Floating multi-bucket dredgers class II
Study mode
Question of 242
1. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage not exceeding 1 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 2 [m],
b) not less than 3 [m],
c) not less than 5 [m].2. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 5 [m],
b) not less than 15 [m],c) not less than 10 [m].3. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 10 [m],
b) not less than 15 [m],c) not less than 5 [m].4. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 20 [m],b) not less than 10 [m],
c) not less than 15 [m]. Dredgers with multiple buckets Class II
5. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 15 [m],b) not less than 10 [m],
c) not less than 30 [m].
6. Can workstations be organized in the danger zone under overhead power lines?
a) yes, but only after meeting additional requirements,
b) yes, always,c) no, never.
7. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [V]?
a) not less than 3 [m],
b) not less than 30 [m],c) not less than 5 [m].8. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV]?
a) not less than 5 [m],
b) not less than 10 [m],c) not less than 15 [m].9. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?
a) not less than 15 [m],b) not less than 30 [m],
c) not less than 10 [m].
10. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?
a) not less than 15 [m],b) not less than 5 [m],
c) not less than 10 [m].
11. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV]?
a) not less than 30 [m],
b) not less than 15 [m],
c) not less than 50 [m].12. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV]?
a) not less than 10 [m],
b) not less than 15 [m],c) not less than 30 [m].13. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]?
a) not less than 40 [m],
b) not less than 30 [m],
c) not less than 3 [m].14. Work in the danger zone (overhead high voltage power line):
a) under no circumstances can be carried out under electrical lines in the danger zone,
b) can be carried out provided that the line is disconnected from voltage, the work is performed in a zone limited by groundings and at least one grounding is visible from the work site,
c) can be carried out provided that permission from the work manager has been granted.15. The operator must perform work at a distance X from an active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [V]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 1 [m],
b) 5 [m],
c) 2 [m].16. The operator must perform work at a distance X from an active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 3 [m],b) 5 [m],
c) 15 [m].
17. The operator must perform work at a distance X from an active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 5 [m],
b) 50 [m],
c) 15 [m].18. If the injured person has a detectable pulse but is not breathing, then:
a) chest compressions should be performed,b) he should not be touched,
c) the airways should be cleared and artificial respiration should be started.
19. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, it is essential to:
a) assist those in life-threatening situations,
b) give medication to the injured,c) leave the accident scene to call a doctor.20. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, it is essential to:
a) leave the accident scene to call a doctor,
b) ensure your own safety,
c) assist those in life-threatening situations.21. The obligation to provide first aid to accident victims rests with:
a) only those who have medical training,
b) everyone, as part of the rescue tasks can always be performed,
c) everyone, but criminal liability always threatens for mistakes made.22. The accident victim regained consciousness after a few minutes and wants to go home. In this situation, one should:
a) allow her to go home, recommending a visit to the doctor,b) give her something to drink and painkillers,
c) persuade her to stay and call for medical help.
23. First aid in a situation where a foreign body has entered the eye of the injured person consists of:
a) rinsing with distilled water directing the stream to the inside of the eye,b) rinsing the eye with eye drops,
c) rinsing with clean water directing the stream from the nose outward from the eye.
24. The injured person cut their leg on an unsecured sharp element. Providing first aid in this situation is:
a) using sterile gauze, wrapping the wound with a bandage,
b) sticking a plaster directly on the wound,c) using a tourniquet.25. Suspecting spinal injury in a person who has fallen from a height and is conscious, one should:
a) seat her in a semi-reclining position,
b) not move her and wait for medical services to arrive,
c) lay her in a stable lateral position.26. To move away from the place where the electric wire was interrupted and the area is under voltage, one should:
a) run as quickly as possible to a place that we assess as safe,b) quickly step away from the source of electric shock with large steps, lifting feet high,
c) slowly leave this place with small steps, trying to maintain continuous contact of feet with the ground.
27. First aid in the case of a first-degree burn is:
a) applying ointment to the burned area,b) applying greasy cream to the burned area,
c) pouring cold water on the burned area.
28. During work, a high voltage power line was torn down, as a result of which a colleague was electrocuted. In this situation, the correct behavior is:
a) call other colleagues for help with the injured person,
b) turn off the power source as quickly as possible,
c) approach the injured person to provide first aid.29. We perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation until:
a) the fire brigade arrives and secures the area,b) 10 minutes pass,
c) we have determined that the victim has started to breathe and circulation has returned.
30. Immediate action in the case of severe bleeding from an injured upper limb includes:
a) lowering the limb below the level of the heart,
b) applying a dressing, directly pressing the bleeding site, and raising the limb,
c) disinfecting the wound with salicylic alcohol.31. In case of a nosebleed, one should:
a) tilt the head back and place a cold compress on the neck,b) lay the injured person on their back,
c) lean the bleeding person's head forward and pinch the nostrils.
32. The first step in dealing with a victim of carbon monoxide poisoning in a closed room is:
a) the quickest possible evacuation of the injured person from that room,
b) conducting a preliminary examination,c) assessing ABC.33. First aid during seizures caused by an epileptic attack consists of:
a) securing the injured person's head from injuries,
b) seating the injured person in a semi-sitting position and giving them something to drink,c) placing a wooden object in the injured person's mouth to prevent biting their tongue.34. In case of suspected cervical spine injury in a conscious person, one should:
a) not allow the injured person to move their head,
b) place the injured person in a lateral position,c) seat the injured person in a chair with a high back.35. The most important thing when a person is buried under earth, sand, or gravel is:
a) notifying the family,
b) locating the injured person,
c) waiting for the arrival of the ambulance.36. First aid for a person with a metal rod embedded in their calf involves calling for help and:
a) securing the rod to prevent movement,
b) moving the rod to check if the artery is damaged,c) removing the embedded rod.37. The indication for using an AED defibrillator is:
a) absence of detectable breathing and pulse in the victim,
b) severe dizziness,c) severe chest pain.38. During the operation of a machine/technical device, the prohibited actions for which you are taking the exam are:
a) making structural changes to the machine/technical device,
b) changing the working tool,c) performing daily technical service (DTS).39. During the operation of a machine/technical device, the prohibited actions for which you are taking the exam are:
a) refueling the machine/technical device from a canister,b) cleaning the machine/technical device using a substance compliant with the operating and maintenance manual,
c) cleaning the machine/technical device using gasoline or solvents whose vapors can create flammable/explosive gas mixtures with air.
