) improper time management, lack of sufficient number of workers,
c) moving parts of the machine, sharp elements, noise, vibrations, radiation, electricity, oils and greases, exhaust fumes.
100. Personal protective equipment for the operator of a floating dredger includes:
a) loose summer clothing, warm everyday clothing in winter, rubber footwear, latex or leather gloves, reflective vest,
b) work footwear and clothing, protective helmet, reflective vest, life jacket,
c) comfortable work shoes, warm hat or alternatively a protective helmet, vest.101. Prohibited activities during the operation of a floating dredger are:
a) carrying out maintenance on the dredger after it has been turned off,b) checking the technical condition of the machine before starting work,
c) operating the dredger after consuming alcohol and starting faulty technical devices.
102. The basic duties of an employee in terms of occupational health and safety are:
a) not being late for work, finishing on time, confirming presence at work in the manner accepted by the employer,b) enforcing labor code regulations regarding their rights, including payment for overtime worked,
c) adhering to health and safety regulations and principles, taking care of the condition of machines and tools, maintaining order in the workplace, and using personal protective equipment.
103. In the case of a person electrocuted, after disconnecting the power source, one should:
a) check the condition of the victim, and if necessary: call for help, clear the airways, perform resuscitation, and use an AED if available,
b) move the victim to another location as quickly as possible,c) leave the victim alone if they have regained consciousness, without further actions.104. When a person buried under earth or sand is partially dug out, one should:
a) quickly dig out the left arm to check for a pulse,
b) quickly clear the airways,
c) focus on digging out the lower parts of the victim's body.105. After extinguishing flames on a person with burns and calling for help, one should:
a) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes, previously removing any melted clothing,
b) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes, without removing any melted clothing,
c) use a snow extinguisher to cool the burn areas.
106. Seeing such a pictogram you are informed about:
a) a place for performing AED,b) a place where a first aid kit is available,
c) a place where an external automatic defibrillator is available.
107. Properly performed cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) consists of:
a) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 30-60 times per minute to a depth of 1–3 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 15 compressions (breaths are mandatory),
b) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 100-120 times per minute to a depth of 5–6 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 30 compressions (breaths are not mandatory),
c) connecting an external automatic defibrillator (AED) and following its instructions; CPR is not performed without AED.108. The abbreviation IBWR stands for:
a) Instruction for Failure-Free Execution of Works,
b) Instruction for Safe Execution of Works,
c) Instruction for Failure-Free Execution of Works.109. Expand the abbreviation IBWR:
a) Implementation of Failure-Free Execution of Works,
b) Instruction for Safe Execution of Works,
c) Information on Safe Execution of Works.110. The Instruction for Safe Execution of Construction Works is:
a) a document confirming qualifications for operating machines and technical devices in earthworks, construction, and road works,b) a plan of the route in construction works,
c) a document containing information regarding safety on the construction site.
111. The BIOZ plan means:
a) safety and resource definition plan,b) safe health protection instruction plan,
c) safety and health protection plan.
112. Rescue devices on board the dredger include:
a) protective railings,
b) life rings and a rescue throw bag mounted on both sides,
c) maneuvering winches and a boat hook.113. Protective railings on a floating dredger are intended for:
a) reinforcing the structure of the floats,b) mounting warning signals,
c) securing technological paths and passages on board.
114. When working on floating units, machine operators should:
a) be secured with safety ropes to machine elements,b) have a valid swimming card,
c) be equipped with life jackets.
115. Bucket dredgers can operate:
a) in almost all types of soil, from soft silt and clay to soft rocks and blasted rock,
b) only in hard rocks, as buckets are adapted to large loads,c) only in soft silt and clay, as harder soils require other types of machines.116. “Dredging” involves:
a) crushing rocks at the bottom of the reservoir to obtain building material,
b) mechanically removing the layer of bottom sediments from water bodies or streams,
c) filling the bottom of the water reservoir with bulk material to reduce its depth.117. A single-bucket floating dredger operates:
a) cyclically, extracting material using one bucket and feeding it onto conveyor belts, allowing for excavation at great depths,
b) using multiple buckets simultaneously, which allows for continuous excavation of the bottom of the reservoir at shallow depths,c) using only suction to transfer the material to the conveyor, enabling work in shallow reservoirs.118. The efficiency of a single-bucket dredger:
a) is constant, does not depend on working conditions,b) depends only on the capacity of the bucket,
c) depends on the depth of excavation and the size of the bucket.
