Road surface repair machines class III
Study mode
Question of 243
1. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage not exceeding 1 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 3 [m],
b) not less than 5 [m],c) not less than 2 [m].2. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 15 [m],b) not less than 10 [m],
c) not less than 5 [m].
3. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 10 [m],
b) not less than 5 [m],c) not less than 15 [m].4. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 15 [m],
b) not less than 10 [m],c) not less than 20 [m]. Road surface repair Class III5. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 15 [m],
b) not less than 30 [m],
c) not less than 10 [m].6. Can workstations be organized in the danger zone under overhead power lines?
a) yes, always,b) no, never,
c) yes, but only after meeting additional requirements.
7. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [V]?
a) not less than 5 [m],b) not less than 30 [m],
c) not less than 3 [m].
8. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV]?
a) not less than 10 [m],b) not less than 15 [m],
c) not less than 5 [m].
9. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?
a) not less than 15 [m],
b) not less than 10 [m],
c) not less than 30 [m].10. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?
a) not less than 15 [m],
b) not less than 10 [m],
c) not less than 5 [m].11. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV]?
a) not less than 50 [m],
b) not less than 15 [m],
c) not less than 30 [m].12. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV]?
a) not less than 15 [m],b) not less than 30 [m],
c) not less than 10 [m].
13. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]?
a) not less than 3 [m],b) not less than 40 [m],
c) not less than 30 [m].
14. Work in the danger zone (overhead high voltage power line):
a) may be carried out provided that the line is disconnected from voltage, the work is performed in a zone limited by groundings and at least one grounding is visible from the work site,
b) may be carried out provided that permission from the work manager has been granted,c) may not be carried out under any circumstances under electric lines in the danger zone.15. The operator must perform work at a distance X from an active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [V]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 1 [m],b) 2 [m],
c) 5 [m].
16. The operator must perform work at a distance X from an active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 5 [m],b) 3 [m],
c) 15 [m].
17. The operator must perform work at a distance X from an active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 5 [m],
b) 50 [m],
c) 15 [m].18. If the injured person has a detectable pulse but is not breathing, then:
a) chest compressions should be performed,b) he should not be touched,
c) the airways should be cleared and artificial respiration should be started.
19. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, it is essential to:
a) assist those with life-threatening conditions,
b) give medication to the injured,c) leave the accident scene to call a doctor.20. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, it is essential to:
a) leave the accident scene to call a doctor,
b) ensure your own safety,
c) assist those with life-threatening conditions.21. The obligation to provide first aid to accident victims rests with:
a) only those who have medical training,
b) everyone, as part of the rescue tasks can always be performed,
c) everyone, but criminal liability always threatens for mistakes made.22. The accident victim regained consciousness after a few minutes and wants to go home. In this situation, you should:
a) let her go home, recommending a visit to the doctor,b) give her something to drink and painkillers,
c) persuade her to stay and call for medical help.
23. First aid in a situation where a foreign body has entered the eye of the injured person consists of:
a) rinsing the eye with eye drops,b) rinsing with distilled water directing the stream to the inside of the eye,
c) rinsing with clean water directing the stream from the nose to the outside of the eye.
24. The injured person cut their leg on an unsecured sharp element. Providing first aid in this situation is:
a) sticking a plaster directly on the wound,b) using a tourniquet,
c) applying sterile gauze, wrapping the wound with a bandage.
25. Suspecting spinal injury in a person who has fallen from a height and is conscious, you should:
a) not move her and wait for medical services to arrive,
b) seat her in a semi-reclining position,c) lay her in a stable side position.26. To move away from the place where the electric wire was interrupted and the area is under voltage, one should:
a) run as quickly as possible to a place that we assess as safe,b) quickly step away from the source of electric shock with large steps, lifting feet high,
c) leave this place slowly, taking small steps, trying to maintain continuous contact of feet with the ground.
27. First aid in the case of a first-degree burn is:
a) applying a greasy cream to the burned area,b) applying ointment to the burned area,
c) pouring cold water on the burned area.
28. During work, a high voltage power line was torn down, as a result of which a colleague was electrocuted. In this situation, the correct behavior is:
a) call other colleagues for help with the injured person,
b) turn off the power source as quickly as possible,
c) approach the injured person to provide first aid.29. We perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation until:
a) 10 minutes have passed,b) the fire brigade arrives and secures the area,
c) we have determined that the victim has started to breathe and circulation has returned.