40. When performing earthworks with a machine for which you are taking the exam, it is unacceptable to:
a) have people within a distance greater than the maximum reach of the working tool plus 6 meters,b) have people near the machine during technical service operations,
c) have people within the working range of the machine's working tool.
41. During the execution of work, it is unacceptable to:
a) work near an active power line with a rated voltage of 20 [kV] at a distance of 15 [m],
b) work near active overhead power lines at a distance less than specified by regulations,
c) work near an active power line with a rated voltage of 10 [kV] at a distance of 10 [m].42. The machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam can only be operated by:
a) a person with written confirmation of course completion in the form of a plastic card,b) any adult person with technical education and a driving license of the appropriate category,
c) a person who has completed training and obtained a positive result in the test conducted by the commission appointed by the Łukasiewicz Research Network – Warsaw Institute of Technology.
43. The qualifications to operate machines/technical devices for which you are taking the exam are issued by:
a) Łukasiewicz Research Network - Warsaw Institute of Technology (LRN - WIT),
b) The County Office appropriate for the residence address of the person applying for qualifications,c) The Office of Technical Inspection (UTI).44. The qualifications to operate machines/technical devices for which you are taking the exam:
a) are valid indefinitely,
b) are valid for 10 years from the date of issue,c) are valid for 5 years from the date of issue.45. A person holding qualifications to operate: "Floating multi-bucket dredgers class II" based on them:
a) can operate single-bucket floating dredgers and floating multi-bucket dredgers,b) can operate floating multi-bucket dredgers and inland suction dredgers,
c) can only operate floating multi-bucket dredgers.
46. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam may take up work provided that:
a) has the qualifications to operate this type of machine/technical device,
b) the machine/technical device has a valid UDT inspection,c) has a valid category D driving license.47. In the event of a threat to life, health, property, or the environment caused by a malfunction of the machine/technical device, the operator:
a) continues working but informs the supervisor about the situation at the end of the shift,
b) immediately stops work and informs the supervisor of this fact,
c) continues working but makes an appropriate entry in the maintenance book at the end of the shift.48. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam has the right to refuse to take up work when:
a) this work requires special psychophysical fitness, and his psychophysical condition does not ensure its safe performance and poses a threat to others,
b) there is an overhead power line with a rated voltage of 110 [kV] located 35 meters away,c) has the required personal protective equipment.49. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is obliged to stop work when:
a) the work he is performing poses an immediate threat to the health or life of others,
b) there is an overhead power line located 35 meters away,c) has the required personal protective equipment.50. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is obliged to:
a) always have a category B driving license,
b) comply with the provisions of the operating and maintenance instructions for the machine/technical device,
c) independently perform all current repairs of the machine/technical device.51. The person directly responsible for the safe operation of the machine you are taking the exam for is:
a) machine operator,
b) construction manager,c) machine owner.52. The operator's book and qualifications for the machine/technical device you are taking the exam for are issued by:
a) Technical Supervision Authority (UDT),b) Transport Technical Supervision (TDT),
c) Łukasiewicz Research Network - Warsaw Institute of Technology.
53. The obligation to use personal protective equipment:
a) does not apply on hot days,
b) results from the operating and maintenance instructions and health and safety regulations,
c) results only from internal regulations.54. An employee who witnesses an accident at work:
a) is obliged to assist the victims and then immediately leave the accident site,
b) is obliged to assist the victims, notify the supervisor, and if necessary secure the accident site,
c) it is enough to notify the supervisor.55. We define the danger zone as:
a) a place where employees must only wear protective helmets,
b) a place where there are threats to the health and life of people,
c) a place where work requiring specialized equipment takes place, and the presence of people is only allowed at night.56. The area that the operator should check and secure before starting work with a machine/technical device (because there are health and life hazards) is called:
a) danger zone,
b) dead zone,c) area of increased risk.57. During the charging of batteries, a gas with highly explosive properties is released. This gas is:
a) ethane,b) methane,
c) hydrogen.
58. Firefighting foam can be used to extinguish fires of group:
a) only C,
b) A and B,
c) C and D.59. Improper use of a snow extinguisher can result in:
a) frostbite caused by the extinguishing agent,
b) burns from the extinguisher components,c) fainting.60. Water, fire blanket, powder extinguisher, carbon dioxide, sand are extinguishing agents that we will use to extinguish:
a) solid bodies,
b) liquids,c) oils.61. Sorbents can be called:
a) fire blankets,
b) materials made of natural or synthetic substances that absorb liquids,
c) petroleum-derived substances.62. Group A fires concern:
a) flammable gases,
b) solid bodies whose normal combustion occurs with the formation of glowing coals, e.g. wood, paper, etc.,
c) flammable liquids.63. Group B fires concern:
a) liquids and solid materials that melt, e.g. plastics, fuels, oils, etc.,
b) flammable gases,c) metals, e.g. magnesium, sodium, potassium, aluminum, titanium, etc..64. Group C fires concern:
a) gases, e.g. methane, propane, acetylene, hydrogen,
b) flammable liquids,c) solid bodies.