119. Dredging is considered a reclamation procedure because
a) it increases the amount of bottom sediments, promoting the growth of aquatic plants,
b) it removes bottom sediments containing biogenic substances, improving the quality of the aquatic environment,
c) it creates new sediments that support the biodiversity of the reservoir's bottom.120. The grab of the dredger closes:
a) by pulling ropes that lift and simultaneously close it,
b) manually using a mechanism operated from the cabin,c) automatically under the weight of the material from the bottom.121. The selection of the grab capacity of the dredger mainly depends on:
a) the efficiency of the machine,b) the operational depth,
c) the lifting capacity of the dredger crane.
122. The type of bottom material affects the choice of the dredger grab because:
a) different materials require jaws of appropriate design and strength,
b) the type of material affects the stability of the floating unit,c) the bottom material determines the maximum lifting capacity of the rotating crane.123. Maneuvering winches are used for:
a) precise positioning of the dredger in the working water area,
b) driving warning devices,c) maneuvering the dredger bucket.124. The rotation of the boom in a single-bucket grab dredger:
a) helps stabilize the movement of the grab during lowering to the bottom,b) allows for the adjustment of the angle of penetration of the grab into the ground,
c) allows transferring the closed grab with material over the dredger's hold.
125. The buoyancy of the dredger affects:
a) the speed of closing the grab on the bottom,
b) the maximum size of the grab that can be used,
c) the angle of rotation of the boom.126. Steel fenders on the deck of a floating dredger:
a) allow the dredger to moor at the bow and stern,
b) provide support for warning devices,c) are a protective element preventing the deck from flooding.127. The type of interchangeable working equipment used depends on whether:
a) the equipment is approved for use by the machine manufacturer,
b) the machine has undergone a periodic inspection,c) the equipment has a CE certificate.128. Single-bucket dredgers operate in a system:
a) continuous,
b) cyclical,
c) pulsating.129. The selection of the type of grab depends on:
a) the type of belt conveyors for the excavated material,
b) the type of material lying on the bottom of the water body,
c) the depth of the water body.130. Proper positioning of the dredger involves:
a) appropriately submerging the pontoons and dropping anchors,
b) correctly maneuvering the winches,
c) facing "upstream" of the river.131. Which of the mentioned processes is not related to dredging:
a) reduction of the amount of biogenic substances and improvement of water environment quality,
b) construction of water dams,
c) removal of biogenic substances and deepening of water bodies.132. The possibility of the bucket dredger working in difficult ground conditions is determined by:
a) the depth of the water reservoir,b) the type of feeder used and the speed of the chain,
c) the power of the devices and the strength of the grab ropes.
133. A single-bucket dredger can work:
a) in a wide range of soils, from soft sediments to blasted rock,
b) mainly in silts and clays with high plasticity,c) only in organic soils such as peats and silts.134. In the case of the grab being buried on the bottom and pulling it out with the full power of the engine, one should:
a) attempt to pull the grab by changing positions in the water body,
b) observe the immersion of the excavator and avoid prolonged engine overload,
c) apply the technique of 'dredging'.135. The main feature characterizing the technological cycle of work of a single-bucket dredger is that:
a) the dredger works in a mixed cycle,b) the dredger works in a continuous cycle,
c) the dredger works in the same cycle as a single-bucket excavator.
136. The basic factor limiting the extraction capabilities of the dredger is:
a) production efficiency of the processing plant,b) river current speed,
c) water body depth.