30. Immediate action in the case of severe bleeding from an injured upper limb includes:
a) applying a dressing, directly pressing the bleeding site, and elevating the limb,
b) lowering the limb below the level of the heart,c) disinfecting the wound with salicylic alcohol.31. In case of a nosebleed, one should:
a) tilt the head back and place a cold compress on the neck,
b) lean the bleeding person's head forward, pinch the nostrils,
c) lay the injured person on their back.32. The first step in dealing with a victim of carbon monoxide poisoning in a closed room is:
a) conducting a preliminary examination,
b) the quickest possible evacuation of the injured person from that room,
c) assessing ABC.33. First aid during seizures caused by an epileptic attack consists of:
a) securing the injured person's head from injuries,
b) placing a wooden object in the injured person's mouth to prevent biting the tongue,c) seating the injured person in a semi-sitting position and giving them something to drink.34. In case of suspected cervical spine injury in a conscious person, one should:
a) not allow the injured person to move their head,
b) place the injured person in a lateral position,c) seat the injured person on a chair with a high back.35. The most important thing when a person is buried under earth, sand, or gravel is:
a) locating the injured person,
b) waiting for the ambulance to arrive,c) notifying the family.36. First aid for a person with a metal rod embedded in their calf involves calling for help and:
a) removing the embedded rod,b) moving the rod to check if the artery has been damaged,
c) securing the rod to prevent movement.
37. The indication for using an AED defibrillator is:
a) severe chest pain,
b) absence of detectable breath and pulse in the injured person,
c) severe dizziness.38. During the operation of a machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam, prohibited actions include:
a) making structural changes to the machine/technical device,
b) changing the working tool,c) performing daily technical service (OTC).39. During the operation of a machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam, prohibited actions include:
a) cleaning the machine/technical device using a substance compliant with the operating and maintenance instructions,
b) cleaning the machine/technical device using gasoline or solvents whose vapors can create flammable/explosive gas mixtures with air,
c) refueling the machine/technical device from a canister.40. The machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam may only be operated by:
a) a person with written confirmation of course completion in the form of a plastic card,
b) a person who has completed training and obtained a positive result on the test conducted by the commission appointed by the Łukasiewicz Research Network – Warsaw Institute of Technology,
c) any adult person with technical education and a driver's license of the appropriate category.41. The permissions to operate machines/technical devices for which you are taking the exam are issued by:
a) Technical Supervision Office (UDT),b) County Office appropriate for the address of the person applying for the permissions,
c) Łukasiewicz Research Network - Warsaw Institute of Technology (SBŁ - WIT).
42. The permissions to operate machines/technical devices for which you are taking the exam:
a) are valid indefinitely,
b) are valid for 5 years from the date of issue,c) are valid for 10 years from the date of issue.43. A person holding permissions to operate: "Road surface repair machines class III" can, based on them, operate:
a) road surface repair machines and repavers and remixers,
b) only road surface repair machines,
c) road surface repair machines and machines for laying mineral-asphalt mixtures.44. An employee operating a machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam can start working provided that:
a) the machine/technical device has a valid UDT inspection,b) has a valid category D driving license,
c) has permissions to operate this type of machine/technical device.
45. In the event of a threat to life, health, property, or the environment caused by a malfunction of the machine/technical device, the operator:
a) continues working, but at the end of the shift informs the supervisor about the situation,b) continues working, but at the end of the shift makes an appropriate entry in the maintenance book,
c) immediately stops work and informs the supervisor of this fact.
46. Lifting and transporting people using working equipment:
a) is always prohibited,
b) requires the consent of the construction manager,c) is possible, but only outside the public road area.47. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam has the right to refuse to work when:
a) there is an overhead power line with a rated voltage of 110 [kV] at a distance of 35 meters,b) has the required personal protective equipment,
c) this work requires special psychophysical fitness, and his psychophysical condition does not ensure its safe performance and poses a threat to others.
48. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is obliged to stop work when:
a) the work he is performing poses an immediate threat to the health or life of others,
b) there is an overhead power line at a distance of 35 meters,c) has the required personal protective equipment.49. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is obliged to:
a) comply with the provisions of the operating and maintenance instructions for the machine/technical device,
b) independently perform all current repairs of the machine/technical device,c) always have a category B driving license.50. The person directly responsible for the safe operation of the machine for which you are taking the exam is:
a) the construction manager,
b) the machine operator,
c) the owner of the machine.51. The operator's book and the qualifications for the machine/technical device you are taking the exam for are issued by:
a) Office of Technical Inspection (UDT),b) Transport Technical Inspection (TDT),
c) Łukasiewicz Research Network - Warsaw Institute of Technology.
