Inland suction dredgers class III
Study mode
Question of 244
1. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage not exceeding 1 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 5 [m],b) not less than 2 [m],
c) not less than 3 [m].
2. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 15 [m],
b) not less than 5 [m],
c) not less than 10 [m].3. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 5 [m],b) not less than 15 [m],
c) not less than 10 [m].
4. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 15 [m],
b) not less than 10 [m],c) not less than 20 [m]. Dredgers Class III5. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 10 [m],b) not less than 15 [m],
c) not less than 30 [m].
6. Can workstations be organized in the danger zone under overhead power lines?
a) no, never,b) yes, always,
c) yes, but only after meeting additional requirements.
7. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [V]?
a) not less than 5 [m],
b) not less than 3 [m],
c) not less than 30 [m].8. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV]?
a) not less than 15 [m],
b) not less than 5 [m],
c) not less than 10 [m].9. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?
a) not less than 15 [m],b) not less than 30 [m],
c) not less than 10 [m].
10. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?
a) not less than 5 [m],b) not less than 15 [m],
c) not less than 10 [m].
11. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV]?
a) not less than 15 [m],
b) not less than 50 [m],c) not less than 30 [m].12. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV]?
a) not less than 30 [m],b) not less than 15 [m],
c) not less than 10 [m].
13. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]?
a) not less than 3 [m],
b) not less than 30 [m],
c) not less than 40 [m].14. Work in the danger zone (overhead high voltage power line):
a) may be carried out provided that the line is disconnected from voltage, the work is performed in an area limited by groundings and at least one grounding is visible from the work location,
b) may not be carried out under any circumstances under electric lines in the danger zone,c) may be carried out provided that permission from the work manager has been granted.15. The operator must perform work at a distance X from an active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [V]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 1 [m],
b) 5 [m],
c) 2 [m].16. The operator must perform work at a distance X from an active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 3 [m],
b) 15 [m],
c) 5 [m].17. The operator must perform work at a distance X from an active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 5 [m],b) 15 [m],
c) 50 [m].
18. If the injured person has a detectable pulse but is not breathing, then:
a) chest compressions should be performed,
b) the airways should be cleared and artificial respiration started,
c) he should not be touched.19. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, it is essential to:
a) assist those in life-threatening situations,
b) give medication to the injured,c) leave the accident scene to call a doctor.20. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, it is essential to:
a) assist those in life-threatening situations,b) leave the accident scene to call a doctor,
c) ensure your own safety.
21. The obligation to provide first aid to accident victims rests with:
a) only those who have medical training,b) everyone, but for any mistakes there is always criminal liability,
c) everyone, because part of the rescue tasks can always be performed.
22. The accident victim regained consciousness after a few minutes and wants to go home. In this situation, you should:
a) give her something to drink and painkillers,
b) persuade her to stay and call for medical help,
c) let her go home, recommending a visit to the doctor.23. First aid in a situation where a foreign body has entered the eye of the injured person consists of:
a) rinsing with clean water directing the stream from the nose outward from the eye,
b) rinsing with distilled water directing the stream inward to the eye,c) rinsing the eye with eye drops.24. The injured person cut their leg on an unsecured sharp element. Providing first aid in this situation is:
a) sticking a plaster directly on the wound,b) using a tourniquet,
c) applying sterile gauze, wrapping the wound with a bandage.
25. Suspecting spinal injury in a person who has fallen from a height and is conscious, you should:
a) lay her in the established side position,b) sit her in a semi-reclining position,
c) not move her and wait for medical services to arrive.
26. To move away from the place where the electric wire was interrupted and the area is under voltage, you should:
a) slowly step away from this place, taking small steps, trying to maintain continuous contact of your feet with the ground,
b) run as fast as possible to a place that we assess as safe,c) quickly step away from the source of electric shock, lifting your feet high.27. First aid in the case of a first-degree burn is:
a) applying ointment to the burned area,b) applying greasy cream to the burned area,
c) pouring cold water on the burned area.
28. During work, a high voltage power line was torn down, as a result of which a colleague was electrocuted. In this situation, the correct behavior is:
a) approach the injured person to provide first aid,b) call other colleagues for help with the injured person,
c) turn off the power source as quickly as possible.
29. We perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation until:
a) we have determined that the victim has started breathing and circulation has returned,
b) 10 minutes have passed,c) the fire department arrives and secures the area.30. Immediate action in the case of severe bleeding from an injured upper limb includes:
a) applying a dressing, directly compressing the bleeding site, and elevating the limb,
b) lowering the limb below the level of the heart,c) disinfecting the wound with salicylic alcohol.31. In case of a nosebleed, you should:
a) lay the victim on their back,b) tilt the head back and place a cold compress on the neck,
c) lean the bleeding person's head forward and pinch the nostrils.
32. The first step in dealing with a victim of carbon monoxide poisoning in a closed room is:
a) conducting a preliminary examination,b) assessing ABC,
c) the quickest possible evacuation of the victim from that room.
33. First aid during seizures caused by an epileptic attack consists of:
a) securing the victim's head from injuries,
b) placing a wooden object in the victim's mouth to prevent biting the tongue,c) seating the victim in a semi-sitting position and giving them something to drink.34. In case of suspected spinal injury in the cervical region in a conscious person, you should:
a) not allow the victim to move their head,
b) seat the victim in a chair with a high back,c) place the victim in a lateral position.35. The most important thing when a person is buried under earth, sand, or gravel is:
a) notifying the family,
b) locating the victim,
c) waiting for the arrival of the ambulance.36. First aid for a person with a metal rod embedded in their calf involves calling for help and:
a) moving the rod to check if the artery is damaged,b) removing the embedded rod,
c) securing the rod to prevent movement.
