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Gasoline-powered road surface cutters class III

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Question of 186

1. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage not exceeding 1 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?

a) not less than 2 [m],b) not less than 5 [m],

c) not less than 3 [m].

2. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?

a) not less than 5 [m],

b) not less than 10 [m],c) not less than 15 [m].

3. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?

a) not less than 10 [m],

b) not less than 5 [m],c) not less than 15 [m].

4. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?

a) not less than 20 [m],b) not less than 10 [m],

c) not less than 15 [m]. Road surface cutters with gasoline engine Class III

5. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?

a) not less than 15 [m],

b) not less than 30 [m],

c) not less than 10 [m].

6. Can workstations be organized in the danger zone under overhead power lines?

a) yes, always,

b) yes, but only after meeting additional requirements,

c) no, never.
Question 7 - illustration

7. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [V]?

a) not less than 3 [m],

b) not less than 30 [m],c) not less than 5 [m].
Question 8 - illustration

8. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV]?

a) not less than 10 [m],

b) not less than 5 [m],

c) not less than 15 [m].
Question 9 - illustration

9. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?

a) not less than 30 [m],b) not less than 15 [m],

c) not less than 10 [m].

Question 10 - illustration

10. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?

a) not less than 5 [m],

b) not less than 10 [m],

c) not less than 15 [m].
Question 11 - illustration

11. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV]?

a) not less than 50 [m],

b) not less than 15 [m],

c) not less than 30 [m].
Question 12 - illustration

12. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV]?

a) not less than 10 [m],

b) not less than 15 [m],c) not less than 30 [m].
Question 13 - illustration

13. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]?

a) not less than 40 [m],b) not less than 3 [m],

c) not less than 30 [m].

14. Work in the danger zone area (overhead high voltage power line):

a) under no circumstances can be carried out under electrical lines in the danger zone,b) can be carried out provided that permission has been granted by the work manager,

c) can be carried out provided that the line has been disconnected from voltage, the work is performed in a limited area with groundings, and at least one grounding is visible from the work location.

Question 15 - illustration

15. The operator must perform work at a distance X from an active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [V]. He can start work if this distance is:

a) 2 [m],

b) 5 [m],

c) 1 [m].
Question 16 - illustration

16. The operator must perform work at a distance X from an active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]. He can start work if this distance is:

a) 5 [m],

b) 15 [m],

c) 3 [m].
Question 17 - illustration

17. The operator must perform work at a distance X from an active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]. He can start work if this distance is:

a) 15 [m],

b) 50 [m],

c) 5 [m].

18. If the injured person has a detectable pulse but is not breathing, then:

a) the airways should be cleared and artificial respiration started,

b) chest compressions should be performed,c) he should not be touched.

19. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, it is essential to:

a) move away from the accident scene to call a doctor,

b) provide assistance to those in life-threatening situations,

c) give medication to the injured.

20. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, it is essential to:

a) ensure your own safety,

b) provide assistance to those in life-threatening situations,c) move away from the accident scene to call a doctor.

21. The obligation to provide first aid to accident victims rests with:

a) everyone, as it is always possible to perform part of the rescue tasks,

b) only those who have medical training,c) everyone, but there is always a risk of criminal liability for mistakes.

22. The accident victim regained consciousness after a few minutes and wants to go home. In this situation, one should:

a) give her something to drink and painkillers,

b) persuade her to stay and call for medical help,

c) let her go home, advising a visit to the doctor.

23. First aid in a situation where a foreign body has entered the eye of the injured person consists of:

a) rinsing with distilled water directing the stream to the inside of the eye,

b) rinsing with clean water directing the stream from the nose outward from the eye,

c) rinsing the eye with eye drops.

24. The injured person cut their leg on an unsecured sharp element. Providing first aid in this situation is:

a) using a tourniquet,b) applying a plaster directly on the wound,

c) using sterile gauze, wrapping the wound with a bandage.

25. Suspecting spinal injury in a person who has fallen from a height and is conscious, one should:

a) seat her in a semi-reclining position,b) lay her in a stable lateral position,

c) not move her and wait for medical services to arrive.

26. To move away from the place where the electric wire was interrupted and the area is under voltage, you should:

a) run as quickly as possible to a place that we assess as safe,b) quickly step away from the source of electric shock with large steps, lifting your feet high,

c) leave this place slowly, taking small steps, trying to maintain continuous contact of your feet with the ground.

27. First aid in the case of a first-degree burn is:

a) applying ointment to the burned area,b) applying greasy cream to the burned area,

c) pouring cold water on the burned area.

28. During work, a high voltage power line was torn down, as a result of which a colleague was electrocuted. In this situation, the correct behavior is:

a) approach the injured person to provide first aid,

b) turn off the power source as quickly as possible,

c) call other colleagues for help with the injured person.