65. Seeing such a pictogram you are informed about:
a) a larger number of people in a given area,b) a danger zone,
c) a gathering place during evacuation.
66. During work, you noticed a sign marked "Zone 0". It informs about:
a) the zone of existing fire load in the building,b) the zone of existing fire hazard category,
c) the space where an explosive atmosphere exists.
67. The presented pictogram informs about:
a) a set of fire protection equipment,
b) the main power switch,c) an internal hydrant.
68. Seeing such a pictogram, you are informed about:
a) the emergency exit,
b) the location of first aid,c) the assembly point during evacuation.
69. Seeing such a pictogram, you are informed about:
a) the location of the fire extinguisher,
b) the prohibition of using the fire extinguisher,c) the high temperature affecting the fire extinguisher.70. You see a person whose clothing is on fire and who, in panic, is running away. Your reaction is:
a) you try to stop him, lay him down and start extinguishing,
b) you wave your arms or outer garment strongly next to him to extinguish the burning clothing,c) you tell him to wait in an upright position for the arrival of rescue services.71. Electrical devices and installations can be extinguished using:
a) water,b) foam extinguishers,
c) powder or snow extinguishers.
72. Burning fuel can be extinguished using:
a) water,b) low-octane ethylene,
c) powder, foam, or snow extinguishers.
73. Clothing burning on a person can be extinguished using:
a) snow or powder extinguisher,
b) water mist extinguisher or fire blanket,
c) plastic material.74. What obligations does an employee have when they decide to refrain from work due to health and safety regulations?
a) They should organize work for others,b) They have no obligations in this situation,
c) They must immediately notify their supervisor.
75. How can an operator prevent hazards in the workplace?
a) By using personal protective equipment to minimize risk,
b) By not reporting faults in machines,c) By ignoring health and safety rules.76. It is not permissible to position the workplace directly under active overhead power lines or at a horizontal distance from the outermost wires of less than:
a) for lines: 1 [kV] - 3 [m], 15 [kV] - 5 [m], 30 [kV] - 10 [m], 110 [kV] - 15 [m], 400 [kV] - 30 [m],
b) for all voltages - 1 [m] from the power line,c) for lines: 1 [kV] - 1 [m], 15 [kV] - 3 [m], 30 [kV] - 5 [m], 110 [kV] - 10 [m].77. How does the operator know what personal protective equipment is required for a given machine/technical device?
a) The operator must independently choose the appropriate protective measures,b) The choice of personal protective equipment depends on the opinion of colleagues at work,
c) Information about the necessary personal protective equipment is included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine.
78. The operator should refuse to perform a task when:
a) the work requires familiarization with the location of underground and above-ground utilities,
b) the work is inconsistent with the purpose of the machine/technical device,
c) the work is being performed at night.79. The operator can prevent hazards during the operation of the machine/technical device by:
a) limiting the use of personal protective equipment,b) inattention and routine,
c) following health and safety rules and adhering to the operating instructions.
80. Which of the situations listed is unacceptable during the use of the machine/technical device?
a) The presence of unauthorized persons in the danger zone caused by the operation of the machine/technical device,
b) Operating the machine without supervision,c) Reporting faults directly to the supervisor.81. An accident at work is considered:
a) a sudden event related to the work performed, caused by an external factor, resulting in injury or death,
b) a sudden event not related to the work performed, caused by an external factor, resulting in injury or death,c) a long-term event related to the work performed, caused by an internal factor, resulting in equipment damage.82. A fatal accident at work is considered to be an accident in which death occurred:
a) more than 6 months after the date of the accident,
b) within 6 months from the date of the accident,
c) only at the moment of the accident.83. How can the operator of a dredger prevent hazards in the workplace?
a) It is enough to use collective protective measures and occasionally check the technical condition of the machine,b) He should not undertake dredging if he cannot see the bottom of the water body,
c) By using personal and collective protective measures, regularly checking the technical condition of the machine, and following health and safety rules.
84. The collective protective measures used when working with a dredger are:
a) railings and a lifebuoy,
b) emergency lighting and spare tools,c) a life jacket and a safety helmet worn by the operator.85. When operating a floating dredger, it is prohibited to:
a) lift the digging tool above the water level,b) stop the dredger to take measurements or perform maintenance,
c) allow any external forces to act on the dredger's components that do not result from the normal operation of the technical device.
86. Occupational health and safety regulations require:
a) scrapping the old working machine within the time specified in its operating and maintenance instructions, while adhering to the requirements for the disposal of hazardous materials,
b) securing the working machine during breaks in its operation against accidental activation by unauthorized persons,
c) performing a warranty inspection of the working machine before the end of one year from its purchase.87. In the event of a person being electrocuted:
a) it is recommended to use any tools to disconnect the power, regardless of their actual purpose,b) one must immediately begin resuscitation, regardless of whether the power source has been disconnected,
c) one must not touch the victim until the power source has been disconnected.
88. Seeing a person whose clothing is on fire, one should first:
a) leave the victim standing to facilitate air access and extinguish the flames more quickly,b) use a fire extinguisher, preferably a snow type, to extinguish the burning clothing, and then try to quickly tear off the melted clothing,
c) cut off the air supply by rolling the victim or wrapping them in a fire blanket, wet clothing, or a wet blanket.
89. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is performed:
a) when the victim is not breathing and there is no detectable pulse. For a person who is not a professional rescuer, the absence of breathing is a sufficient basis to start resuscitation,
b) only in cases of fainting and minor injuries, to improve blood circulation,c) when the victim is breathing but is unconscious and there is no contact with them.90. An employee has the right to refrain from performing work due to occupational health and safety regulations, notifying their supervisor immediately if:
a) the working conditions do not pose a threat, but are too difficult for them,b) the work they are performing has not been reported to the construction supervision,
c) the working conditions pose a direct threat to health or life.