37. The indication for using an AED defibrillator is:
a) severe chest pain,b) severe dizziness,
c) absence of detectable breath and pulse in the injured person.
38. During the operation of a machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam, prohibited actions include:
a) making structural changes to the machine/technical device,
b) changing the working tool,c) performing daily technical service (OTC).39. During the operation of a machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam, prohibited actions include:
a) cleaning the machine/technical device using gasoline or solvents whose vapors can create flammable/explosive gas mixtures with air,
b) refueling the machine/technical device from a canister,c) cleaning the machine/technical device using a product in accordance with the operating and maintenance instructions.40. The machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam may only be operated by:
a) a person with written confirmation of course completion in the form of a plastic card,b) any adult person with technical education and a driver's license of the appropriate category,
c) a person who has completed training and obtained a positive result on the test conducted by the commission appointed by the Łukasiewicz Research Network – Warsaw University of Technology.
41. The permissions to operate machines/technical devices for which you are taking the exam are issued by:
a) Technical Supervision Office (UDT),b) County Office relevant to the address of the person applying for the permissions,
c) Łukasiewicz Research Network - Warsaw Institute of Technology (SBŁ - WIT).
42. The permissions to operate machines/technical devices for which you are taking the exam:
a) are valid indefinitely,
b) are valid for 10 years from the date of issue,c) are valid for 5 years from the date of issue.43. A person holding permissions to operate: "Inland dredgers class III" based on them:
a) can operate an inland suction dredger and a floating grab dredger,b) can operate an inland suction dredger and a floating single-bucket dredger,
c) can operate only an inland suction dredger.
44. An employee operating a machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam can start working provided that:
a) they have permissions to operate this type of machine/technical device,
b) the machine/technical device has a valid UDT inspection,c) they have a valid category D driving license.45. In the event of a threat to life, health, property, or the environment caused by a malfunction of the machine/technical device, the operator:
a) immediately stops work and informs their supervisor of this fact,
b) continues working but informs their supervisor of the situation at the end of the shift,c) continues working but makes an appropriate entry in the maintenance log at the end of the shift.46. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam has the right to refuse to work when:
a) he has the required personal protective equipment,b) there is an overhead power line at a distance of 35 meters with a rated voltage of 110 [kV],
c) this work requires special psychophysical fitness, and his psychophysical condition does not ensure its safe execution and poses a threat to others.
47. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is obliged to stop work when:
a) there is an overhead power line at a distance of 35 meters,
b) the work he is performing poses a direct threat to the health or life of others,
c) he has the required personal protective equipment.48. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is obliged to:
a) independently perform all current repairs of the machine/technical device,
b) comply with the provisions of the operating and maintenance instructions for the machine/technical device,
c) always have a category B driving license.49. The person directly responsible for the safe operation of the machine for which you are taking the exam is:
a) the owner of the machine,b) the construction manager,
c) the machine operator.
50. The operator's book and qualifications for the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam are issued by:
a) The Office of Technical Inspection (UDT),
b) The Łukasiewicz Research Network - Warsaw Institute of Technology,
c) The Transport Technical Inspection (TDT).51. The obligation to use personal protective equipment:
a) does not apply on hot days,b) results only from internal regulations,
c) results from the operating and maintenance instructions and health and safety regulations.
52. An employee who witnesses an accident at work:
a) is obliged to assist the victims and then immediately leave the scene of the accident,b) it is enough to notify the supervisor,
c) is obliged to assist the victims, notify the supervisor, and if necessary secure the accident site.
53. We define the danger zone as:
a) a place where work requiring specialized equipment is carried out, and the presence of people is only allowed at night,b) a place where employees only need to wear protective helmets,
c) a place where there are threats to the health and life of people.
54. The area that the operator should check and secure before starting work with a machine/technical device (because there are threats to the health and life of people) is called:
a) dead zone,b) area of increased risk,
c) danger zone.
55. During the charging of batteries, a gas with highly explosive properties is released. This gas is:
a) methane,
b) hydrogen,
c) ethane.56. Firefighting foam can be used to extinguish fires of group:
a) C and D,b) only C,
c) A and B.
57. Improper use of a snow extinguisher can result in:
a) fainting,
b) frostbite caused by the extinguishing agent,
c) burns from the extinguisher components.58. Water, fire blanket, powder extinguisher, carbon dioxide, sand are extinguishing agents that we will use to extinguish:
a) oils,b) liquids,
c) solids.
59. We can call sorbents:
a) materials made from natural or synthetic substances that absorb liquids,
b) fire blankets,c) petroleum-derived substances.60. Group A fires concern:
a) solids, whose normal combustion occurs with the formation of glowing coals, e.g., wood, paper, etc.,
b) flammable gases,c) flammable liquids.61. Group B fires concern:
a) flammable gases,
b) liquids and solid materials that melt, e.g. plastics, fuels, oils, etc.,
c) metals, e.g. magnesium, sodium, potassium, aluminum, titanium, etc.62. Group C fires concern:
a) solids,b) flammable liquids,
c) gases, e.g. methane, propane, acetylene, hydrogen.
63. Seeing such a pictogram you are informed about:
a) danger zone,b) a larger number of people in a given area,
c) the assembly point during evacuation.
64. While working you noticed a sign marked 'Zone 0'. It informs about:
a) a zone of a certain fire hazard category,b) a zone of existing fire load in the building,
c) a space where an explosive atmosphere exists.
65. The presented pictogram informs about:
a) a set of fire protection equipment,
b) an internal hydrant,c) the main power switch.
66. Seeing such a pictogram informs you about:
a) the assembly point during evacuation,b) the location of first aid,
c) the emergency exit.