29. We perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation until:

a) 10 minutes have passed,

b) we have determined that the victim has started to breathe and circulation has returned,

c) the fire brigade arrives and secures the area.

30. Immediate action in the case of severe bleeding from an injured upper limb includes:

a) applying a dressing, directly compressing the bleeding site, and elevating the limb,

b) disinfecting the wound with salicylic alcohol,c) lowering the limb below the level of the heart.

31. In case of a nosebleed, one should:

a) tilt the head back and place a cold compress on the neck,b) lay the victim on their back,

c) lean the bleeding person's head forward and pinch the nostrils.

32. The first step in dealing with a victim of carbon monoxide poisoning in a closed room is:

a) conducting a preliminary examination,

b) the quickest possible evacuation of the victim from that room,

c) assessing ABC.

33. First aid during seizures caused by an epileptic attack consists of:

a) placing a wooden object in the victim's mouth to prevent biting the tongue,

b) protecting the victim's head from injuries,

c) seating the victim in a semi-sitting position and giving them something to drink.

34. In case of suspected cervical spine injury in a conscious person, one should:

a) place the victim in a lateral position,

b) not allow the victim to move their head,

c) seat the victim in a chair with a high back.

35. The most important thing when a person is buried under earth, sand, or gravel is:

a) locating the victim,

b) notifying the family,c) waiting for the arrival of the ambulance.

36. First aid for a person with a metal rod embedded in their calf involves calling for help and:

a) securing the rod to prevent movement,

b) removing the embedded rod,c) moving the rod to check if the artery has been damaged.

37. The indication for using an AED defibrillator is:

a) severe dizziness,

b) absence of detectable breath and pulse in the injured person,

c) severe chest pain.

38. During the operation of a machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam, prohibited actions include:

a) changing the working tool,

b) making structural changes to the machine/technical device,

c) performing daily technical service (OTC).

39. During the operation of a machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam, prohibited actions include:

a) refueling the machine/technical device from a canister,

b) cleaning the machine/technical device using gasoline or solvents whose vapors can create flammable/explosive gas mixtures with air,

c) cleaning the machine/technical device using a product in accordance with the operating and maintenance instructions.

40. The machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam may only be operated by:

a) any adult person with technical education and a driver's license of the appropriate category,

b) a person who has completed training and obtained a positive result from the test conducted by the commission appointed by the Łukasiewicz Research Network – Warsaw Institute of Technology,

c) a person with written confirmation of course completion in the form of a plastic card.

41. The permissions to operate machines/technical devices for which you are taking the exam are issued by:

a) The County Office appropriate for the residence address of the person applying for the permissions,b) The Office of Technical Inspection (UDT),

c) The Research Network Łukasiewicz - Warsaw Institute of Technology (SBŁ - WIT).

42. The permissions to operate machines/technical devices for which you are taking the exam:

a) are valid for 10 years from the date of issue,b) are valid for 5 years from the date of issue,

c) are valid indefinitely.

43. A person holding permissions to operate: "Road surface cutters with gasoline engine class III" may, based on them, operate:

a) road surface milling machines,b) road surface cutters with gasoline engine and road surface milling machines,

c) road surface cutters with gasoline engine.

44. An employee operating a machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam may start work provided that:

a) the machine/technical device has a valid UDT inspection,

b) they have permissions to operate this type of machine/technical device,

c) they have a valid category D driving license.

45. In the event of a threat to life, health, property, or the environment caused by a malfunction of the machine/technical device, the operator:

a) continues working, but at the end of the shift makes an appropriate entry in the maintenance book,b) continues working, but at the end of the shift informs the supervisor about the situation,

c) immediately stops work and informs the supervisor about this fact.

46. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam has the right to refuse to work when:

a) he has the required personal protective equipment,

b) this work requires special psychophysical fitness, and his psychophysical condition does not ensure its safe performance and poses a threat to others,

c) there is an overhead power line with a rated voltage of 110 [kV] at a distance of 35 meters.

47. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is obliged to stop work when:

a) the work he is performing poses an immediate threat to the health or life of others,

b) there is an overhead power line at a distance of 35 meters,c) he has the required personal protective equipment.

48. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is obliged to:

a) always have a category B driving license,

b) comply with the provisions of the operating and maintenance instructions for the machine/technical device,

c) independently perform all current repairs of the machine/technical device.

49. The person directly responsible for the safe operation of the machine for which you are taking the exam is:

a) the owner of the machine,

b) the operator of the machine,

c) the construction manager.

50. The operator's book and qualifications for the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam are issued by:

a) Łukasiewicz Research Network - Warsaw Institute of Technology,

b) Technical Supervision Office (UDT),c) Transport Technical Supervision (TDT).

51. The obligation to use personal protective equipment:

a) results only from internal regulations,

b) results from the operating and maintenance instructions and health and safety regulations,

c) does not apply on hot days.