137. Which of the listed elements are not part of the hydraulic system:
a) pump, distributor, actuator,b) hydraulic lock, hydraulic oil tank,
c) starter, alternator.
138. The hydraulic lock in the machine is:
a) closure of the hydraulic oil inlet at its tank,
b) valve protecting against uncontrolled movement of the element located in a given line,
c) valve responsible for controlling the entire hydraulic system.139. The change in hydraulic oil pressure into mechanical motion is caused by:
a) hydraulic actuator and hydraulic motor,
b) hydraulic distributor,c) hydraulic pump system.140. The pressure in the hydraulic system is generated by:
a) hydraulic motor,b) hydraulic actuator,
c) hydraulic pump.
141. The control of hydraulic oil flow to individual systems is carried out by:
a) hydraulic lock,b) relief valve,
c) hydraulic distributor.
142. The safety valve protects the hydraulic system from:
a) excessive pressure increase,
b) air in the hydraulic system,c) overheating of hydraulic oil.143. The relief valve in the hydraulic system is responsible for:
a) limiting the maximum working pressure in a given circuit,
b) maintaining a constant position of the working tool,c) venting the system.144. If the pressure in the hydraulic system increases excessively, the excess oil will be directed to:
a) distributor,b) hydraulic oil filter,
c) hydraulic oil tank.
145. The basic parameters that characterize an electric accumulator are:
a) rated voltage [V], resistance [Ω], power [W],
b) rated voltage [V], capacity [Ah], starting current [A],
c) rated voltage [V], power [W], weight [kg].146. Lead-acid batteries can be charged:
a) only in an air-conditioned room,
b) in a place specifically designated for this purpose,
c) in any room.147. The hydraulic distributor:
a) converts mechanical energy into hydraulic energy,b) increases the torque in the side transmission,
c) directs the flow of hydraulic oil to the appropriate sections.
148. The hydraulic distributor is a device that:
a) distributes oil between the small and large circuits,
b) allows control of individual hydraulic sections of the machine,
c) distributes oil between the engine and the hydraulic system.149. The flow and direction of hydraulic fluid in the system are regulated by:
a) hydraulic valves,
b) hydraulic pumps,c) hydraulic motors.150. Components of the system, such as actuators and hydraulic motors, convert hydraulic energy into:
a) mechanical energy,
b) pressure in the tank,c) electrical energy.151. The floating structure of a single-bucket dredger consists of:
a) a float with a platform on which the working system and control room are located,
b) floats connected by a platform on which the working system and control room are located,
c) a platform raised by hydraulic stabilizing supports.152. Grabs for single-bucket dredgers:
a) are equipped with an automatic material processing system,b) are permanently mounted to the body of the dredger,
c) usually consist of two or four jaws suspended on steel cables.
153. In a parallel connection of two identical batteries, the voltage of such a system is:
a) equal to the voltage of a single battery,
b) the sum of the voltages of the individual batteries,c) the product of the voltages of the individual batteries.154. In a series connection of two identical batteries, the voltage of such a system is:
a) the sum of the voltages of the individual batteries,
b) the product of the voltages of the individual batteries,c) equal to the voltage of a single battery.155. Fuses in the electrical installation of a machine protect it against the effects of:
a) short circuits and overloads,
b) low voltage,c) high temperature.156. One of the elements of the electrical system protecting the motor from seizing is:
a) engine oil pressure sensor,
b) main fuse,c) speed controller.157. Gel batteries, which are elements of the electrical system, do not require:
a) replacement in case of housing damage,
b) electrolyte replenishment,
c) charging with a rectifier.158. Electrical systems of machines and devices should be equipped with a device that causes emergency stop in at least the amount of:
a) two emergency stop devices placed on both sides of the machine, in accordance with the European machinery directive,
b) one emergency stop device, in accordance with the European machinery directive,
c) three emergency stop devices, in accordance with the European machinery directive.159. The emergency stop device of the machine is an element of:
a) electrical system,
b) fuel system,c) drive system.160. Changing position on the water area of the dredger is possible thanks to:
a) the force of the water current,b) mooring devices,
c) maneuvering winches.