67. Seeing such a pictogram informs you about:
a) the location of the fire extinguisher,
b) the high temperature affecting the fire extinguisher,c) the prohibition of using the fire extinguisher.68. You see a person whose clothing is on fire and who, in panic, is running away. Your reaction is:
a) you try to stop him, lay him down and start extinguishing,
b) you tell him to wait in an upright position for the arrival of rescue services,c) you wave your arms or outer covering strongly next to him to extinguish the burning clothing.69. Electrical devices and installations can be extinguished using:
a) powder or snow extinguishers,
b) foam extinguishers,c) water.70. Burning fuel can be extinguished using:
a) powder, foam, or snow extinguishers,
b) water,c) low-octane ethylene.71. Clothing on fire can be extinguished using:
a) plastic material,
b) water mist extinguisher or fire blanket,
c) snow or powder extinguisher.72. What obligations does an employee have when they decide to refrain from work due to health and safety regulations?
a) There are no obligations in this situation,b) They should organize work for others,
c) They must immediately notify their supervisor.
73. How can an operator prevent hazards in the workplace?
a) By not reporting faults in machines,
b) By using personal protective equipment to minimize risk,
c) By ignoring health and safety rules.74. It is not permissible to position a workplace directly under active overhead power lines or at a horizontal distance from the outermost wires of less than:
a) for all voltages - 1 [m] from the power line,
b) for lines: 1 [kV] - 3 [m], 15 [kV] - 5 [m], 30 [kV] - 10 [m], 110 [kV] - 15 [m], 400 [kV] - 30 [m],
c) for lines: 1 [kV] - 1 [m], 15 [kV] - 3 [m], 30 [kV] - 5 [m], 110 [kV] - 10 [m].75. How does the operator know what personal protective equipment is required for a given machine/technical device?
a) The choice of personal protective equipment depends on the opinions of colleagues at work,b) The operator must independently choose the appropriate protective measures,
c) Information about the necessary personal protective equipment is included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine.
76. The operator should refuse to perform the task when:
a) the work is being done at night,b) the work requires familiarization with the location of underground and overhead utilities,
c) the work is inconsistent with the purpose of the machine/technical device.
77. The operator can prevent hazards while operating the machine/technical device by:
a) inattention and routine,
b) following health and safety rules and adhering to the operating instructions,
c) limiting the use of personal protective equipment.78. Which of the situations listed is unacceptable during the use of the machine/technical device?
a) Operating the machine without supervision,b) Reporting faults directly to the supervisor,
c) Unauthorized persons being in the danger zone caused by the operation of the machine/technical device.
79. An accident at work is considered to be:
a) a long-term event related to the work being performed, caused by an internal reason, resulting in equipment damage,b) a sudden event not related to the work being performed, caused by an external reason, resulting in injury or death,
c) a sudden event related to the work being performed, caused by an external reason, resulting in injury or death.
80. A fatal accident at work is considered to be an accident in which death occurred:
a) only at the moment of the accident,b) within a period exceeding 6 months from the date of the accident,
c) within a period not exceeding 6 months from the date of the accident.
81. How can the operator of a dredger prevent hazards in the workplace?
a) By using personal and collective protective measures, regularly checking the technical condition of the machine, and following health and safety rules,
b) It is enough to use collective protective measures and occasionally check the technical condition of the machine,c) He should not undertake dredging if he cannot see the bottom of the water body.82. The collective protective measures used when operating a dredger are:
a) the life jacket and hard hat worn by the operator,
b) barriers and a lifebuoy,
c) emergency lighting and spare tools.83. When operating a floating dredger, it is prohibited to:
a) lift the digging tool above the water level,b) stop the dredger to take measurements or perform maintenance,
c) allow any external forces to act on the dredger's components that do not result from the normal operation of the technical device.
84. Health and safety regulations require:
a) the scrapping of the old working machine within the time specified in its operating and maintenance manual, while adhering to the requirements for the disposal of hazardous materials,
b) securing the working machine during breaks in its operation against accidental activation by unauthorized persons,
c) performing a warranty inspection of the working machine before one year from its purchase.85. In the event of electric shock to a person:
a) it is recommended to use any tools to disconnect the power, regardless of their actual purpose,
b) do not touch the injured person until the power source is disconnected,
c) immediate resuscitation should be initiated, regardless of whether the power source has been disconnected.86. Seeing a person whose clothes are on fire, you should first:
a) cut off the air supply by rolling the victim or wrapping them in a fire blanket, wet clothing, or a wet blanket,
b) leave the victim standing to facilitate air access and extinguish the flames faster,c) use a fire extinguisher, preferably a snow one, to extinguish the burning clothing, and then try to quickly remove the melted clothing.87. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is performed:
a) when the victim is breathing but unconscious, with no contact,
b) when the victim is not breathing and there is no detectable pulse. For a non-professional rescuer, lack of breathing is a sufficient basis to start resuscitation,
c) only in cases of fainting and minor injuries, to improve blood circulation.88. An employee has the right to refrain from performing work due to health and safety regulations, notifying their supervisor immediately when:
a) the work they are performing has not been reported to the construction supervision,
b) the working conditions pose an immediate threat to health or life,
c) the working conditions do not pose a threat but are too difficult for them.89. Physical factors generating hazards in the workplace are:
a) spilled lubricants, oils, and fuels,
b) lack of appropriate medical examinations for the employee,c) lack of or inadequate training for employees.90. Working with a machine/device is unacceptable when:
a) its repair was carried out after dark,
b) it is malfunctioning,
c) the second operator did not report an upcoming inspection.91. Work near overhead power lines:
a) is possible without meeting additional requirements provided that certain distances depending on the rated voltage of the line are maintained,
b) always requires the power in the line to be turned off,c) always requires double grounding of the line.92. The operator is obliged to refuse to work if:
a) the working machine is defective,
b) there is no site manager or any other authorized person for supervision at the work site,c) they would have to work under power lines, and the voltage in them has been turned off and the line grounded.93. The danger zone from a machine/technical device is:
a) a place where the machine/technical device cannot be used,b) always the entire fenced construction site,
c) a place where there are hazards to health or life of people.