91. Physical factors generating hazards in the workplace are:
a) spilled lubricants, oils, and fuels,
b) lack of appropriate medical examinations of the employee,c) lack of or inadequate training of employees.92. Working with a machine/technical device is not allowed when:
a) the second operator has not reported an upcoming inspection,
b) it is malfunctioning,
c) its repair was carried out after dark.93. Working near overhead power lines:
a) always requires double grounding of the line,b) always requires power to be turned off in the line,
c) is possible without meeting additional requirements provided that certain distances depending on the rated voltage of the line are maintained.
94. The operator is obliged to refuse to work if:
a) the working machine is malfunctioning,
b) they would have to work under power lines, and the voltage in them has been turned off and the line grounded,c) there is no construction manager or any other person authorized to supervise at the work site.95. The danger zone from a machine/technical device is:
a) a place where the machine/technical device cannot be used,b) always the entire fenced construction site,
c) a place where there are hazards to health or life of people.
96. Accidents at work resulting from the poor technical condition of the working machine may include, for example:
a) injury to a limb, torso or head,
b) damage to the equipment,c) failure of the drive system.97. Unacceptable behaviors include:
a) operating a faulty machine and working under the influence of alcohol,
b) performing daily maintenance of the machine after dark,c) working after dark in a well-lit area, with full concentration of the operator.98. General rules for safely getting on and off the machine are:
a) a person should face the machine, remember the "three-point support" rule, and use only specially made steps and handrails,
b) it is permissible to step back from the machine, but only when the steps are slippery,c) using cables and levers as aids when getting on is allowed when the machine is turned off.99. Operational hazards that may occur in the workplace of a dredger include:
a) improper time management, lack of sufficient staff,b) working in a closed room without access to sunlight,
c) moving machine parts, sharp elements, noise, vibrations, radiation, electricity, oils and greases, exhaust fumes.
100. Personal protective equipment for the operator of a floating dredger includes:
a) work shoes and clothing, safety helmet, reflective vest, life jacket,
b) comfortable work shoes, warm hat or alternatively a safety helmet, vest,c) loose summer clothing, warm winter casual clothing, rubber footwear, latex or leather gloves, reflective vest.101. Prohibited activities during the operation of a floating dredger are:
a) checking the technical condition of the machine before starting work,b) performing maintenance on the dredger after it has been turned off,
c) operating the dredger after consuming alcohol and starting faulty technical devices.
102. The basic duties of an employee in terms of occupational health and safety are:
a) not being late for work, finishing on time, confirming presence at work in the manner accepted by the employer,
b) adhering to health and safety regulations and rules, taking care of the condition of machines and tools, and maintaining order in the workplace, using personal protective equipment,
c) enforcing labor code regulations regarding their rights, including payment for overtime worked.103. In the case of a person electrocuted, after disconnecting the power source, one should:
a) leave the victim alone if they have regained consciousness, without further actions,
b) check the condition of the victim, and if necessary: call for help, clear the airways, perform resuscitation, and use an AED if available,
c) move the victim to another location as quickly as possible.104. When a person buried under earth or sand is partially dug out, one should:
a) clear the airways as quickly as possible,
b) quickly dig out the left arm to check for a pulse,c) focus on digging out the lower parts of the victim's body.105. After extinguishing flames on a person with burns and calling for help, one should:
a) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes, without removing the stuck clothing,
b) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes, first removing the stuck clothing,c) use a snow extinguisher to cool the burn area.106. If the operator notices faults that may prevent the proper operation of the machine, then:
a) ignore the faults if the machine is currently working properly,
b) is obliged to refuse to start the machine and report this fact to the supervisor,
c) should continue working and repair the machine after completing the task.
107. Seeing such a pictogram you are informed about:
a) the location where an external automatic defibrillator is available,
b) the location where a first aid kit is available,c) the location for performing AED.108. Properly performed cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) consists of:
a) connecting the external automatic defibrillator (AED) and following its instructions; without AED, CPR is not performed,
b) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 100-120 times per minute to a depth of 5–6 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 30 compressions (breaths are not mandatory),
c) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 30-60 times per minute to a depth of 1–3 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 15 compressions (breaths are mandatory).109. The abbreviation IBWR stands for:
a) Instruction for Non-Failure Execution of Works,b) Instruction for Non-Failure Performance of Works,
c) Instruction for Safe Execution of Works.
110. Expand the abbreviation IBWR:
a) Implementation of Non-Failure Execution of Works,b) Information on Safe Execution of Works,
c) Instruction for Safe Execution of Works.
111. The Safe Execution of Construction Works Instruction is:
a) a document confirming the qualifications to operate machines and technical devices in earthworks, construction, and road works,b) a plan of the route in construction works,
c) a document containing information regarding safety on the construction site.
112. The BIOZ Plan means:
a) the Safety and Resource Specification Plan,b) the Safe Health Protection Instruction Plan,
c) the Safety and Health Protection Plan.
113. Rescue devices on board the dredger include:
a) protective railings,
b) lifebuoys and a rescue throw bag mounted on both sides,
c) maneuvering winches and a boat hook.114. Protective railings on the floating dredger are intended for:
a) mounting warning signals,
b) securing routes and technological passages on board,
c) reinforcing the structure of the floats.115. When working on floating units, machine operators should:
a) be secured with safety ropes to machine elements,b) have a valid swimming card,
c) be equipped with life jackets.
116. During the operation of dredgers, significant hazards are posed by boulders and large objects because:
a) they can easily damage the technical device, which involves high repair costs,
b) they can slow down the flow of water causing the water level to rise, especially in small bodies of water,c) they usually have high hardness.117. The main advantage of bucket dredgers is:
a) low efficiency suited for small tasks,b) small operating range beneficial in precise work,
c) the ability to work in continuous mode.