161. The dredger of a floating single-bucket is an element of:
a) dredger's warehouse equipment,
b) working system,
c) mooring devices.162. The pontoons of the floating dredger are connected to each other by:
a) actuators,
b) platform,
c) trailer with a cabin.163. The working tool of the single-bucket dredger is:
a) bucket,b) scoop,
c) gripper.
164. The main parameters of the internal combustion engine affecting work efficiency are:
a) torque, rotational speed,
b) type of carburetor, type of ignition system,c) compression ratio, displacement.165. The crank-piston system of the internal combustion engine is designed to:
a) convert mechanical energy into hydraulic energy,
b) convert the reciprocating motion of the piston into the rotational motion of the crankshaft,
c) ensure effective operation of the clutch.166. The lubrication system in an internal combustion engine:
a) is responsible for removing hazardous substances generated in the combustion process of the mixture,
b) is responsible for properly lubricating the moving parts of the engine that work together,
c) provides regulation of the rotational speed and reduces engine vibrations during operation.167. The engine timing system is used for:
a) ensuring the optimal composition of the fuel-oil-air mixture for combustion,
b) controlling the filling of the combustion chamber with air or the fuel-air mixture and controlling the emptying of this chamber of exhaust gases,
c) damping noise and minimizing engine vibrations during operation.168. Systems present in internal combustion engines include, among others:
a) hydraulic system, intake system,b) exhaust system, pneumatic system, closed system,
c) crank-piston system, fuel system, cooling system.
169. The low-pressure part of the fuel system in a diesel engine is:
a) fuel tank, supply pump, filters, fuel lines,
b) fuel lines, high-pressure pump, common rail,c) fuel tank and injectors.170. The element controlling the flow of coolant in the so-called "large circuit" is:
a) thermostat,
b) thermophore,c) thermocouple.171. Intercooler is:
a) air cooler for turbocharged engines,
b) another name for the engine coolant radiator,c) a device for burning solid particles in exhaust gases.172. DPF filter:
a) is used to reduce NOx (nitrogen oxides) emissions,
b) is a dry particulate filter responsible for capturing soot from exhaust gases,
c) is a precise cabin filter protecting the operator while working in high dust conditions.173. The load-bearing elements on which the grab is suspended are:
a) frame supports,b) pylons of the dredger platform,
c) grab ropes.
174. The frequency and scope of periodic maintenance of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam:
a) are included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine,
b) is determined by the owner of the machine/technical device,c) are included in the IBWR documentation.175. The operating and maintenance manual for the machine/technical device is:
a) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by the health and safety services on the construction site,b) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device, which includes, among others, IBWR,
c) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device.
176. The operator of the machine/technical device you are taking the exam for is not allowed to:
a) make any repairs or maintenance,b) check the technical condition of the machine/technical device during operation,
c) use the machine/technical device for purposes other than intended.
177. A symptom of too low a level of hydraulic oil may be:
a) uneven operation of the diesel engine,b) loud operation of the starter,
c) "jerky" intermittent movement of hydraulic actuators.
178. If the low engine oil pressure warning light comes on, the operator:
a) may continue working if the hydraulic system is functioning properly,
b) should stop working and turn off the engine,
c) does not have to take any action.179. The operating and maintenance manual for the machine/technical device:
a) includes, among other things, information about hazards when operating the machine/technical device,
b) is established by the owner or user of the machine,c) is used to record information about faults.180. The CE Declaration of Conformity is a document:
a) in which the manufacturer confirms that their product meets all applicable EU requirements regarding safety, health protection, and environmental protection,
b) confirming that the product was manufactured in EU countries,c) issued by institutions that test machines for resistance to weather conditions.181. Information regarding the use of personal protective equipment and ways to reduce the occupational risk the operator can find:
a) in the CE Declaration of Conformity,b) in the service book,
c) in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device.