94. Accidents at work resulting from the poor technical condition of the working machine may involve, for example:
a) injury to a limb, torso, or head,
b) failure of the drive system,c) damage to the equipment.95. Unacceptable behaviors are:
a) working with a defective machine and working under the influence of alcohol,
b) working after dark in a well-lit place, with full concentration of the operator,c) performing daily maintenance of the machine after dark.96. Operational hazards that may occur in the workplace of a dredger are:
a) improper management of working time, lack of sufficient number of employees,
b) moving parts of the machine, sharp elements, noise, vibrations, radiation, electricity, oils and greases, exhaust fumes,
c) working in a closed room without access to sunlight.97. Personal protective equipment for the operator of a floating dredger includes:
a) loose clothing in summer, warm everyday clothing in winter, rubber footwear, latex or leather gloves, reflective vest,b) comfortable work shoes, warm hat or alternatively a safety helmet, vest,
c) work footwear and clothing, safety helmet, reflective vest, life vest.
98. Prohibited activities during the operation of a floating dredger are:
a) operating the dredger after consuming alcohol and starting faulty devices,
b) performing maintenance on the dredger after it has been turned off,c) checking the technical condition of the machine before starting work.99. The basic duties of an employee regarding OHS are:
a) enforcing the provisions of the labor code regarding their rights, including payment for overtime worked,b) not being late for work, finishing on time, confirming presence at work in a manner accepted by the employer,
c) adhering to OHS regulations and principles, taking care of the condition of machines and tools, and maintaining order in the workplace, using personal protective equipment.
100. In the case of a person electrocuted, after disconnecting the power source, one should:
a) leave the victim alone if they have regained consciousness, without further actions,
b) check the condition of the victim, and if necessary: call for help, clear the airways, perform resuscitation, and use an AED if available,
c) move the victim to another place as quickly as possible.101. After extinguishing flames on a person with burns and calling for help, you should:
a) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes, without removing the fused clothing,
b) use a snow extinguisher to cool the burn area,c) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes, first removing the fused clothing.
102. Seeing such a pictogram, you are informed about:
a) a place to perform AED,
b) a place where an external automatic defibrillator is available,
c) a place where a first aid kit is available.103. Properly performed cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) consists of:
a) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 30-60 times per minute to a depth of 1–3 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 15 compressions (breaths are mandatory),b) connecting the external automatic defibrillator (AED) and following its instructions; CPR is not performed without AED,
c) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 100-120 times per minute to a depth of 5–6 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 30 compressions (breaths are not mandatory).
104. The abbreviation IBWR stands for:
a) Safe Work Execution Instruction,
b) Failure-Free Work Execution Instruction,c) Failure-Free Work Execution Guidelines.105. Expand the abbreviation IBWR:
a) Information on Safe Work Execution,b) Implementation of Failure-Free Work Execution,
c) Safe Work Execution Instruction.
106. The Safe Execution of Construction Works Instruction is:
a) construction work route plan,b) document confirming qualifications for operating machines and technical devices in earthworks, construction, and road works,
c) document containing information regarding safety on the construction site.
107. BIOZ Plan means:
a) Safety and Resource Definition Plan,b) Safe Health Protection Instruction Plan,
c) Safety and Health Protection Plan.
108. Rescue devices on board the dredger include:
a) lifebuoys and a rescue throw bag mounted on both sides,
b) maneuvering winches and a boathook,c) safety barriers.109. Safety barriers on a floating dredger are intended for:
a) mounting warning signals,b) reinforcing the structure of the floats,
c) securing routes and technological passages on board.
110. When working on floating units, machine operators should:
a) be equipped with life jackets,
b) have a valid swimming card,c) be secured with safety ropes to machine elements.111. A pressure pipeline can be used for transporting the material when:
a) the material is dewatered at the pulp site,
b) the material is dewatered at the dredger,c) the material is completely dry.112. A suction dredger is more effective than other machines for dredging work with sand fractions 0-2 because:
a) the hydraulic method allows for washing out the sand fraction,
b) the mechanical method is more effective than the hydraulic one,c) the suction dredger is smaller and more mobile than other machines.113. Standard inland suction dredgers usually operate to a depth of:
a) 40 [m] under standard conditions,
b) 20 [m], and under special conditions up to 35 [m],
c) 10 [m] regardless of the conditions.114. Water is used for loosening the material in the method of:
a) loosening using crushing and grinding heads,b) loosening using electric mixers,
c) loosening using pumping heads.
115. In the context of dredging work, the term 'pulp' refers to:
a) a layer of contaminants at the bottom of a water reservoir,b) technological water used for washing out the material,
c) a mixture of sand, gravel, and water extracted using a suction dredger.