52. The obligation to use personal protective equipment:
a) does not apply on hot days,
b) results from the operating and maintenance instructions and health and safety regulations,
c) results only from internal regulations.53. An employee who witnesses an accident at work:
a) only needs to notify their supervisor,b) is obliged to provide assistance to the victims and then immediately leave the accident site,
c) is obliged to provide assistance to the victims, notify their supervisor, and if necessary secure the accident site.
54. We define the danger zone as:
a) a place where work requiring specialized equipment is carried out, and the presence of people is only allowed at night,
b) a place where there are threats to the health and life of people,
c) a place where employees only need to wear safety helmets.55. The area that the operator should check and secure before starting work with the machine/technical device (because there are threats to the health and life of people) is called:
a) area of increased risk,
b) danger zone,
c) dead zone.56. During the charging of batteries, gas with highly explosive properties is released. This gas is:
a) hydrogen,
b) ethane,c) methane.57. Firefighting foam can be used to extinguish fires of group:
a) A and B,
b) C and D,c) only C.58. Improper use of a snow extinguisher can result in:
a) fainting,
b) frostbite caused by the extinguishing agent,
c) burns from the extinguisher components.59. Water, fire blanket, powder extinguisher, carbon dioxide, sand are extinguishing agents that we will use to extinguish:
a) liquids,
b) solids,
c) oils.60. We can call sorbents:
a) petroleum-derived substances,
b) materials made from natural or synthetic substances that absorb liquids,
c) fire blankets.61. Group A fires concern:
a) solid bodies, whose normal combustion occurs with the formation of glowing coals, e.g. wood, paper, etc.,
b) flammable liquids,c) flammable gases.62. Group B fires concern:
a) metals, e.g. magnesium, sodium, potassium, aluminum, titanium, etc.,
b) liquids and solid materials that melt, e.g. plastics, fuels, oils, etc.,
c) flammable gases.63. Group C fires concern:
a) solid bodies,
b) gases, e.g. methane, propane, acetylene, hydrogen,
c) flammable liquids.
64. Seeing such a pictogram you are informed about:
a) a larger number of people in a given area,b) a danger zone,
c) a gathering place during evacuation.
65. While working you noticed a sign marked 'Zone 0'. It informs about:
a) a space where an explosive atmosphere exists,
b) a zone of a certain fire hazard category,c) a zone of existing fire load in the building.
66. The presented pictogram informs about:
a) the main power switch,
b) a set of fire protection equipment,
c) an internal hydrant.
67. Seeing such a pictogram you are informed about:
a) the assembly point during evacuation,
b) the emergency exit,
c) the location of first aid.
68. Seeing such a pictogram you are informed about:
a) the prohibition of using the fire extinguisher,b) the high temperature affecting the fire extinguisher,
c) the location of the fire extinguisher.
69. You see a person whose clothing is on fire and who is fleeing in panic. Your reaction is:
a) you try to stop him, lay him on the ground and start extinguishing,
b) you tell him to wait in an upright position for the arrival of rescue services,c) you wave your arms or outer covering strongly next to him to extinguish the burning clothing.70. Electrical devices and installations can be extinguished using:
a) water,b) foam extinguishers,
c) powder or snow extinguishers.
71. Burning fuel can be extinguished using:
a) water,b) low-octane ethylene,
c) powder, foam or snow extinguishers.
72. Burning clothing on a person can be extinguished using:
a) snow or powder extinguisher,
b) water mist extinguisher or fire blanket,
c) plastic material.73. What obligations does an employee have when they decide to refrain from work due to health and safety regulations?
a) There are no obligations in this situation,
b) They must immediately inform their supervisor,
c) They should organize work for others.74. How can an operator prevent hazards in the workplace?
a) By not reporting faults in machines,b) By ignoring health and safety rules,
c) By using personal protective equipment to minimize risk.
75. It is not permissible to position a workplace directly under active overhead power lines or at a horizontal distance from the outermost conductors of less than:
a) for all voltages - 1 [m] from the power line,b) for lines: 1 [kV] - 1 [m], 15 [kV] - 3 [m], 30 [kV] - 5 [m], 110 [kV] - 10 [m],
c) for lines: 1 [kV] - 3 [m], 15 [kV] - 5 [m], 30 [kV] - 10 [m], 110 [kV] - 15 [m], 400 [kV] - 30 [m].
76. How does the operator know what personal protective equipment is required for a given machine/technical device?
a) The choice of personal protective equipment depends on the opinion of colleagues at work,
b) Information about the necessary personal protective equipment is included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine,
c) The operator must independently choose the appropriate protective measures.77. The operator should refuse to perform a task when:
a) the work requires familiarization with the location of underground and overhead utilities,b) the work is being performed at night,
c) the work is inconsistent with the purpose of the machine/technical device.