182. The operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device:
a) is created by institutions that conduct testing and accreditation of machine/technical device prototypes before allowing them for serial production,b) is created by the construction manager based on information from the manufacturer,
c) is developed by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device or the entity that introduces the machine/technical device to the market.
183. The operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device:
a) should be located in the machine or with the device, treated as part of the machine/technical device and be available at any time,
b) does not matter where it is located, the most important thing is that the owner of the machine has it in case of resale of the machine,c) should be located in the office along with the company's documentation and be available in case of inspection.184. Identification data of the machine/technical device:
a) due to their importance are always printed in red,
b) are located on the nameplate of the machine/technical device, additionally may be in marking places described in the manual,
c) should be noted on the inner side of the protective helmet assigned to the given machine/technical device.185. To minimize the risk of machine/technical device failure the operator should:
a) use the machine/technical device until the failure becomes serious,
b) regularly visually assess the condition of the machine/technical device and report any noticed irregularities,
c) perform maintenance activities only when the machine/technical device stops working.186. Key activities for the safe technical operation of a machine are:
a) securing equipment, covers, and doors against accidental closure and using personal protective equipment,
b) using latex gloves without the need for other personal protective equipment,c) performing technical service without securing working equipment to save time.187. Breaking in a machine during the initial period of operation is:
a) the process of achieving optimal clearances and even wear of parts,
b) an intensive full load test of the machine,c) the stage of the machine's operation without load.188. The operator uses the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine or technical device to:
a) record all faults of the machine or device noticed during operation,b) record the hours worked and fuel consumption of the machine,
c) learn the technical specifications, health and safety rules, and methods of repairing faults.
189. The SAE designation on oil refers to:
a) the viscosity of engine oil, that is, its ability to flow and lubricate,
b) the pressure of engine oil,c) the multi-season qualification of the oil.190. Oil with the symbol SAE 15W-40 means that:
a) at positive temperatures, it has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40,b) at positive temperatures, it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 15W,
c) at negative temperatures, it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 15W, and at positive temperatures, summer oil class SAE 40.
191. Oil with the symbol SAE 10W-30 means that:
a) at negative temperature it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 30,
b) at negative temperature it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W, and at positive temperature of summer oil class SAE 30,
c) at positive temperature it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W.192. The symbol SAE 10W-30 means:
a) a mixture of engine oil and hydraulic oil,
b) multi-season engine oil with specified parameters,
c) hydraulic oil with specified parameters.193. Engine oil with the symbol SAE 5W-40 means that:
a) at negative temperature it has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40,b) at positive temperature it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 5W,
c) at negative temperature it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 5W, and at positive temperature of summer oil class SAE 40.
194. The symbol of the warning light shown in the graphic means:
a) low engine oil pressure,b) low coolant level,
c) low engine oil level.
195. The symbol of the warning light shown in the graphic means:
a) low fuel level,b) low coolant level,
c) low engine oil pressure.
196. The presented symbol of the indicator means:
a) hydraulic oil,b) engine oil filter,
c) engine oil.
197. The presented symbol of the indicator means:
a) engine coolant level,b) hydraulic oil level,
c) engine oil level.
198. Oils marked 70W, 85W, 80W-90 are:
a) gear oils,
b) engine oils,c) brake oils.199. Before starting work, the employee is required to check, among other things:
a) the expected weather for the current day,b) the oil stock in the warehouse,
c) the correctness of the installation and operation of collective protective measures.
200. In case of the need to dismantle the cover/protection for maintenance, it is not allowed to:
a) reinstall the cover/protection,
b) start working with the device without installing the cover/protection,
c) record such a fact in the documentation.201. The lighting of the battery charging indicator signals to the construction machine operator a malfunction of:
a) the battery switch,b) the starter,
c) the V-belt and/or alternator.