116. After raising the suction pipeline at the end of the dredger's work, it is necessary to:
a) flush the suction and discharge pipeline with clean water for at least 10 minutes,
b) immediately stop the main pump and turn off the technical device,c) promptly activate the emergency power supply for electrical devices.117. Using a suction dredger, one can carry out:
a) mainly work related to the construction of water dams,
b) extraction of minerals from below the water surface,
c) leveling work at the edge of the water body.118. Floating belt conveyors can be used:
a) when it is possible to dewater the material in advance, e.g. by a rotary dewatering device,
b) when a pulp pit is not available,c) when the material is transported over a long distance without prior dewatering.119. The maximum working depth achievable for a standard inland suction dredger under special conditions is approximately:
a) 15 [m],
b) 35 [m],
c) 12 [m].120. The main methods of loosening material are:
a) hydraulic and mechanical,
b) internal and external,c) mechanical and manual.121. The components of the slurry extracted by suction dredgers are:
a) a mixture of sand, gravel, and water,
b) exclusively gravel and rocks,c) pure water and sand.122. A suction dredger can be used for:
a) deepening closed reservoirs, waterways, and trenching work,
b) unloading cargo ships,c) reinforcing concrete structures on the seabed.123. Maneuvering the dredger in the water area is done with the help of:
a) centrifugal pumps,
b) side winches,
c) JET type device.124. To wash away and loosen the bottom for easier suction of gravel, the following is used:
a) hydraulic JET cutting head,
b) clam shell and winch,c) centrifugal pump.125. The main function of maneuvering winches on the dredger is:
a) precise positioning of the machine in the intended location of the water area,
b) increasing the suction speed of the material,c) raising and lowering the suction head.126. The primary task of the JET pump is:
a) assisting the movement of the dredger,b) lubricating all hydraulic parts,
c) loosening the bottom during its excavation.
127. An additional task of the JET pump in the dredger may be:
a) driving side winches,
b) lubricating the suction pump gland,
c) maneuvering control.128. The wheel dewatering device in the material transport system is responsible for:
a) removing excess water from the material before further transport,
b) setting the conveyor belt at the appropriate angle to the water surface,c) transporting the material in the form of slurry.129. “Dredging” consists of:
a) filling the bottom of a water reservoir with bulk material to reduce its depth,b) crushing rocks at the bottom of the reservoir to obtain building material,
c) mechanically removing the layer of bottom sediments from water reservoirs or streams.
130. Maneuvering winches are used for:
a) maneuvering the bucket of the dredger,
b) precise positioning of the dredger in the working area,
c) driving warning devices.131. Steel bollards on the deck of a floating dredger:
a) provide support for warning devices,b) are a component securing the deck against flooding,
c) allow mooring of the dredger at the bow and stern.
132. The primary factor limiting the extraction capacity of the dredger is:
a) the depth of the water body,
b) the speed of the river current,c) the production efficiency of the processing plant.133. The element of the suction head of the dredger that allows for easier separation of the soil is:
a) the separator screen assembly,
b) the loosener,
c) the separator.134. Transporting the extracted material between the dredger and the dewatering device involves:
a) throwing the material onto the shore by the transport arm,
b) pumping the material through pipelines,
c) transporting the material using belt conveyors.135. Which of the listed elements are not part of the hydraulic system:
a) starter, alternator,
b) pump, distributor, actuator,c) hydraulic lock, hydraulic oil tank.136. The hydraulic lock in a machine is:
a) a valve protecting against uncontrolled movement of the element located in a given line,
b) the closure of the hydraulic oil inlet at its tank,c) a valve responsible for controlling the entire hydraulic system.137. The change of hydraulic oil pressure into mechanical movement is the responsibility of:
a) hydraulic actuator and hydraulic motor,
b) hydraulic distributor,c) hydraulic pump system.138. Pressure in the hydraulic system is generated by:
a) hydraulic actuator,
b) hydraulic pump,
c) hydraulic motor.139. Directing the flow of hydraulic oil to individual systems is carried out by:
a) hydraulic distributor,
b) relief valve,c) hydraulic lock.140. The safety valve protects the hydraulic system from:
a) excessive pressure increase,
b) overheating of hydraulic oil,c) air in the hydraulic system.141. The overflow valve in a hydraulic system is responsible for:
a) limiting the maximum working pressure in a given circuit,
b) maintaining a constant position of the working tool,c) venting the system.142. If the pressure in the hydraulic system rises excessively, the excess oil will be directed to:
a) the hydraulic oil filter,b) the distributor,
c) the hydraulic oil tank.
143. The basic parameters that characterize an electric accumulator are:
a) rated voltage [V], power [W], mass [kg],
b) rated voltage [V], capacity [Ah], starting current [A],
c) rated voltage [V], resistance [Ω], power [W].144. Lead-acid batteries can be charged:
a) in a place specifically designated for this purpose,
b) in any room,c) only in an air-conditioned room.145. A typical arrangement of anchor lines for a dredger without its own machine is:
a) a parallel arrangement, with three anchors at the bow and stern,
b) a star arrangement with 6 arms, with two anchors on the sides, one at the stern and one at the bow,
c) a cross arrangement, with one anchor on each side and one in the middle.146. In a star configuration of a 6-armed dredger without its own machine:
a) there is usually one anchor on each side,b) there are usually three anchors on each side,
c) there are usually two anchors on each side.
147. Inland suction dredgers are most often equipped with:
a) 6 maneuvering winches,
b) 4 maneuvering winches,
c) 2 maneuvering winches.148. To protect against mechanical hazards, belt conveyors should have:
a) protective covers for the drive and return drum,
b) an additional suction pump,c) a heating system.149. Rope safety switches on belt conveyors are used for:
a) speed regulation of the belt,
b) quick stopping of the conveyor in case of danger,
c) controlling the level of material suction.150. In the system of transporting excavated material with belt conveyors, the following is used:
a) rotary dewatering device,
b) pressure pipeline,c) JET pump.151. The protection of the suction pipeline against the intake of oversized material is provided by:
a) rubber-metal hose,b) sand pump,
c) suction nozzle with a protective basket.