78. The operator can prevent hazards during the operation of the machine/technical device by:
a) limiting the use of personal protective equipment,b) inattention and routine,
c) following health and safety rules and adhering to the operating instructions.
79. Which of the following situations is unacceptable during the use of the machine/technical device?
a) The presence of unauthorized persons in the danger zone caused by the operation of the machine/technical device,
b) Reporting faults directly to the supervisor,c) Operating the machine without supervision.80. An accident at work is considered to be:
a) a long-term event related to the work performed, caused by an internal reason, resulting in equipment damage,
b) a sudden event related to the work performed, caused by an external reason, resulting in injury or death,
c) a sudden event unrelated to the work performed, caused by an external reason, resulting in injury or death.81. A fatal accident at work is considered to be an accident in which death occurred:
a) within a period not exceeding 6 months from the date of the accident,
b) after a period exceeding 6 months from the date of the accident,c) only at the moment of the accident.82. Health and safety regulations require:
a) scrapping the old working machine within the time specified in its operating and maintenance manual, while observing the requirements for the disposal of hazardous materials,b) performing a warranty inspection of the working machine before the end of the year from its purchase,
c) securing the working machine during breaks in its operation against accidental activation by unauthorized persons.
83. Thermal hazards occurring during the work of a road surface repairer are:
a) the risk of burns caused by flames escaping from the repairer,
b) the risk of burns caused by hot materials and poisoning caused by inhaling harmful vapors or dust,
c) the risk of body cooling due to working within the flow of cold air used to cool the regenerated surface.84. In the case of a person being electrocuted:
a) it is recommended to use any tools to disconnect the power, regardless of their actual purpose,b) one should immediately begin resuscitation, regardless of whether the power source has been disconnected,
c) one must not touch the victim until the power source has been disconnected.
85. Seeing a person whose clothes are on fire, one should first:
a) cut off the air supply by rolling the victim or wrapping them in a fire blanket, wet clothing, or a wet blanket,
b) leave the victim in a standing position to facilitate air access and extinguish the flames faster,c) use a fire extinguisher, preferably a snow extinguisher, to extinguish the burning clothing, and then try to quickly remove the melted clothing.86. The rules and method of marking works carried out on public roads 'under traffic':
a) define the regulations regarding permanent road marking, which do not take into account temporary changes in traffic,
b) defines the Temporary Traffic Organization Project, which presents the types and methods of placing road signs, traffic lights, sound signals, and traffic safety devices,
c) is determined solely by the decision of the construction manager, without the need to prepare an additional project.87. When carrying out works in the road lane:
a) one must familiarize themselves with the Safe Work Execution Instruction (IBWR) and use personal protective equipment, such as safety helmets, work shoes, and high-visibility protective clothing,
b) employees may work without personal protective equipment, provided the work is short-term,c) vehicles used in the works may be unmarked if they are visible up close.88. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is performed:
a) when the victim is not breathing and there is no detectable pulse. For a non-professional rescuer, the absence of breathing is a sufficient basis to start resuscitation,
b) only in the case of fainting and minor injuries, to improve blood circulation,c) when the victim is breathing but is unconscious and unresponsive.89. An employee has the right to refrain from performing work due to health and safety regulations, notifying their supervisor immediately if:
a) the work they are performing has not been reported to the construction supervision,b) the working conditions do not pose a threat, but are too difficult for them,
c) the working conditions pose an immediate threat to health or life.
90. Physical factors generating hazards in the workplace are:
a) lack of or inadequate training of employees,
b) spilled lubricants, oils, and fuels,
c) lack of appropriate medical examinations of the employee.91. Work with a machine/technical device is unacceptable when:
a) its repair was carried out after dark,
b) it is malfunctioning,
c) the second operator did not report an upcoming inspection.92. Working near overhead power lines:
a) always requires double grounding of the line,b) always requires power to be turned off in the line,
c) is possible without meeting additional requirements provided that certain distances depending on the rated voltage of the line are maintained.