202. If during daily technical service before work the operator notices that one of the windows in the cabin is cracked, then:
a) he should not start working,
b) he can start working if it is not the front window,c) he can start working provided that the window is only cracked and has not "fallen out".203. Before starting work, the operator should:
a) install sun shields on the windows,
b) clean the windows by removing snow, ice, and other contaminants,
c) open the windows for better communication.204. When changing hydraulic oils, it is necessary to:
a) use only types of oils recommended by the machine manufacturer,
b) always use only biodegradable oils,c) use any type of oil.205. To ensure the technical efficiency of the working machine, it is necessary to:
a) adhere to technical service and maintenance according to the operating and maintenance instructions,
b) use the machine/technical device only under full load,c) use the machine/technical device not exceeding 50% of the permissible load.206. On the construction site, empty containers for lubricants, oil filters, and used oils should be:
a) placed in a properly marked container for hazardous waste,
b) thrown into the mixed waste container,c) thrown into any waste container.207. Stickers (pictograms) located on the machine/technical device serve to:
a) inform about the prohibition of approaching the machine/technical device,
b) convey important information about safety and the use of the machine/technical device,
c) indicate places where one can stay without any risk.208. Lubrication points in the machine should be serviced:
a) during all breaks in work,
b) according to the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine,
c) always after 10 hours of operation.209. Engine oil with parameters 5W-50 is:
a) a multi-season oil,
b) an oil only for summer,c) an oil only for winter.210. Before starting work on a new type of machine/technical device, the operator should:
a) familiarize themselves with the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine/technical device,
b) perform a periodic inspection,c) conduct a trial operation.211. OTC service is:
a) round-the-clock technical service,b) temporary technical service,
c) daily technical service.
212. The basic types of services are:
a) round-the-clock, multi-season, annual, technological service,
b) daily, periodic, warehouse, transport service,
c) visual, active, passive service.213. Batteries, when starting a machine using a supporting battery, should be connected:
a) in parallel,
b) in series,c) crosswise.214. In the event of electrolyte loss caused by spillage through a cracked battery casing, one should:
a) secure the leak area in terms of environmental protection, and then replace the battery,
b) add electrolyte to the proper level and charge the battery,c) add demineralized water to a level of 10 mm above the top edges of the plates.215. The activities performed by the operator as part of daily service during work are:
a) auditory control of the machine's operation and observation of indicators,
b) cleaning the machine,c) replenishing operating fluids and daily lubrication.216. If the manufacturer has provided for operational reaching, it should be carried out:
a) with maximum load,b) without load,
c) with the recommended load in the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine/technical device.
217. When storing the machine, one should ensure that:
a) the machine is facing the exit,
b) there are no leaks of operating fluids,
c) no documents of the machine are left in the cabin.218. Securing the machine during storage downtime involves:
a) cleaning the machine of dirt and corrosion,
b) filling the hydraulic oil tank to the top,c) disassembling all filters and protecting them from moisture.219. The rods of hydraulic actuators, during technical maintenance of the stored machine, should be:
a) disassembled and cleaned,
b) protected against corrosion,
c) taken apart and their seals replaced.220. During longer storage of the machine, the fuel tank should be:
a) filled to 1/3 of its capacity and left open,
b) filled to the top to prevent condensation of water vapor inside the tank,
c) empty to avoid fire hazards.221. During the daily operation of the machine, the following should be checked:
a) the values of working pressure in the hydraulic system,b) tools and equipment,
c) connections and tightness of the hydraulic system.