152. The main element that sucks material in the suction pipeline is:
a) sand pump,
b) protective basket,c) lift unit.153. The pylons in the lift equipment of the suction pipeline serve to:
a) support the lift structure,
b) attach hooks,c) adjust the tension of the rope.154. The brake in the lift equipment of the suction pipeline:
a) regulates the tension of the rope,b) sets the pylons at the appropriate angle,
c) protects against uncontrolled movement of the rope.
155. In the control and technological drums of lifts, the following are used:
a) hydraulic and electric drive,
b) pneumatic and mechanical drive,c) combustion and manual drive.156. The fluid speed regulation of drums in elevators is provided by:
a) pneumatic drive,
b) hydrostatic drive,
c) combustion engine.157. In a parallel connection of two identical batteries, the voltage of such a system is:
a) the product of the voltages of individual batteries,b) the sum of the voltages of individual batteries,
c) equal to the voltage of a single battery.
158. In a series connection of two identical batteries, the voltage of such a system is:
a) the product of the voltages of individual batteries,
b) the sum of the voltages of individual batteries,
c) equal to the voltage of a single battery.159. Fuses in the electrical installation of a machine protect it against the effects of:
a) short circuits and overloads,
b) low voltage,c) high temperature.160. One of the elements of the electrical system protecting the motor from seizing is:
a) main fuse,
b) engine oil pressure sensor,
c) speed controller.161. Gel batteries that are part of the electrical system do not require:
a) replacement in case of housing damage,
b) replenishing the electrolyte,
c) charging with a rectifier.162. Electrical systems of machines and devices should be equipped with a device that causes emergency stop in at least the amount of:
a) three emergency stop devices, according to the European machinery directive,b) two emergency stop devices placed on both sides of the machine, according to the European machinery directive,
c) one emergency stop device, according to the European machinery directive.
163. The emergency stop device of a machine is part of:
a) the electrical system,
b) the fuel system,c) the drive system.164. Changing position on the water area of the dredger is possible thanks to:
a) the force of the water current,b) mooring devices,
c) maneuvering winches.
165. The pontoons of the floating dredger are connected to each other by:
a) actuators,b) a trailer with a cabin,
c) a platform.
166. The main parameters of the internal combustion engine affecting work efficiency are:
a) compression ratio, displacement,
b) torque, rotational speed,
c) type of carburetor, type of ignition system.167. The crank-piston system of the internal combustion engine is designed to:
a) convert the reciprocating motion of the piston into the rotational motion of the crankshaft,
b) convert mechanical energy into hydraulic energy,c) ensure the effective operation of the clutch.168. The lubrication system in the internal combustion engine:
a) ensures the regulation of rotational speed and reduces engine vibrations during operation,b) is responsible for removing hazardous substances generated in the combustion process of the mixture,
c) is responsible for the proper lubrication of the moving elements of the engine that work together.
169. The timing system of the engine is used for:
a) ensuring the optimal composition of the fuel-oil-air mixture for combustion,
b) controlling the filling of the combustion chamber with air or fuel-air mixture and controlling the emptying of this chamber of exhaust gases,
c) damping noise and minimizing engine vibrations during operation.170. Systems present in internal combustion engines include, among others:
a) crank-piston system, fuel supply system, cooling system,
b) exhaust system, pneumatic system, closed system,c) hydraulic system, intake system.171. The low-pressure part of the diesel engine fuel supply system is:
a) fuel tank, supply pump, filters, fuel lines,
b) fuel lines, high-pressure pump, common rail,c) fuel tank and injectors.172. The element controlling the flow of coolant in the so-called "large circuit" is:
a) thermosiphon,
b) thermostat,
c) thermocouple.173. An intercooler is:
a) an air cooler for turbocharged engines,
b) a device for burning solid particles in exhaust gases,c) another name for the engine coolant radiator.174. The DPF filter:
a) is a dry particulate filter responsible, among other things, for capturing soot from exhaust gases,
b) is used to reduce NOx (nitrogen oxides) emissions,c) is a precise cabin filter protecting the operator while working in high dust conditions.175. The frequency and scope of periodic maintenance of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam:
a) is determined by the owner of the machine/technical device,
b) is included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine,
c) is included in the IBWR documentation.176. The operating and maintenance manual for a machine/technical device is:
a) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by the health and safety services on the construction site,
b) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device,
c) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device, which includes, among other things, IBWR.177. The operator of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam must not:
a) use the machine/technical device contrary to its intended purpose,
b) during operation, check the technical condition of the machine/technical device,c) make any repairs or maintenance.178. A symptom of too low a level of hydraulic oil may be:
a) uneven operation of the diesel engine,
b) "jerky" intermittent movement of hydraulic actuators,
c) loud operation of the starter.179. If the warning light for too low engine oil pressure lights up, the operator:
a) may continue working if the hydraulic system is functioning properly,
b) should stop working and turn off the engine,
c) does not have to take any action.180. The operating and maintenance manual for a machine/technical device:
a) is used to record information about faults,
b) includes, among other things, information about hazards during the operation of the machine/technical device,
c) is established by the owner or user of the machine.181. The CE Declaration of Conformity is a document:
a) in which the manufacturer confirms that their product meets all applicable EU requirements regarding safety, health protection, and the environment,
b) confirming that the product was manufactured in the countries of the European Union,c) issued by institutions that test machines for resistance to weather conditions.182. Information regarding the use of personal protective equipment and ways to limit the occupational risk the operator can find:
a) in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device,
b) in the CE Declaration of Conformity,c) in the service book.183. The operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device:
a) is created by the construction manager based on information from the manufacturer,b) is created by institutions that conduct testing and accreditation of machine/technical device prototypes before allowing them for serial production,
c) is developed by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device or the entity that introduces the machine/technical device to the market.