93. The operator is obliged to refuse to work if:
a) the working machine is malfunctioning,
b) they would have to work under power lines, and the voltage in them has been turned off and the line grounded,c) there is no site manager or any other person authorized to supervise at the work site.94. The danger zone from a machine/device is:
a) a place where the machine/device cannot be used,
b) a place where there are hazards to health or life of people,
c) always the entire fenced construction site.95. Accidents at work resulting from the poor technical condition of the working machine may involve, for example:
a) damage to the equipment,
b) injury to a limb, torso, or head,
c) failure of the drive system.96. Unacceptable behaviors are:
a) working with a faulty machine and working under the influence of alcohol,
b) working after dark in a well-lit place, with full concentration of the operator,c) performing daily maintenance of the machine after dark.97. The basic duties of an employee in terms of occupational health and safety are:
a) not being late for work, finishing on time, confirming presence at work in the manner accepted by the employer,
b) adhering to health and safety regulations, taking care of the condition of machines and tools, and maintaining order in the workplace, using personal protective equipment,
c) enforcing labor code regulations regarding their rights, including payment for overtime worked.98. The most common mechanical hazards that an operator of a road surface repair machine may encounter are:
a) long hours of work in low temperatures in winter conditions,
b) injuries caused by moving parts of the machine, falling objects, and falls from heights,
c) fatigue caused by long hours of continuous work.99. In the case of a person electrocuted, after disconnecting the power source, one should:
a) leave the victim alone if they have regained consciousness, without further actions,b) move the victim to another location as quickly as possible,
c) check the condition of the victim, and if necessary: call for help, clear the airways, perform resuscitation, and use an AED if available.
100. After extinguishing flames on a person with burns and calling for help, one should:
a) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes, without removing the stuck clothing,
b) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes, first removing the stuck clothing,c) use a snow extinguisher to cool the burn areas.101. The optical segregation of work carried out in the road lane is served by:
a) traffic cones in any well-visible color and uniform red obstacles set up at the work site,b) exclusively traffic lights, flashing,
c) traffic cones in red or orange color, and after dark, cones with white reflective stripes and separators.
102. What markings should vehicles and machines used for work in the road lane have?
a) Vehicles and machines should be marked only when working after dark. The method of marking is specified in the operating and maintenance manual of the given machine,
b) Vehicles should be equipped with yellow lights visible from at least 150 m, and machines on the roadway should be marked with road barriers with reflective elements and warning lights,
c) Vehicles should use lights of any color visible from a distance. Other machines do not need to be additionally marked.103. The statement: "The operator's qualifications for the machine you are taking the exam for are sufficient to operate such a machine on public roads" is:
a) false,
b) true, but only under normal air transparency conditions,c) true.
104. Seeing such a pictogram, you are informed about:
a) a place to perform AED,b) a place where a first aid kit is available,
c) a place where an external automatic defibrillator is available.
105. Properly performed cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) consists of:
a) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 100-120 times per minute to a depth of 5–6 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 30 compressions (breaths are not mandatory),
b) connecting an external automatic defibrillator (AED) and following its instructions; CPR is not performed without AED,c) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 30-60 times per minute to a depth of 1–3 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 15 compressions (breaths are mandatory).106. A vehicle performing maintenance, repair or modernization work on the road should send:
a) orange flashing signals,
b) yellow flashing signals,
c) red flashing signals.107. To be able to direct traffic during work in the road lane, it is required to have:
a) a license to operate at least one of the machines and appropriate personal protective equipment,b) a license to operate all machines working on the section for which traffic is being directed,
c) a valid certificate of completion of a traffic directing course and to be visible from a sufficient distance.
108. Traffic safety devices used in road works conducted in the road lane may be colored:
a) white, red, yellow and black,
b) white, green, blue,c) red, yellow-red, blue.109. Traffic safety devices used to secure and mark the location of work in the road lane should be visible:
a) only at night,b) only during the day,
c) during the day and at night.
110. Persons performing work in the area of 2-lane roads and highways should have:
a) warning clothing in red color,
b) high visibility clothing class III,
c) flashing lights in orange color.111. Entering and exiting the machine should be done:
a) facing the machine, maintaining three points of contact,
b) with back to the machine, using a three-step ladder,c) entering sideways while being careful of the devices in the cabin.112. When performing tasks on the road, the repairman should:
a) have the warning light on and proper work signage in place,
b) have the hazard lights on,c) emit a sound signal.113. In the case of a road surface repairman, the preparation and securing of the work site is ensured by:
a) introducing proper road work signage with vertical and horizontal signs,
b) providing assistance from a traffic police patrol,c) turning on a red flashing light.114. The type and method of introducing vertical and horizontal signage on roads where emergency work is conducted by the repairman depends on:
a) the decision of the work manager,
b) the category and allowable speed of the road where the work is taking place,
c) the quantity and type of signs possessed by the repair crew.115. The securing of planned road works should be preceded by:
a) the development and approval of a temporary traffic organization project,
b) the development and approval of a permanent traffic organization project,c) the development of instructions for movement in the work area.116. In the case of working in urban areas on streets, sidewalks, parking lots, etc., before starting the resurfacing machine, it is necessary to:
a) secure against accidental application of the emulsion outside the repaired surface,
b) check if the emulsion is easily washable from surfaces, e.g., car bodies,c) ensure that the type of asphalt emulsion is biodegradable.117. The use of petroleum-derived substances on metal elements of machines transporting mineral-asphalt mass is prohibited because:
a) they cause rapid wear of metal components,
b) they can negatively affect the properties of the mixture,
c) they can excessively shorten the binding time of the asphalt mass.118. During the preparation for repairing the damaged surface, the blower is not used for:
a) removing dust and loose debris,
b) heating the damaged surface,
c) drying the wet surface before repair.119. Clean gravel applied to the repaired road surface defect is intended to:
a) prevent excessive drying of the surface,
b) protect against contamination of vehicles with remnants of emulsion,
c) strengthen the structure of the substrate.120. Due to weather conditions, we can carry out bituminous repairs of road surfaces using resurfacing machines when:
a) the ambient temperature is above +10 [°C],
b) the surface is dry, temperature does not matter,c) the ambient temperature is +2 [°C] and there is appropriate sunlight.121. The main function of compressors working with the road surface remoter is to:
a) polish the surface layer of the laid surface,b) compact the freshly laid surface,
c) power pneumatic tools.