52. An employee who witnesses an accident at work:

a) is obliged to assist the victims, notify the supervisor, and if necessary secure the accident site,

b) is obliged to assist the victims and then immediately leave the accident site,c) it is enough to notify the supervisor.

53. We define the danger zone as:

a) a place where there are threats to the health and life of people,

b) a place where employees must only wear protective helmets,c) a place where work requiring specialized equipment takes place, and the presence of people is only allowed at night.

54. The danger zone on a construction site:

a) is designated and/or fenced and marked in a way that prevents access to unauthorized persons,

b) is designated after the construction work has started,c) is always designated by a surveyor.

55. The area that the operator should check and secure before starting work with a machine/technical device (because there are threats to the health and life of people) is called:

a) dead zone,b) area of increased risk,

c) danger zone.

56. Fire extinguishing foam can be used to extinguish fires of group:

a) only C,

b) A and B,

c) C and D.

57. Improper use of a snow extinguisher can result in:

a) frostbite caused by the extinguishing agent,

b) fainting,c) burns from the extinguisher components.

58. Water, fire blanket, powder extinguisher, carbon dioxide, sand are extinguishing agents that we will use to extinguish:

a) liquids,

b) solids,

c) oils.

59. We can call sorbents:

a) materials made from natural or synthetic substances that absorb liquids,

b) petroleum-derived substances,c) fire blankets.

60. Group A fires concern:

a) flammable liquids,b) flammable gases,

c) solids whose normal combustion occurs with the formation of glowing coals, e.g. wood, paper, etc..

61. Group B fires concern:

a) liquids and solid materials that melt, e.g. plastics, fuels, oils, etc.,

b) flammable gases,c) metals, e.g. magnesium, sodium, potassium, aluminum, titanium, etc.

62. Group C fires concern:

a) flammable liquids,b) solids,

c) gases, e.g. methane, propane, acetylene, hydrogen.

Question 63 - illustration

63. Seeing such a pictogram you are informed about:

a) danger zone,

b) assembly point during evacuation,

c) a larger number of people in a given area.
Question 64 - illustration

64. While working you noticed a sign marked 'Zone 0'. It informs about:

a) a space where an explosive atmosphere exists,

b) a zone of a certain fire hazard category,c) a zone of fire load in the building.
Question 65 - illustration

65. The presented pictogram informs about:

a) a set of fire protection equipment,

b) internal hydrant,c) main power switch.
Question 66 - illustration

66. Seeing such a pictogram you are informed about:

a) the location of the first aid station,

b) the emergency exit,

c) the assembly point during evacuation.
Question 67 - illustration

67. Seeing such a pictogram you are informed about:

a) the location of the fire extinguisher,

b) the prohibition of using the fire extinguisher,c) the high temperature affecting the fire extinguisher.

68. You see a person whose clothing is on fire and who is fleeing in panic. Your reaction is:

a) you wave your arms or outer garment strongly next to him to extinguish the burning clothing,b) you tell him to wait in an upright position for the arrival of rescue services,

c) you try to stop him, lay him on the ground, and start extinguishing.

69. Electrical devices and installations can be extinguished using:

a) water,

b) powder or snow extinguishers,

c) foam extinguishers.

70. Burning fuel can be extinguished using:

a) water,b) low-octane ethylene,

c) powder, foam, or snow extinguishers.

71. Burning clothing on a person can be extinguished using:

a) snow or powder extinguisher,b) plastic material,

c) water mist extinguisher or fire blanket.

72. What obligations does an employee have when they decide to refrain from work due to health and safety regulations?

a) They should organize work for others,b) They have no obligations in this situation,

c) They must immediately notify their supervisor.

73. How can an operator prevent hazards in the workplace?

a) By ignoring health and safety rules,

b) By using personal protective equipment to minimize risk,

c) By not reporting faults in machines.

74. It is not permissible to position a workplace directly under active overhead power lines or at a horizontal distance from the outermost wires of less than:

a) for lines: 1 [kV] - 3 [m], 15 [kV] - 5 [m], 30 [kV] - 10 [m], 110 [kV] - 15 [m], 400 [kV] - 30 [m],

b) for all voltages - 1 [m] from the power line,c) for lines: 1 [kV] - 1 [m], 15 [kV] - 3 [m], 30 [kV] - 5 [m], 110 [kV] - 10 [m].

75. How does the operator know what personal protective equipment is required for a given machine/technical device?

a) The choice of personal protective equipment depends on the opinions of colleagues at work,

b) Information about necessary personal protective equipment is included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine,

c) The operator must independently choose the appropriate protective measures.

76. The operator should refuse to perform the task when:

a) the work requires familiarization with the location of underground and overhead utilities,

b) the work is inconsistent with the intended use of the machine/technical device,

c) the work is being performed at night.