184. The operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device:
a) should be kept in the office along with the company's documentation and be available in case of inspection,
b) should be located in the machine or with the technical device, treated as part of the machine/technical device and be available at any time,
c) does not matter where it is located, the most important thing is that the owner of the machine has it in case of resale of the machine.185. Identification data of the machine/technical device:
a) are located on the nameplate of the machine/technical device, additionally they may be in the marking places described in the manual,
b) should be noted on the inner side of the protective helmet assigned to the given machine/technical device,c) due to their importance are always printed in red.186. To minimize the risk of machine/technical device failure, the operator should:
a) perform maintenance activities only when the machine/technical device stops working,b) use the machine/technical device until the failure becomes serious,
c) regularly visually assess the condition of the machine/technical device and report any irregularities.
187. Key activities for the safe technical operation of the machine are:
a) using latex gloves, without the need for other personal protective equipment,
b) securing accessories, covers, and doors against accidental closure and using personal protective equipment,
c) performing technical service without securing working accessories to save time.188. Breaking in the machine during the initial period of operation is:
a) the stage of the machine's operation without load,
b) the process of achieving optimal clearances and even wear of parts,
c) an intensive full load test of the machine.189. The operator uses the operating and maintenance manual of the machine or technical device to:
a) record all faults of the machine or technical device noticed during operation,b) record the hours worked and fuel consumption by the machine,
c) learn the technical specifications, health and safety rules, and methods for repairing faults.
190. The operational part of the operating and maintenance manual of the machine or technical device includes:
a) instructions regarding, among others, controlling the machine/technical device,
b) a catalog of spare parts,c) a detailed description of the construction and operation of all elements of the machine/technical device.191. The operating and maintenance manual must always be present with the machine/technical device because:
a) it minimizes the risk of it being lost,
b) its absence may be the reason for the machine being deemed unfit for work by the OHS inspector,
c) it is essential for periodic technical inspections.192. The SAE designation on oil refers to:
a) the multi-season qualification of the oil,
b) the viscosity of the engine oil, meaning its ability to flow and lubricate,
c) the pressure of the engine oil.193. Oil with the SAE 15W-40 symbol means that:
a) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 15W, and at positive temperatures of summer oil class SAE 40,
b) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40,c) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 15W.194. Oil with the SAE 10W-30 symbol means that:
a) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W, and at positive temperatures of summer oil class SAE 30,
b) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W,c) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 30.195. The SAE 10W-30 symbol means:
a) a mixture of engine oil and hydraulic oil,
b) multi-season engine oil with specified parameters,
c) hydraulic oil with specified parameters.196. Engine oil with the symbol SAE 5W-40 means that:
a) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40,
b) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 5W, and at positive temperatures of summer oil class SAE 40,
c) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 5W.197. Oils with designations 70W, 85W, 80W-90 are:
a) gear oils,
b) engine oils,c) brake oils.198. Before starting work, the employee is required to check, among other things:
a) the expected weather for the current day,b) the oil stock in the warehouse,
c) the correctness of the installation and operation of collective protection measures.
199. In case of the need to dismantle the cover/protection for servicing, it is prohibited to:
a) reassemble the cover/protection,
b) start working with the device without the cover/protection installed,
c) record such a fact in the documentation.200. The most common faults of belt feeders include:
a) belt rotation,b) cracking at the joints of the conveyor and cracking of the frame,
c) problems with the bearing of rollers and fraying and cracking of the belt.
201. The lighting of the battery charging control light signals to the construction machine operator a failure of:
a) the V-belt and/or alternator,
b) the battery switch,c) the starter.202. If during daily technical service before work the operator notices that one of the windows in the cabin is cracked, then:
a) he should not start working,
b) he can start working provided that the window is only cracked and has not "fallen out",c) he can start working if it is not the front window.203. Before starting work, the operator should:
a) install sun shields on the windows,
b) clean the windows by removing snow, ice, and other contaminants,
c) open the windows for better communication.204. When changing hydraulic oils, one should:
a) use any type of oil,b) always use only biodegradable oils,
c) use only types of oils that are recommended by the machine manufacturer.
205. To ensure the technical efficiency of the working machine, one should:
a) follow technical service and maintenance according to the operating and maintenance instructions,
b) use the machine/technical device only under full load,c) use the machine/technical device not exceeding 50% of the permissible load.206. On the construction site, empty containers for lubricants, oil filters, and used oils should be:
a) thrown into the mixed waste container,b) thrown into any waste container,
c) placed in a properly marked hazardous waste container.
207. Stickers (pictograms) located on the machine/technical device serve to:
a) inform about the prohibition of approaching the machine/technical device,b) indicate places where one can stay without any risk,
c) convey important information about safety and the use of the machine/technical device.
208. Lubrication points in the machine should be serviced:
a) during all breaks in work,b) always after 10 hours of work,
c) according to the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine.
209. Engine oil with parameters 5W-50 is:
a) oil only for winter,
b) all-season oil,
c) oil only for summer.210. Before starting work on a new type of machine/technical device, the operator should:
a) familiarize themselves with the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine/technical device,
b) perform a test run,c) conduct a periodic inspection.211. OTC service is:
a) daily technical service,
b) temporary technical service,c) round-the-clock technical service.212. The basic types of services are:
a) round-the-clock, multi-seasonal, annual, technological service,b) visual, active, passive service,
c) daily, periodic, warehouse, transport service.
213. Batteries, when starting a machine using a supporting battery, should be connected:
a) crosswise,b) in series,
c) in parallel.