122. To remove contaminants from the surface of the pavement before laying a new layer, one should:
a) wash the surface with water to remove all fine contaminants,
b) thoroughly clean the surface of loose debris and dust using a blower or mechanical brushes,
c) burn off contaminants with a torch.123. The final stage of repairing defects with the road surface remoter involves:
a) covering the repaired damage with clean gravel,
b) injecting emulsion under pressure into the repaired area,c) heating the surface before completing the work.124. The efficiency of the blower in the road surface remoter is measured in:
a) liters per cubic meter of mixture [l/m³],b) kilowatts per hour [kW/h],
c) cubic meters per minute [m³/min].
125. In the emulsion delivery system, the precise heating of the emulsion is the responsibility of:
a) heat circulation pump and external oil furnace,
b) oil burner in combination with a thermostat regulating the temperature,
c) heating system based on electric heating elements.126. The heat exchanger in the emulsion delivery system:
a) cools the emulsion after it has been heated,
b) provides jacket heating in the emulsion pump,
c) enables automatic filling of the emulsion tank.127. The efficiency of the air installation in the remounter is measured:
a) in [MPa],b) in [l/m³],
c) in [m³/min].
128. The circulating emulsion installation aims to:
a) shorten the heating time of the emulsion,
b) remove impurities from the emulsion before it is supplied,c) regulate the amount of emulsion delivered to the grit.129. The two-stage cleaning system for the emulsion installation includes:
a) blowing compressed air and rinsing with cleaning fluid,
b) removing impurities using at least mechanical filters,c) using a heat exchanger and jacket installation.130. Application nozzles in the emulsion heating system are used for:
a) mixing the emulsion with aggregate,
b) evenly distributing the emulsion on the road surface,
c) dissipating excess heat from the emulsion.131. Mixing aggregate with asphalt emulsion in a remediator with pressure filling of defects takes place:
a) in the gravel tank during its heating,b) in hydraulic pipes before being supplied to the head,
c) in the working head equipped with a nozzle ring.
132. Repairing asphalt surface damage using the surface treatment method involves:
a) cutting the surface, chiseling the old layer, spraying with emulsion, laying the ready asphalt mass, and compacting at the repair site,
b) cleaning under pressure, heating the surface, spraying with asphalt emulsion, and using gravel at the repaired surface,
c) filling the defect with a ready mineral-asphalt mixture, without cutting.133. When performing partial repairs using ready mineral-asphalt mixtures, the machines cooperating with the remediator are:
a) gravel spreaders, compacting feet,b) oil burners, sprinklers,
c) road surface cutters, demolition hammers, compactors, or road rollers.
134. Excess gravel used for the surface treatment should:
a) be removed,
b) be additionally sprayed with asphalt emulsion to prevent movement on the road,c) remain for additional compaction by vehicle wheels.135. Which of the listed elements are not part of the hydraulic system:
a) starter, alternator,
b) hydraulic lock, hydraulic oil tank,c) pump, distributor, actuator.136. The hydraulic lock in a machine is:
a) closure of the hydraulic oil inlet at its tank,
b) a valve protecting against uncontrolled movement of the element located in a given line,
c) a valve responsible for controlling the entire hydraulic system.137. The change of hydraulic oil pressure into mechanical motion is the responsibility of:
a) hydraulic pump system,b) hydraulic distributor,
c) hydraulic actuator and hydraulic motor.