77. The operator can prevent hazards while operating the machine/technical device by:

a) following health and safety rules and adhering to the operating instructions,

b) inattention and routine,c) limiting the use of personal protective equipment.

78. Which of the situations listed is unacceptable during the use of the machine/technical device?

a) Operating the machine without supervision,

b) Unauthorized persons being in the danger zone caused by the operation of the machine/technical device,

c) Reporting faults directly to the supervisor.

79. An accident at work is considered to be:

a) a sudden event, unrelated to the work being performed, caused by an external factor, resulting in injury or death,b) a prolonged event, related to the work being performed, caused by an internal factor, resulting in equipment damage,

c) a sudden event, related to the work being performed, caused by an external factor, resulting in injury or death.

80. A fatal accident at work is considered to be an accident in which death occurred:

a) more than 6 months after the date of the accident,

b) within 6 months from the date of the accident,

c) only at the moment of the accident.

81. Occupational health and safety regulations require:

a) performing a warranty inspection of the working machine before one year from its purchase,

b) securing the working machine during breaks in its operation against accidental activation by unauthorized persons,

c) scrapping the old working machine within the time specified in its operating and maintenance manual, while adhering to the requirements for the disposal of hazardous materials.

82. In the event of a person being electrocuted:

a) resuscitation should be started immediately, regardless of whether the power source has been disconnected,b) it is recommended to use any tools to disconnect the power, regardless of their actual purpose,

c) one must not touch the victim until the power source has been disconnected.

83. Seeing a person whose clothes are on fire, one should first:

a) use a fire extinguisher, preferably a snow extinguisher, to extinguish the burning clothing, and then try to quickly remove the melted clothing,

b) cut off the air supply by rolling the victim or wrapping them in a fire blanket, wet clothing, or a wet blanket,

c) leave the victim standing to facilitate air access and extinguish the flames more quickly.

84. The rules and method of marking works conducted on public roads 'under traffic':

a) is determined solely by the decision of the construction manager, without the need to prepare an additional project,

b) is determined by the Temporary Traffic Organization Project, which presents the types and methods of placing road signs, traffic lights, sound signals, and traffic safety devices,

c) are determined by regulations concerning permanent road marking, which do not take into account temporary changes in traffic.

85. When carrying out work in the road lane:

a) workers may work without personal protective equipment, provided that the work is short-term,

b) one must familiarize themselves with the Safe Work Execution Instruction (IBWR) and use personal protective measures such as safety helmets, work shoes, and high-visibility protective clothing,

c) vehicles used in the work may be unmarked if they are visible up close.

86. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is performed:

a) when the victim is not breathing and there is no detectable pulse. For a non-professional rescuer, the absence of breathing is a sufficient basis to start resuscitation,

b) only in the case of fainting and minor injuries, to improve blood circulation,c) when the victim is breathing but is unconscious and there is no contact with them.

87. An employee has the right to refrain from performing work due to health and safety regulations, notifying their supervisor immediately if:

a) the work they are performing has not been reported to the construction supervision,

b) the working conditions pose an immediate threat to health or life,

c) the working conditions do not pose a threat but are too difficult for them.

88. Physical factors generating hazards in the workplace are:

a) lack of appropriate medical examinations for the employee,

b) spilled lubricants, oils, and fuels,

c) lack of or improper training of employees.

89. Working with a machine/technical device is not allowed when:

a) its repair was carried out after dark,b) the second operator did not report an upcoming inspection,

c) it is malfunctioning.

90. Working near overhead power lines:

a) always requires the power in the line to be turned off,

b) is possible without meeting additional requirements provided that certain distances depending on the rated voltage of the line are maintained,

c) always requires double grounding of the line.

91. The operator is obliged to refuse to start work if:

a) there is no site manager or any other authorized person for supervision at the work site,b) he would have to work under power lines, and the voltage in them has been turned off and the line grounded,

c) the working machine is defective.

92. The danger zone from a machine/technical device is:

a) a place where there are threats to the health or life of people,

b) always the entire fenced construction site,c) a place where the machine/technical device cannot be used.

93. Accidents at work resulting from the poor technical condition of the working machine may involve, for example:

a) damage to the equipment,b) failure of the drive system,

c) injury to a limb, torso, or head.

94. Unacceptable behaviors are:

a) working after dark in a well-lit place, with full concentration of the operator,

b) working with a defective machine and working under the influence of alcohol,

c) performing daily maintenance of the machine after dark.

95. The basic safety rules when working with a hand cutter are:

a) the cutter should be held with both hands, do not lean over the grinding wheel and do not work above shoulder level,

b) the cutter should be operated in a strongly leaned forward position, resting against the machine for greater stability of the operator,c) the cutter should be held with one hand unless the IBWR recommends another way of working.