222. If the machine's engine has not been running for a long time during daily operation, you should:
a) check the oil level and other operating fluids,
b) start the engine and gently increase the RPM to reach the operating temperature faster,c) replace the fuel pre-filter.223. Information regarding faults, their codes, and methods of removal can be found in the document titled:
a) daily report,
b) operating and maintenance manual,
c) construction machine book.224. The correct sequence for connecting the auxiliary battery to the discharged battery in the machine is as follows:
a) negative terminal of the battery in the machine, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, machine frame,
b) positive terminal of the battery in the machine, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, machine frame,
c) machine frame, positive terminal of the battery in the machine, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery.225. In case of electrolyte loss in the battery, you should:
a) top it up with distilled or demineralized water,
b) top it up with DOT-3 fluid,c) top it up with water other than distilled.226. Checking the charge status of the starter battery 12 [V] by "sparking" poses a risk of:
a) an explosion of hydrogen escaping from the battery,
b) seizing of the alternator,c) electric shock from high voltage.227. The scope of daily technical service of a machine does not include:
a) checking and adjusting valve clearances,
b) checking the oil level in the engine,c) checking the condition of the tires and tire pressure.228. When cleaning the radiator, to avoid damaging it, one should:
a) use a strong stream of water under high pressure,b) use sharp tools for cleaning,
c) keep the compressed air nozzle at an appropriate distance from the radiator.
229. The purpose of lubrication in working machines is:
a) to reduce friction,
b) to increase the engine's rotational speed,c) to raise the temperature of cooperating elements.230. The most commonly used type of fuses in electrical installations of working machines is:
a) fuse links,
b) residual current devices,c) automatic fuses.231. The phenomenon of electrostatic discharge during the refueling of a machine can lead to:
a) a short circuit in the electrical installation,b) poisoning,
c) a fire.
232. In the case of connecting two batteries in parallel with different rated voltages:
a) thicker cables should be used than with batteries of the same rated voltages,
b) there may be an explosion of the battery with the lower rated voltage,
c) both batteries may discharge.233. The correct way to connect a battery to a charger during charging is:
a) the positive terminal of the battery to the negative terminal of the charger, the negative terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger,b) the positive terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger, the negative terminal of the charger to the "ground" of the machine,
c) the positive terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger, the negative terminal of the battery to the negative terminal of the charger.
234. After connecting the battery, the terminals are lubricated with:
a) technical vaseline,
b) graphite grease,c) grease containing molybdenum disulfide.235. If during daily technical maintenance the operator notices a leak in the cooling system, he should:
a) top up the coolant and continue working,
b) report the leak and not use the machine until it is repaired,
c) organize the fluid and top it up to the minimum level if the leak is small.236. The level of coolant in the expansion tank should be checked:
a) only during periodic technical service,b) only in case of engine overheating,
c) during every daily technical service.
237. If the operator notices a hydraulic fluid leak during daily technical service, they should:
a) top up the oil and continue working,
b) report the leak and not use the machine until repaired,
c) reduce the RPM and continue working.238. The frequency of performing periodic technical service depends on:
a) the number of hours worked (engine hours),
b) the production date of the machine,c) the number of completed working cycles.239. If during daily technical service the operator notices a low level of engine oil, they should:
a) top up the level with any available oil, even if it is of a different type,b) proceed with work if the level is not very low and the warning light is not on,
c) top up the oil to the appropriate level.
240. A characteristic activity for seasonal technical service is:
a) checking the working pressure value of the hydraulic system,
b) replacing the coolant with one suitable for the season,
c) checking the charging voltage value.241. Basic servicing tasks that must be performed before starting a diesel engine are:
a) checking the oil level in the gearbox, checking the operation of the working system, checking the operation of the brakes,b) bleeding the fuel system, checking the oil level in the transmission, checking the starter,
c) checking the oil level in the engine, checking the coolant level, checking the condition of the air filter.
242. Tasks performed as part of daily technical service (OTC) carried out during the operation of the machine are:
a) primarily the sensory inspection of the proper operation of the machine's working system,b) observation only of control and measurement indicators such as: oil pressure, engine temperature, hydraulic oil temperature,
c) observation of control and measurement instruments and monitoring the proper operation of the machine using sight, hearing, and smell.
243. We distinguish, among others, the following types of technical services:
a) transport, run-in, daily, periodic, seasonal, storage,
b) transport, run-in, storage, service-repair (ON), catalog,c) run-in, daily, periodic, seasonal, storage, emergency, night.244. We perform technical services for the purpose of:
a) maintaining the value of the machine or technical device at a constant, unchanged level,