214. In the event of electrolyte loss caused by spillage through a cracked battery case, one should:
a) add demineralized water to a level 10 mm above the upper edges of the plates,b) add electrolyte to the proper level and charge the battery,
c) secure the leak area in terms of environmental protection, and then replace the battery.
215. The activities performed by the operator as part of daily service during work are:
a) cleaning the machine,
b) auditory control of the machine's operation and observation of indicators,
c) replenishing operating fluids and daily lubrication.216. If the manufacturer has provided for operational reaching, it should be implemented:
a) with maximum load,b) without load,
c) with the recommended load in the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine/technical device.
217. When storing the machine, one should ensure that:
a) the machine is facing the exit,b) no documents of the machine are left in the cabin,
c) there are no leaks of operating fluids.
218. Securing the machine during storage downtime involves:
a) cleaning the machine of dirt and corrosion,
b) disassembling all filters and protecting them from moisture,c) filling the hydraulic oil tank to the top.219. The rods of hydraulic cylinders, during technical maintenance of the stored machine, should be:
a) disassembled and cleaned,b) taken apart and their seals replaced,
c) protected against corrosion.
220. During longer storage of the machine, the fuel tank should be:
a) filled to 1/3 of its capacity and left open,
b) filled to the top to prevent condensation of water vapor inside the tank,
c) empty to avoid fire hazards.221. During the daily operation of the machine, the condition of should be checked:
a) connections and tightness of the hydraulic system,
b) tools and equipment,c) the value of working pressure in the hydraulic system.222. If the machine's engine has not been running for a long time during daily operation, you should:
a) check the oil level and other operating fluids,
b) start the engine and gently increase the RPM to reach the operating temperature faster,c) replace the fuel pre-filter.223. Information regarding faults, their codes, and methods of removal can be found in a document named:
a) daily report,
b) operating and maintenance manual,
c) construction machine book.224. The correct sequence for connecting the auxiliary battery to the discharged battery in the machine is as follows:
a) negative terminal of the battery in the machine, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, machine frame,
b) positive terminal of the battery in the machine, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, machine frame,
c) machine frame, positive terminal of the battery in the machine, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery.225. In case of electrolyte loss in the battery, you should:
a) top it up with water other than distilled,
b) top it up with distilled or demineralized water,
c) top it up with DOT-3 fluid.226. Checking the charge status of the starter battery 12 [V] by "sparking" poses a risk of:
a) seizing the alternator,b) electric shock from high voltage,
c) explosion of hydrogen escaping from the battery.
227. The scope of daily technical service for a machine does not include:
a) checking and adjusting valve clearances,
b) checking the condition of tires and tire pressure,c) checking the oil level in the engine.228. When cleaning the radiator, to avoid damaging it, one should:
a) use a strong stream of water under high pressure,
b) keep the compressed air nozzle at an appropriate distance from the radiator,
c) use sharp tools for cleaning.229. The purpose of lubrication in working machines is:
a) to reduce friction,
b) to raise the temperature of cooperating elements,c) to increase the engine's rotational speed.230. The most commonly used type of fuses in electrical installations of working machines is:
a) cartridge fuses,
b) automatic fuses,c) residual current devices.231. The phenomenon of electrostatic discharge during the refueling of a machine can lead to:
a) a short circuit in the electrical installation,b) poisoning,
c) a fire.
232. In the case of connecting two batteries in parallel with different rated voltages:
a) thicker cables should be used than with batteries of the same rated voltages,b) both batteries may discharge,
c) an explosion may occur in the battery with the lower rated voltage.
233. The correct way to connect a battery to a charger during charging is:
a) the positive terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger, the negative terminal of the charger to the "ground" of the machine,b) the positive terminal of the battery to the negative terminal of the charger, the negative terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger,
c) the positive terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger, the negative terminal of the battery to the negative terminal of the charger.
234. After connecting the battery, the terminals are lubricated with:
a) graphite grease,b) grease containing molybdenum disulfide,
c) technical vaseline.
235. If during daily technical service the operator notices a leak in the cooling system, he should:
a) organize fluid and refill to the minimum level if the leak is small,b) refill the coolant and continue working,
c) report the leak and not use the machine until it is repaired.
236. The level of coolant in the expansion tank should be checked:
a) only during periodic technical service,
b) during every daily technical service,
c) only in case of engine overheating.237. If the operator notices a hydraulic fluid leak during daily technical service, he should:
a) reduce the RPM and continue working,b) top up the oil and continue working,
c) report the leak and not use the machine until it is repaired.
238. The frequency of performing periodic technical service depends on:
a) the number of completed working cycles,
b) the number of hours worked (engine hours),
c) the production date of the machine.239. If during daily technical service the operator notices a low level of engine oil, he should:
a) start working if the level is not very low and the warning light is not on,
b) top up the oil to the appropriate level,
c) top up the level with any available oil, even if it is of a different type.240. A characteristic activity for seasonal technical service is:
a) replacing the coolant with one suitable for the season,
b) checking the charging voltage value,c) checking the working pressure value of the hydraulic system.241. Basic servicing tasks that must be performed before starting a diesel engine are:
a) bleeding the fuel system, checking the level of transmission oil, checking the starter,
b) checking the oil level in the engine, checking the coolant level, checking the condition of the air filter,
c) checking the oil level in the gearbox, checking the operation of the working system, checking the operation of the brakes.242. Tasks performed as part of daily technical service (OTC) carried out during the operation of the machine are:
a) observing only control and measurement indicators such as: oil pressure, engine temperature, hydraulic oil temperature,b) primarily sensory inspection of the proper operation of the machine's working system,