96. The basic duties of an employee in the field of OHS are:

a) observing OHS regulations and rules, taking care of the condition of machines and tools, and maintaining order in the workplace, using personal protective equipment,

b) not being late for work, finishing on time, confirming presence at work in the manner accepted by the employer,c) enforcing labor code regulations regarding their rights, including payment for overtime worked.

97. In the case of a person electrocuted, after disconnecting the power source, one should:

a) leave the injured person alone if they have regained consciousness, without further actions,b) move the injured person to another place as quickly as possible,

c) check the condition of the injured person, and if necessary: call for help, clear the airways, perform resuscitation, and use an AED if available.

98. After extinguishing flames on a person with burns and calling for help, one should:

a) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes, without removing the stuck clothing,

b) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes, first removing the stuck clothing,c) use a snow extinguisher to cool the burn areas.

99. For optical marking of works carried out in the road lane, the following are used:

a) only traffic lights, flashing,

b) traffic cones in red or orange color, and after dark, cones with white reflective stripes and separators,

c) traffic cones in any well-visible color and uniform red obstacles placed at the work site.

100. What markings should vehicles and machines used for work in the road lane have?

a) Vehicles and machines should be marked only when working after dark. The method of marking is specified in the operating and maintenance instructions of the given machine,

b) Vehicles should be equipped with yellow light signals visible from at least 150 m, and machines on the roadway should be marked with road barriers with reflective elements and warning lights,

c) Vehicles should use light signals of any color that is visible from a distance. Other machines do not need to be additionally marked.
Question 101 - illustration

101. Seeing such a pictogram you are informed about:

a) the location where an external automatic defibrillator is available,

b) the location where a first aid kit is available,c) the location for performing AED.

102. Properly performed cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) consists of:

a) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 100-120 times per minute to a depth of 5–6 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 30 compressions (breaths are not mandatory),

b) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 30-60 times per minute to a depth of 1–3 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 15 compressions (breaths are mandatory),c) connecting the external automatic defibrillator (AED) and following its instructions; CPR is not performed without AED.

103. The abbreviation IBWR stands for:

a) Instruction for Safe Execution of Works,

b) Instruction for Failure-Free Execution of Works,c) Instruction for Failure-Free Execution of Works.

104. Expand the abbreviation IBWR:

a) Information on Safe Execution of Works,b) Implementation of Failure-Free Execution of Works,

c) Instruction for Safe Execution of Works.

105. The Instruction for Safe Execution of Construction Works is:

a) a document confirming qualifications for operating machines and technical devices in earthworks, construction, and road works,

b) a document containing information regarding safety on the construction site,

c) a plan of the road in construction works.

106. The BIOZ plan means:

a) safety and health protection plan,

b) safety and resource specification plan,c) safe health protection instruction plan.

107. A vehicle performing cleaning, repair, or modernization work on the road should send:

a) yellow flashing signals,

b) orange flashing signals,c) red flashing signals.

108. To be able to direct traffic during work in the road lane, it is required to have:

a) authorization to operate all machines working on the section for which traffic is directed,b) authorization to operate at least one of the machines and appropriate personal protective equipment,

c) a valid certificate of completion of a traffic directing course and to be visible from a sufficient distance.

109. Traffic safety devices used in road works conducted in the road lane may be colored:

a) white, red, yellow, and black,

b) white, green, blue,c) red, yellow-red, blue.

110. Traffic safety devices used to secure and mark the location of work in the road lane should be visible:

a) only during the day,

b) during the day and at night,

c) only at night.

111. What rules apply to working with a cutting machine in relation to the grinding wheel?

a) The grinding wheel can be subjected to lateral loading to slightly widen the cut, thereby speeding up the cutting process,

b) The grinding wheel must be guided straight in the cut, without subjecting it to lateral loading or twisting,

c) The grinding wheel can be worked at an angle to achieve a more precise cut.

112. The operator can reduce the hazards associated with reaction forces when working with a gasoline cutting machine by:

a) working with one hand to increase freedom of movement,

b) firmly holding the cutting machine with both hands, avoiding cutting with the upper quarter of the grinding wheel, and securely immobilizing the cut object,

c) cutting the object without excessive immobilization - in case of danger, the cut object will move away.

113. During operation of a gasoline cutting machine, the following dangerous reaction forces may occur:

a) kickback and backward thrust, pulling the grinding wheel forward,

b) slight vibrations that do not affect work safety,c) various, but it is important that reaction forces occur only when working in difficult weather conditions.

114. The term "kickback" when working with a cutting machine means:

a) slow retraction of the cutting machine in the opposite direction to the cut,

b) uncontrolled upward movement of the device caused by the upper part of the disc coming into contact with an obstacle,

c) uncontrolled downward movement of the device caused by the lower part of the disc coming into contact with an obstacle.