138. Pressure in the hydraulic system is generated by:
a) hydraulic motor,
b) hydraulic pump,
c) hydraulic actuator.139. Directing the flow of hydraulic oil to individual systems is carried out by:
a) hydraulic lock,
b) hydraulic distributor,
c) relief valve.140. The safety valve protects the hydraulic system from:
a) air entering the hydraulic system,b) overheating of the hydraulic oil,
c) excessive pressure increase.
141. The overflow valve in the hydraulic system is responsible for:
a) limiting the maximum working pressure in a given circuit,
b) maintaining a constant position of the working tool,c) venting the system.142. If the pressure in the hydraulic system rises excessively, the excess oil will be directed to:
a) the hydraulic oil tank,
b) the hydraulic oil filter,c) the distributor.143. The basic parameters that characterize an electric accumulator are:
a) rated voltage [V], resistance [Ω], power [W],b) rated voltage [V], power [W], mass [kg],
c) rated voltage [V], capacity [Ah], starting current [A].
144. Lead-acid batteries can be charged:
a) only in an air-conditioned room,
b) in a place specifically designated for this purpose,
c) in any room.145. The pressure in the tires should be adjusted to:
a) the values given in the operating and maintenance manual,
b) the requirements of the landowner,c) the preferences of the operator.146. Uneven pressure in the tires:
a) reduces the stability of the machine,
b) does not affect the operation of the machine,c) improves the driving properties of the machine.147. The primary task of the hydraulic accumulator in the hydrostatic system is:
a) regulating the temperature of the working fluid,b) evenly distributing oil to the system receivers,
c) storing energy in the form of pressure of the working fluid.
148. In the hydrostatic system, the energy of the fluid pressure is transmitted to:
a) oil coolers and manometers,
b) hydraulic motors or hydraulic actuators,
c) thermostatic, overflow, and check valves.149. The filling of the emulsion tank is the responsibility of:
a) the circulation system,b) the heat exchanger,
c) the emulsion pump.
150. The mandatory equipment used for the operator to observe the area directly behind the machine is:
a) external mirror,
b) rear camera,c) sound signal when reversing.151. In a parallel connection of two identical batteries, the voltage of such a system is:
a) the product of the voltages of the individual batteries,
b) equal to the voltage of a single battery,
c) the sum of the voltages of the individual batteries.152. In a series connection of two identical batteries, the voltage of such a system is:
a) the sum of the voltages of the individual batteries,
b) equal to the voltage of a single battery,c) the product of the voltages of the individual batteries.153. Fuses in the electrical installation of a machine protect it from the effects of:
a) short circuits and overloads,
b) high temperature,c) low voltage.154. One of the elements of the electrical system protecting the motor from seizing is:
a) main fuse,
b) engine oil pressure sensor,
c) speed controller.155. Gel batteries that are part of the electrical system do not require:
a) charging with a rectifier,b) replacement when the housing is damaged,
c) electrolyte replenishment.
156. Electrical systems of machines and technical devices should be equipped with a device that causes emergency stop in at least the following quantity:
a) two emergency stop devices placed on both sides of the machine, in accordance with the European Machinery Directive,b) three emergency stop devices, in accordance with the European Machinery Directive,
c) one emergency stop device, in accordance with the European Machinery Directive.
157. The emergency stop device of the machine is a component of:
a) the drive system,b) the fuel system,
c) the electrical system.
158. The main parameters of the internal combustion engine affecting work efficiency are:
a) torque, rotational speed,
b) compression ratio, displacement,c) type of carburetor, type of ignition system.159. The crank-piston system of the internal combustion engine is designed to:
a) convert mechanical energy into hydraulic energy,
b) convert the reciprocating motion of the piston into the rotational motion of the crankshaft,
c) ensure the effective operation of the clutch.160. The lubrication system in the internal combustion engine:
a) provides regulation of the rotational speed and reduces engine vibrations during operation,
b) is responsible for the proper lubrication of the moving elements of the engine that work together,
c) is responsible for removing hazardous substances generated in the combustion process of the mixture.161. The engine timing system is used for:
a) controlling the filling of the combustion chamber with air or fuel-air mixture and controlling the emptying of this chamber of exhaust gases,
b) ensuring the optimal composition of the fuel-oil-air mixture for combustion,c) damping noise and minimizing engine vibrations during operation.162. Systems present in internal combustion engines include, among others:
a) crankshaft-piston system, fuel supply system, cooling system,
b) hydraulic system, intake system,c) exhaust system, pneumatic system, closed system.163. The low-pressure part of the fuel supply system of a diesel engine is:
a) fuel lines, high-pressure pump, common rail,
b) fuel tank, supply pump, filters, fuel lines,
c) fuel tank and injectors.164. The element controlling the flow of coolant in the so-called "large circuit" is:
a) thermostat,
b) thermocouple,c) hot water bottle.165. An intercooler is:
a) an air cooler for turbocharged engines,
b) another name for the engine coolant radiator,c) a device for burning solid particles in exhaust gases.166. DPF filter:
a) is used to reduce NOx (nitrogen oxides) emissions,b) is a precise cabin filter protecting the operator during work in high dust conditions,
c) is a dry particulate filter responsible for capturing soot from exhaust gases.