118. The greatest difficulties during the operation of dredgers can be posed by geological elements such as:
a) small stones,
b) boulders and tree trunks,
c) sandy deposits.119. Bucket dredgers can operate:
a) exclusively in hard rocks, as buckets are adapted to high loads,b) only in soft silt and clay, as harder soils require other types of machines,
c) in almost all types of soil, from soft silt and clay to soft rocks and blasted rock.
120. "Dredging" involves:
a) filling the bottom of a water reservoir with loose material to reduce its depth,b) crushing rocks at the bottom of the reservoir to obtain building material,
c) mechanically removing the layer of bottom sediments from water reservoirs or streams.
121. Dredging is considered a reclamation procedure because
a) it removes bottom sediments containing biogenic substances, which improves the quality of the aquatic environment,
b) it creates new sediments that support the biodiversity of the reservoir's bottom,c) it increases the amount of bottom sediments, promoting the growth of aquatic plants.122. The use of floating grab dredgers instead of other types of machines is justified during:
a) work requiring precise removal of bottom sediments,
b) only in bodies of water with great depths,c) shaping flood embankments on land.123. The dredger moves 'upstream' while extracting the material:
a) using anchor winches pulling it along the ropes,
b) with manual control by the operator on the water body,c) thanks to the continuous drive of the screw blades directed 'upstream'.124. The grab dredger is particularly effective:
a) in transporting material over long distances when there is no need to dredge the bottoms of reservoirs,
b) in extracting raw materials from the bottoms of shallow water bodies,
c) in working at great depths.125. Maneuvering winches are used for:
a) powering warning devices,
b) precise positioning of the dredger in the working water body,
c) maneuvering the dredger's bucket.126. Steel bollards on the deck of a floating dredger:
a) allow mooring of the dredger at the bow and stern,
b) provide support for warning devices,c) are a safety element protecting the deck from flooding.127. The maximum operational depth of the dredger is important because:
a) it determines the ability to work in specific water bodies,
b) it affects the maximum capacity of the bucket,c) it allows precise positioning of the machine at the work site.128. The theoretical and nominal efficiency of the dredger differ because:
a) nominal efficiency is independent of the number of buckets,b) theoretical efficiency only concerns the power of the main drive,
c) nominal efficiency takes into account the actual working conditions of the machine.
129. Buckets in multi-bucket dredgers are used for:
a) mechanically excavating the deposit continuously,
b) lifting and transporting the excavated material on ropes or chains to the conveyor,c) screening the material on the water surface.130. The main feature characterizing the technological cycle of a multi-bucket dredger is that:
a) the dredger operates in a continuous cycle,
b) the dredger operates in a mixed cycle,c) the dredger operates in an interrupted cycle.131. The basic factor limiting the extraction capabilities of the dredger is:
a) the depth of the water body,
b) the speed of the river current,c) the production efficiency of the processing plant.132. Bucket dredgers excavate the bottom of the water body in a:
a) pressure manner,
b) mechanical manner,
c) pneumatic manner, loosening the extracted material.133. The bucket dredger preliminarily dewaters the extracted material thanks to:
a) crushers,
b) perforated bucket bottoms,
c) centrifugal separators.134. Which of the listed elements are not part of the hydraulic system:
a) hydraulic lock, hydraulic oil tank,b) pump, distributor, actuator,
c) starter, alternator.
135. The hydraulic lock in the machine is:
a) a valve responsible for controlling the entire hydraulic system,b) a closure of the hydraulic oil inlet at its tank,
c) a valve protecting against uncontrolled movement of the element located in a given line.
136. The change of hydraulic oil pressure into mechanical movement is the responsibility of:
a) hydraulic pump system,
b) hydraulic actuator and hydraulic motor,
c) hydraulic distributor.137. Pressure in the hydraulic system is generated by:
a) hydraulic motor,
b) hydraulic pump,
c) hydraulic actuator.138. Directing the flow of hydraulic oil to individual systems is carried out by:
a) relief valve,b) hydraulic lock,
c) hydraulic distributor.
139. The safety valve protects the hydraulic system from:
a) overheating of hydraulic oil,b) air in the hydraulic system,
c) excessive pressure increase.
140. The relief valve in the hydraulic system is responsible for:
a) venting the system,
b) limiting the maximum working pressure in a given circuit,
c) maintaining a constant position of the working tool.141. If the pressure in a hydraulic system rises excessively, the excess oil will be directed to:
a) the distributor,b) the hydraulic oil filter,
c) the hydraulic oil tank.
142. The basic parameters that characterize an electric accumulator are:
a) rated voltage [V], power [W], mass [kg],b) rated voltage [V], resistance [Ω], power [W],
c) rated voltage [V], capacity [Ah], starting current [A].
143. Lead-acid batteries can be charged:
a) in a place specifically designated for this purpose,
b) only in an air-conditioned room,c) in any room.144. A hydraulic distributor:
a) increases the torque in the side transmission,
b) directs the flow of hydraulic oil to the appropriate sections,
c) converts mechanical energy into hydraulic energy.145. A hydraulic distributor is a device that:
a) distributes oil between the small circuit and the large circuit,b) distributes oil between the engine and the hydraulic system,
c) allows control of individual hydraulic sections of the machine.
146. The flow and direction of hydraulic fluid in the system are regulated by:
a) hydraulic pumps,b) hydraulic motors,
c) hydraulic valves.