115. The maximum cutting depth of a handheld cutting machine in one stage is approximately:

a) 5-6 [cm],

b) 14-16 [cm],c) 10-12 [cm].

116. The cutting edge can become pinched in the material being cut when:

a) the element is positioned at a right angle to the blade,

b) the support point of the cut element is set so that the cut begins to close as the cutting progresses,

c) a blade with a diameter smaller than recommended is used.

117. The basic rules for cutting bituminous surfaces are:

a) the surface should be cut avoiding perpendicular edges, in any place and shape,b) the cut should be along the axis of the roadway, with rounded edges and no sharp angles,

c) the shape of the cut should be rectangular or square, and the cutting edges must not be on the axis of the roadway.

118. The consequence of the upper part of the cutting blade coming into contact with the cut element may be:

a) causing uncontrolled movement of the technical device upwards, which poses a threat to the operator,

b) slowing down the cutting process, but without affecting work safety,c) increasing cutting efficiency and making it easier to overcome obstacles.

119. The depth of cutting in a self-propelled cutter is determined by:

a) setting the depth using a crank or lever on the cutter's frame,

b) the operator by manually raising or lowering the cutter,c) an automatic cutting system controlled by a computer.

120. The phenomenon of the cutting edge becoming pinched during cutting:

a) occurs when using blades of low diameter. The countermeasure is to use blades of larger diameter,

b) is a situation when the cut material closes on the blade. To prevent this, the material must be properly secured,

c) is the effect of too high blade speeds. The countermeasure is to reduce the blade's rotational speed.

121. Cutting edges of bituminous surface should not be made:

a) at a distance of less than 100 [cm] from the road axis,

b) exactly on the road axis,

c) at a distance greater than 30 [cm] from the road axis.

122. Water supply during operation of the cutting disc 'dry':

a) will increase the rotational speed of the disc and the depth of cut,b) will eliminate the need for regular sharpening of the disc,

c) will cool the disc and significantly reduce dust emission.

123. The parameter of the cutter that determines the size of the disc that can be used in it is:

a) maximum diameter of the disc and diameter of the disc hole,

b) dimensions of the cutter,c) maximum depth of cut.

124. The main application of the centrifugal clutch in the cutter is:

a) changing the direction of rotation of the cutting disc,b) regulating the rotational speed of the drive shaft,

c) serving as a starting clutch.

125. The main purpose of hand cutters is:

a) automatic cutting on large surfaces,

b) working in hard-to-reach places where mobility is key,

c) making deep cuts in concrete and asphalt.

126. The centrifugal clutch engages when:

a) the rotational speed reaches a constant minimum value,b) the friction elements are mechanically connected,

c) the centrifugal force overcomes the pre-tension of the spring.

127. The depth of cut adjustment in the cutter is performed using:

a) a guide in the front or rear cover,b) a belt or chain transmission,

c) a crank or lever on the frame.

128. In the cutter, water is supplied to the cutting disc through:

a) a pressure pipe directly from the water supply,b) an electrically powered water pump,

c) a “throttling and shut-off valve” in the disc cover.

129. Water in the hydraulic system of the cutter flows:

a) under pressure with electric supply,b) exclusively in a closed system,

c) gravitationally, among others, through the “throttling and shut-off valve” to the cutting disc.

130. In the cutter, the drive from the motor to the cutting head is transmitted using:

a) a V-belt,

b) a cardan shaft,c) a worm gear.

131. At rest and at low rotational speed, the friction elements of the centrifugal clutch are:

a) connected by a lever,b) connected by means of friction force,

c) disconnected due to the action of a spring.

132. The lack of a spark from the spark plug may be caused by:

a) damage to the alternator,

b) damage to the ignition coil,

c) damage to the starter.

133. Damaged high voltage wires in the electrical system can cause:

a) activation of the emergency switch,

b) loss of spark from the spark plug,

c) increased fuel consumption.

134. Electrical systems of machines and technical devices should be equipped with a device that causes emergency stop in at least the quantity of:

a) one device causing emergency stop, in accordance with the European machinery directive,

b) three devices causing emergency stop, in accordance with the European machinery directive,c) two devices causing emergency stop placed on both sides of the machine, in accordance with the European machinery directive.

135. The emergency stop device of the machine is a component of:

a) the drive system,b) the fuel system,

c) the electrical system.

136. Stuttering and wavering low engine speeds of a gasoline engine are typical symptoms:

a) damage to the suction function,

b) wear of the spark plugs,

c) damage to the switch.

137. The main parameters of the internal combustion engine affecting work efficiency are:

a) compression ratio, displacement,b) type of carburetor, type of ignition system,

c) torque, rotational speed.

138. The crank-piston system of the internal combustion engine is designed to:

a) ensure the effective operation of the clutch,

b) convert the reciprocating motion of the piston into the rotational motion of the crankshaft,

c) convert mechanical energy into hydraulic energy.

139. The basic safety elements of the cutting machine are:

a) exhaust system, control system,b) hook for suspending the machine, body with a water tank,

c) emergency stop switch, belt drive guard.

140. The elements of the control system are:

a) multifunction switch, throttle lever with lock,

b) decompressor, engine cover,c) handle, centrifugal clutch.

141. The systems present in internal combustion engines include, among others:

a) hydraulic system, intake system,b) exhaust system, pneumatic system, closed system,

c) crankshaft-piston system, fuel system, cooling system.

142. The frequency and scope of periodic maintenance of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam:

a) are included in the IBWR documentation,

b) are included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine,

c) is determined by the owner of the machine/technical device.

143. The operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device is:

a) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device,

b) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by the health and safety services on the construction site,c) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device, which includes, among others, the IBWR.

144. The operator of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is not allowed to:

a) use the machine/technical device contrary to its intended purpose,

b) during operation, check the technical condition of the machine/technical device,c) make any repairs or maintenance.

145. The operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device:

a) is used to record information about faults,

b) includes, among others, information about hazards during the operation of the machine/technical device,

c) is established by the owner or user of the machine.

146. The CE Declaration of Conformity is a document:

a) in which the manufacturer confirms that their product meets all applicable EU requirements regarding safety, health protection, and the environment,

b) issued by institutions that test machines for resistance to weather conditions,c) confirming that the product was manufactured in the countries of the European Union.

147. Information regarding the use of personal protective equipment and ways to limit the occupational risk the operator can find:

a) in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device,

b) in the CE Declaration of Conformity,c) in the service book.

148. The operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device:

a) is created by the construction manager based on information from the manufacturer,b) is created by institutions that conduct testing and accreditation of machine/technical device prototypes before allowing them for serial production,

c) is developed by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device or the entity that introduces the machine/technical device to the market.

149. The operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device:

a) should be kept in the office along with the company's documentation and be available in case of inspection,b) does not matter where it is located, the most important thing is that the owner of the machine has it in case of resale of the machine,

c) should be located in the machine or with the technical device, treated as part of the machine/technical device and be available at any time.

150. Identification data of the machine/technical device:

a) due to their importance are always printed in red,b) should be noted on the inner side of the protective helmet assigned to the specific machine/technical device,

c) are located on the nameplate of the machine/technical device, additionally may be in the marking places described in the manual.

151. To minimize the risk of machine/technical device failure, the operator should:

a) regularly visually assess the condition of the machine/technical device and report any noticed irregularities,

b) perform maintenance activities only when the machine/technical device stops working,c) use the machine/technical device until the failure becomes serious.

152. When starting a combustion engine in small, closed rooms:

a) the engine can be started without ventilation if the windows are slightly ajar,b) ventilation is not necessary as long as the engine runs only for a short time,

c) proper ventilation should be ensured before starting the engine or connect the exhaust pipe to the suction channel.

153. When selecting a disc for the cutter, the operator should consider:

a) the diameter of the disc, which must always correspond to the maximum allowable diameter for the cutter,

b) the type and properties of the material being cut,

c) the expected length of cutting for the day.

154. The purpose of using different discs for cutters depending on the material being cut is:

a) to ensure cutting efficiency and reduce wear of the disc and cutter,

b) to reduce noise during cutting,c) to enable cutting without the need to check the water level in the cutter.

155. Breaking in a machine during the initial period of operation is:

a) the process of achieving optimal clearances and even wear of parts,

b) the stage of the machine's operation without load,c) an intensive test of the machine under full load.

156. The operator uses the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine or technical device to:

a) record all faults of the machine or device noticed during operation,b) record the hours worked and fuel consumption of the machine,

c) understand the technical specifications, health and safety rules, and methods of repairing faults.

157. The operational part of the operating and maintenance instructions for the machine or technical device includes:

a) a detailed description of the construction and operation of all elements of the machine/device,

b) instructions regarding, among others, controlling the machine/device,

c) a catalog of spare parts.

158. The operating and maintenance instructions must always be present with the machine/device because:

a) it is necessary for periodic technical inspections,b) it minimizes the risk of it being lost,

c) its absence may be a reason for the inspector to disallow the machine to operate.

159. The SAE designation on the oil refers to:

a) the viscosity of the engine oil, that is, its ability to flow and lubricate,

b) the multi-season qualification of the oil,c) the engine oil pressure.

160. Oil with the symbol SAE 15W-40 means that:

a) at positive temperatures, it has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40,

b) at negative temperatures, it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 15W, and at positive temperatures, those of summer oil class SAE 40,

c) at positive temperatures, it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 15W.