147. Elements of the system, such as actuators and hydraulic motors, convert hydraulic energy into:
a) mechanical energy,
b) electrical energy,c) pressure in the tank.148. In a parallel connection of two identical batteries, the voltage of such a system is:
a) the sum of the voltages of the individual batteries,
b) equal to the voltage of a single battery,
c) the product of the voltages of the individual batteries.149. In a series connection of two identical batteries, the voltage of such a system is:
a) the product of the voltages of the individual batteries,
b) the sum of the voltages of the individual batteries,
c) equal to the voltage of a single battery.150. Fuses in the electrical installation of the machine protect it from the effects of:
a) short circuits and overloads,
b) low voltage,c) high temperature.151. One of the elements of the electrical system protecting the motor from seizing is:
a) main fuse,
b) engine oil pressure sensor,
c) speed controller.152. Gel batteries, which are elements of the electrical system, do not require:
a) replacement in case of housing damage,
b) electrolyte replenishment,
c) charging with a rectifier.153. Electrical systems of machines and devices should be equipped with a device that causes emergency stop in at least the quantity of:
a) two emergency stop devices placed on both sides of the machine, according to the European machinery directive,b) three emergency stop devices, according to the European machinery directive,
c) one emergency stop device, according to the European machinery directive.
154. The emergency stop device of the machine is an element of:
a) electrical system,
b) fuel system,c) drive system.155. Changing position on the water area of the dredger is possible thanks to:
a) maneuvering winches,
b) the force of the water current,c) mooring devices.156. The buckets of the floating multi-bucket dredger are mounted on:
a) load-bearing ropes,b) supporting arms,
c) a chain.
157. The pontoons of the floating dredger are connected to each other by:
a) actuators,
b) a platform,
c) a trailer with a cabin.158. The working tool of the multi-bucket dredger is:
a) a bucket,
b) a scoop,
c) a grab.159. The main parameters of the internal combustion engine affecting work efficiency are:
a) type of carburetor, type of ignition system,b) compression ratio, displacement,
c) torque, rotational speed.
160. The crank-piston system of the internal combustion engine is designed to:
a) convert mechanical energy into hydraulic energy,
b) convert the reciprocating motion of the piston into the rotational motion of the crankshaft,
c) ensure the effective operation of the clutch.161. The lubrication system in an internal combustion engine:
a) is responsible for removing hazardous substances generated in the combustion process of the mixture,
b) is responsible for properly lubricating the moving parts of the engine that work together,
c) provides regulation of the rotational speed and reduces engine vibrations during operation.162. The engine timing system is used for:
a) damping noise and minimizing engine vibrations during operation,
b) controlling the filling of the combustion chamber with air or air-fuel mixture and controlling the emptying of this chamber of exhaust gases,
c) ensuring the optimal composition of the air-fuel-oil mixture for combustion.163. Systems present in internal combustion engines include, among others:
a) hydraulic system, intake system,b) exhaust system, pneumatic system, closed system,
c) crank-piston system, fuel system, cooling system.
164. The low-pressure part of the fuel supply system in a diesel engine is:
a) fuel lines, high-pressure pump, common rail,b) fuel tank and injectors,
c) fuel tank, supply pump, filters, fuel lines.
165. The element controlling the flow of coolant to the so-called "large circuit" is:
a) thermocouple,b) thermos,
c) thermostat.
166. An intercooler is:
a) a device for burning solid particles in exhaust gases,
b) a charged air cooler,
c) another name for the engine coolant radiator.167. DPF filter:
a) is a precise cabin filter protecting the operator while working in high dust conditions,b) is used to reduce NOx (nitrogen oxides) emissions,
c) is a dry particulate filter responsible for capturing soot from exhaust gases, among other things.
168. The device that transports the extracted material in a bucket ladder dredger is:
a) a pipeline transporting the extracted material for processing,b) a set of connected barges for transporting material,
c) a belt conveyor to the crusher and screener.
169. Devices used to maneuver a floating dredger are:
a) hydraulic cylinders,
b) maneuvering winches and control systems,
c) steel bollards at the bow and stern.170. On the trailer of a bucket ladder dredger, there is:
a) a drive engine, a generator set,b) a tank for fuel and oils,
c) an operator's cabin.
171. The main elements that form the basis of the multi-bucket dredger's construction are:
a) floats, boom, rear stand of the dredger,
b) hull, lifting mechanism of the boom with drive, feed hopper,c) cutting head, transport pipeline, carriers of lifting tracks.172. The frequency and scope of periodic maintenance of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam:
a) is determined by the owner of the machine/technical device,
b) are included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine,
c) are included in the IBWR documentation.173. The operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device is:
a) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device, which includes, among others, IBWR,
b) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device,
c) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by the health and safety services on the construction site.174. The operator of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is not allowed to:
a) check the technical condition of the machine/technical device during operation,b) make any repairs or maintenance,
c) use the machine/technical device contrary to its intended purpose.
175. A symptom of too low a level of hydraulic oil may be:
a) "jerky" intermittent movement of hydraulic actuators,
b) loud operation of the starter,c) uneven operation of the diesel engine.176. If the engine oil pressure warning light comes on, the operator:
a) may continue to work if the hydraulic system is functioning properly,b) does not have to take any action,
c) should stop working and turn off the engine.
177. The operating and maintenance manual for the machine/technical device:
a) is used to record information about faults,b) is established by the owner or user of the machine,
c) includes, among other things, information about hazards when operating the machine/technical device.
178. The CE Declaration of Conformity is a document:
a) confirming that the product was manufactured in the countries of the European Union,b) issued by institutions that test machines for resistance to weather conditions,
c) in which the manufacturer confirms that its product meets all applicable EU requirements regarding safety, health protection, and environmental protection.
179. The operator can find information on the use of personal protective equipment and ways to limit occupational risk:
a) in the CE Declaration of Conformity,
b) in the operating and maintenance manual for the machine/technical device,
c) in the service book.180. The operating and maintenance manual for the machine/technical device:
a) is developed by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device or the entity that places the machine/technical device on the market,
b) is created by institutions that conduct testing and accreditation of machine/technical device prototypes before allowing them for serial production,c) is created by the construction manager based on information from the manufacturer.181. Operating and maintenance instructions for the machine/technical device:
a) should be located in the machine or near the device, treated as part of the machine/device and be available at all times,
b) should be kept in the office along with the company's documentation and be available in case of inspection,c) it does not matter where it is located, the most important thing is that the owner of the machine has it in case of resale of the machine.182. Identification data of the machine/technical device:
a) due to their importance, they are always printed in red,b) should be noted on the inner side of the protective helmet assigned to the specific machine/device,
c) are located on the nameplate of the machine/device, additionally they may be in marking places described in the instructions.
183. To minimize the risk of malfunction of the machine/technical device, the operator should:
a) regularly visually assess the condition of the machine/device and report any noticed irregularities,
b) perform maintenance activities only when the machine/device stops working,c) use the machine/device until the failure becomes serious.184. Key activities for the safe technical operation of the machine are:
a) using latex gloves, without the need for other personal protective equipment,
b) securing attachments, covers, and doors against accidental closure and using personal protective equipment,
c) performing technical service without securing working attachments to save time.185. Breaking in the machine during the initial period of operation is:
a) a stage of the machine's operation without load,
b) the process of achieving optimal clearances and even wear of parts,
c) an intensive full load test of the machine.186. The operator uses the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine or technical device to:
a) record the hours worked and fuel consumption by the machine,
b) learn the technical specifications, health and safety rules, and methods of repairing faults,
c) record all faults of the machine or technical device noticed during operation.187. The SAE designation on the oil refers to:
a) the multi-season qualification of the oil,b) the pressure of the engine oil,
c) the viscosity of the engine oil, that is, its ability to flow and lubricate.
188. Oil with the symbol SAE 15W-40 means that:
a) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40,b) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 15W,
c) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 15W, and at positive temperatures of summer oil class SAE 40.
189. Oil with the symbol SAE 10W-30 means that:
a) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W,
b) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W, and at positive temperatures of summer oil class SAE 30,
c) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 30.190. The symbol SAE 10W-30 means:
a) hydraulic oil with specified parameters,
b) multi-season engine oil with specified parameters,
c) a mixture of engine oil and hydraulic oil.191. Engine oil with the symbol SAE 5W-40 means that:
a) at negative temperature it has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40,b) at positive temperature it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 5W,
c) at negative temperature it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 5W, and at positive temperature of summer oil class SAE 40.
192. The symbol of the warning light shown in the graphic means:
a) low engine oil pressure,
b) low engine oil level,
c) low coolant level.
193. The symbol of the warning light shown in the graphic means:
a) low coolant level,
b) low engine oil pressure,
c) low fuel level.
194. The symbol of the light shown means:
a) engine oil,
b) engine oil filter,c) hydraulic oil.
195. The symbol of the light shown means:
a) hydraulic oil level,b) engine coolant level,
c) engine oil level.
196. Oils with designations 70W, 85W, 80W-90 are:
a) engine oils,b) brake oils,
c) gear oils.
197. Before starting work, the employee is required to check, among other things:
a) the correctness of the assembly and operation of collective protection measures,
b) the oil stock in the warehouse,c) the expected weather for the current day.198. In the event of the need to dismantle the cover/protection for maintenance, it is not allowed to:
a) reassemble the cover/protection,
b) start working with the device without installing the cover/protection,
c) record such a fact in the documentation.199. The lighting of the battery charging control light signals to the construction machine operator a failure of:
a) the starter,
b) the V-belt and/or alternator,
c) the battery switch.200. If during daily technical maintenance before work the operator notices that one of the windows in the cabin is cracked, then:
a) he should not start working,
b) he may start working provided that the window is only cracked and has not "fallen out",c) he may start working if it is not the front window.201. Before starting work, the operator should:
a) open windows for better communication,b) install window sun shields,
c) clean the windows by removing snow, ice, and other contaminants.
202. When changing hydraulic oils, one should:
a) use any type of oil,
b) use only types of oils recommended by the machine manufacturer,
c) always use only biodegradable oils.203. To ensure the technical efficiency of the working machine, one should:
a) operate the machine/technical device only under full load,
b) follow technical service and maintenance according to the operating and maintenance instructions,
c) operate the machine/technical device without exceeding 50% of the permissible load.204. On the construction site, empty containers of lubricants, oil filters, and used oils should be:
a) placed in a properly marked container for hazardous waste,
b) thrown into any waste container,c) thrown into a mixed waste container.205. Stickers (pictograms) located on the machine/technical device serve to:
a) convey important information about safety and the use of the machine/technical device,
b) inform about the prohibition of approaching the machine/technical device,c) indicate places where one can stay without any risk.206. Grease points in the machine should be serviced:
a) always after 10 hours of operation,b) during all breaks in work,
c) according to the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine.
207. Engine oil with parameters 5W-50 is:
a) oil only for winter,
b) all-season oil,
c) oil only for summer.208. Before starting work on a new type of machine/technical device, the operator should:
a) perform a periodic inspection,b) perform a test run,
c) familiarize themselves with the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine/technical device.
209. OTC service is:
a) round-the-clock technical service,b) temporary technical service,
c) daily technical service.
210. The basic types of service are:
a) visual, active, passive service,b) round-the-clock, all-season, annual, technological service,
c) daily, periodic, warehouse, transport service.