161. Oil with the symbol SAE 10W-30 means that:

a) at negative temperature it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 30,

b) at negative temperature it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W, and at positive temperature of summer oil class SAE 30,

c) at positive temperature it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W.

162. The symbol SAE 10W-30 means:

a) hydraulic oil with specified parameters,

b) multi-season engine oil with specified parameters,

c) a mixture of engine oil and hydraulic oil.

163. In case of the need to dismantle the cover/protection for servicing, it is not allowed to:

a) start working with the device without installing the cover/protection,

b) record such a fact in the documentation,c) reinstall the cover/protection.

164. To ensure the technical efficiency of the working machine, it is necessary to:

a) use the machine/device only under full load,

b) follow technical service and maintenance according to the operating and maintenance instructions,

c) use the machine/device not exceeding 50% of the permissible load.

165. On the construction site, empty containers of lubricants, oil filters, and used oils should be:

a) thrown into any waste container,

b) placed in a properly marked container for hazardous waste,

c) thrown into the mixed waste container.

166. Stickers (pictograms) located on the machine/technical device serve to:

a) convey essential information about safety and the use of the machine/technical device,

b) indicate places where one can stay without any risk,c) inform about the prohibition of approaching the machine/technical device.

167. Engine oil with parameters 5W-50 is:

a) oil only for winter,

b) all-season oil,

c) oil only for summer.

168. Before starting work on a new type of machine/technical device, the operator should:

a) perform a periodic inspection,b) perform a test run,

c) familiarize themselves with the operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device.

169. OTC service is:

a) temporary technical service,

b) daily technical service,

c) round-the-clock technical service.

170. The basic types of services are:

a) visual, active, passive service,

b) daily, periodic, warehouse, transport service,

c) round-the-clock, all-season, annual, technological service.

171. The activities performed by the operator as part of daily maintenance during work are:

a) replenishing operating fluids and daily lubrication,

b) auditory control of the machine's operation and observation of indicators,

c) cleaning the machine.

172. If the manufacturer has provided for operational run-in, it should be carried out:

a) without load,b) with maximum load,

c) with the load recommended in the operating and maintenance instructions for the machine/technical device.

173. During longer storage of the machine, the fuel tank should be:

a) empty, to avoid fire hazards,b) filled to 1/3 of its capacity and left open,

c) filled to the top to prevent condensation of water vapor inside the tank.

174. Information regarding faults, their codes, and methods of removal can be found in the document titled:

a) daily report,b) construction machine book,

c) operating and maintenance instructions.

175. The purpose of lubrication in working machines is:

a) to increase the engine's rotational speed,

b) to reduce friction,

c) to raise the temperature of cooperating elements.

176. The phenomenon of electrostatic discharge during the refueling of a machine can lead to:

a) fire,

b) electrical installation short circuit,c) poisoning.

177. One of the goals of warehouse management is:

a) preparing the machine for transport for the future user,

b) protecting the machine from corrosion and other harmful factors during long-term storage,

c) repairing damaged machine components before the next season.

178. The frequency of performing periodic technical service depends on:

a) the number of hours worked (engine hours),

b) the number of completed work cycles,c) the production date of the machine.

179. Activities performed as part of daily technical service (OTC) carried out during the operation of the machine include:

a) primarily the sensory inspection of the proper functioning of the machine's working system,

b) observation of control and measuring instruments and monitoring the proper operation of the machine using sight, hearing, and smell,

c) observation only of control and measuring indicators such as: oil pressure, engine temperature, hydraulic oil temperature.

180. We distinguish, among others, the following types of technical services:

a) transport, arrival, daily, periodic, seasonal, warehouse,

b) arrival, daily, periodic, seasonal, warehouse, emergency, night,c) transport, arrival, warehouse, operational-repair (ON), catalog.

181. Technical services are performed in order to:

a) extend the lifespan and ensure the safe operation of the machine or technical device,

b) maintain the value of the machine or technical device at a constant, unchanging level,c) ensure quiet operation of the machine or technical device.

182. Two-stroke internal combustion engines require for proper operation:

a) ambient temperature above zero,

b) a mixture of fuel and oil in the correct proportions,

c) the use of glow plugs.

183. The manual starting mechanism of the cutting machine engine requires periodic replacement of:

a) the starter pawl,

b) the starter cord,

c) the expanding springs.

184. The main task of the water supplied during operation on the cutting disc is:

a) reducing noise during increased rotational speed of the disc,

b) binding dust,

c) cleaning the cutting disc.

185. Consumables subject to periodic replacement in all road surface cutting engines are:

a) oil filter inserts,b) thermostat inserts,

c) air filter inserts.

186. Four-stroke internal combustion engines used in road surface cutters are powered by:

a) a mixture of fuel and oil in the correct proportions,b) a mixture of CNG and ethylene,

c) fuel without additives. Maintenance tasks for the practical exam

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