211. Batteries, when starting the machine using a supporting battery, should be connected:
a) crosswise,
b) in parallel,
c) in series.212. In the case of electrolyte loss caused by spillage through a cracked battery casing, one should:
a) add demineralized water to a level 10 mm above the top edges of the plates,
b) secure the leakage area in terms of environmental protection, and then replace the battery,
c) add electrolyte to the proper level and charge the battery.213. The activities performed by the operator as part of daily maintenance during operation are:
a) auditory control of the machine's operation and observation of indicators,
b) cleaning the machine,c) replenishing operating fluids and daily lubrication.214. If the manufacturer has provided for operational running-in, it should be carried out:
a) with the load recommended in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device,
b) with the maximum load,c) without load.215. When storing the machine, one should ensure that:
a) no machine documents are left in the cabin,
b) there are no leaks of operating fluids,
c) the machine is facing the exit.216. The protection of the machine during storage downtime consists of:
a) cleaning the machine of dirt and corrosion,
b) filling the hydraulic oil tank to the top,c) disassembling all filters and protecting them from moisture.217. The rods of hydraulic actuators, during technical service of the machine in storage, should be:
a) disassembled and cleaned,b) taken apart and their seals replaced,
c) protected against corrosion.
218. During longer storage of the machine, the fuel tank should be:
a) filled to the top to prevent condensation of water vapor inside the tank,
b) filled to 1/3 of its capacity and left open,c) empty to avoid fire hazards.219. During daily operation of the machine, the condition of should be checked:
a) the value of working pressure in the hydraulic system,b) tools and equipment,
c) connections and tightness of the hydraulic system.
220. If the machine's engine has not been running for a longer time during daily operation, it should be:
a) started and gently increase the RPM to reach the operating temperature faster,b) replace the fuel pre-filter,
c) check the oil level and other operating fluids.
221. Information regarding faults, their codes, and methods of removal can be found in the document named:
a) construction machine book,b) daily report,
c) operating and maintenance manual.
222. The correct order for connecting the auxiliary battery to the discharged battery in the machine is as follows:
a) positive terminal of the battery in the machine, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, machine frame,
b) negative terminal of the battery in the machine, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, machine frame,c) machine frame, positive terminal of the battery in the machine, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery.223. In the event of electrolyte loss in the battery, one should:
a) refill it with water other than distilled,b) refill it with DOT-3 fluid,
c) refill it with distilled or demineralized water.
224. Checking the charge state of the 12 [V] starter battery by "sparking" poses a risk of:
a) explosion of hydrogen escaping from the battery,
b) electric shock from high voltage,c) seizure of the alternator.225. The scope of daily technical service of the machine does not include:
a) checking and adjusting valve clearances,
b) checking the condition of tires and tire pressure,c) checking the oil level in the engine.226. When cleaning the radiator, to avoid damaging it, you should:
a) keep the compressed air nozzle at an appropriate distance from the radiator,
b) use a strong jet of water under high pressure,c) use sharp tools for cleaning.227. The purpose of lubrication in working machines is:
a) to raise the temperature of cooperating elements,b) to increase the engine's rotational speed,
c) to reduce friction.
228. The most commonly used type of fuses in electrical installations of working machines is:
a) automatic fuses,b) residual current devices,
c) cartridge fuses.
229. The phenomenon of electrostatic discharge during refueling a machine can lead to:
a) a short circuit in the electrical installation,b) poisoning,
c) a fire.
230. In the case of parallel connection of two batteries with different rated voltages:
a) the battery with the lower rated voltage may explode,
b) both batteries may discharge,c) thicker cables should be used than with batteries of the same rated voltages.231. Correctly connecting the battery to the charger during charging is:
a) positive terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger, negative terminal of the charger to the "ground" of the machine,
b) positive terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger, negative terminal of the battery to the negative terminal of the charger,
c) positive terminal of the battery to the negative terminal of the charger, negative terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger.232. After connecting the battery, the terminals are lubricated with:
a) technical vaseline,
b) graphite grease,c) grease containing molybdenum disulfide.233. If during daily technical service the operator notices a leak in the cooling system, he should:
a) organize fluid and refill to the minimum level if the leak is small,
b) report the leak and not use the machine until it is repaired,
c) refill the coolant and continue working.234. The level of coolant in the expansion tank should be checked:
a) during every daily technical service,
b) only in case of engine overheating,c) only during periodic technical service.235. If the operator notices a hydraulic fluid leak during daily technical service, he should:
a) reduce the RPM and continue working,
b) report the leak and not use the machine until it is repaired,
c) refill the oil and continue working.236. The frequency of performing periodic technical service depends on:
a) the number of completed working cycles,
b) the number of hours worked (engine hours),
c) the production date of the machine.237. If during daily technical service the operator notices a low level of engine oil, he should:
a) top up the oil to the appropriate level,
b) continue working if the level is not very low and the warning light is not on,c) top up the level with any available oil, even if it is of a different type.238. A characteristic activity for seasonal technical service is:
a) replacing the coolant with one appropriate for the season,
b) checking the working pressure values of the hydraulic system,c) checking the charging voltage values.239. The basic service activities that should be performed before starting a diesel engine are:
a) checking the oil level in the engine, checking the coolant level, checking the condition of the air filter,
b) checking the oil level in the gearbox, checking the operation of the working system, checking the operation of the brakes,c) bleeding the fuel system, checking the level of transmission oil, checking the starter.240. Activities performed as part of daily technical service (OTC) carried out during the operation of the machine include:
a) observing only the control and measurement indicators such as: oil pressure, engine temperature, hydraulic oil temperature,b) primarily conducting a sensory inspection of the proper operation of the machine's working system,
c) observing control and measurement instruments and checking the proper operation of the machine using sight, hearing, and smell.
241. We distinguish, among others, the following types of technical services:
a) transport, reaching, storage, service-repair (SR), catalog,b) reaching, daily, periodic, seasonal, storage, emergency, night,