167. The frequency and scope of periodic maintenance of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam:
a) is determined by the owner of the machine/technical device,
b) is included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine,
c) is included in the IBWR documentation.168. The operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device is:
a) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device, which includes among others IBWR,b) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by health and safety services on the construction site,
c) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device.
169. The operator of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is not allowed to:
a) make any repairs or maintenance,b) during work, check the technical condition of the machine/technical device,
c) use the machine/technical device contrary to its intended purpose.
170. A symptom of too low a level of hydraulic oil may be:
a) loud operation of the starter,b) uneven operation of the diesel engine,
c) "jerky" intermittent movement of hydraulic actuators.
171. In the event of detecting tire damage that may pose a threat, the operator should:
a) notify the supervisor and cautiously continue working,
b) stop working,
c) continue working while reducing the speed and load of the machine.172. If the low engine oil pressure warning light comes on, the operator:
a) does not need to take any action,
b) should stop working and turn off the engine,
c) can continue working if the hydraulic system is functioning properly.173. The cause of the machine's loss of stability may be:
a) too low tire pressure,
b) the machine operating in a suitable location for it,c) driving on a hardened surface.174. The operating and maintenance manual for the machine/technical device:
a) is used to record information about faults,b) is established by the owner or user of the machine,
c) includes, among other things, information about hazards during the operation of the machine/technical device.
175. The CE Declaration of Conformity is a document:
a) issued by institutions that test machines for resistance to weather conditions,
b) in which the manufacturer confirms that their product meets all applicable EU requirements regarding safety, health protection, and environmental protection,
c) confirming that the product was manufactured in the countries of the European Union.176. Information regarding the use of personal protective equipment and ways to reduce the occupational risk the operator can find:
a) in the service book,b) in the CE Declaration of Conformity,
c) in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device.
177. The operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device:
a) is developed by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device or the entity that introduces the machine/technical device to the market,
b) is created by the construction manager based on information from the manufacturer,c) is created by institutions that conduct testing and accreditation of machine/technical device prototypes before allowing them for serial production.178. The operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device:
a) should be located in the office along with the company's documentation and be available in case of inspection,b) does not matter where it is located, the most important thing is that the owner of the machine has it in case of resale of the machine,
c) should be located in the machine or with the device, treated as part of the machine/technical device and be available at any time.
179. Identification data of the machine/technical device:
a) due to their importance are always printed in red,
b) are located on the nameplate of the machine/technical device, additionally they may be in the marking places described in the manual,
c) should be noted on the inner side of the protective helmet assigned to the given machine/technical device.180. To minimize the risk of machine/technical device failure the operator should:
a) regularly visually assess the condition of the machine/technical device and report any noticed irregularities,
b) use the machine/technical device until the failure becomes serious,c) perform maintenance activities only when the machine/technical device stops working.181. The operator uses the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine or technical device to:
a) record the hours worked and fuel consumption by the machine,
b) learn the technical specifications, health and safety rules, and methods of repairing faults,
c) record all faults of the machine or technical device noticed during operation.182. The SAE designation on the oil refers to:
a) engine oil pressure,b) multi-season qualification of the oil,
c) engine oil viscosity, that is, its ability to flow and lubricate.
183. Oil with the symbol SAE 15W-40 means that:
a) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40,b) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 15W,
c) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 15W, and at positive temperatures of summer oil class SAE 40.
184. Oil with the symbol SAE 10W-30 means that:
a) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W,b) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 30,
c) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W, and at positive temperatures of summer oil class SAE 30.
185. The symbol SAE 10W-30 means:
a) a mixture of engine oil and hydraulic oil,
b) multi-season engine oil with specified parameters,
c) hydraulic oil with specified parameters.186. Engine oil with the symbol SAE 5W-40 means that:
a) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 5W,b) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40,
c) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 5W, and at positive temperatures of summer oil class SAE 40.
187. The symbol of the warning light shown in the graphic means:
a) low engine oil level,
b) low engine oil pressure,c) low coolant level.
188. The symbol of the warning light shown in the graphic means:
a) low coolant level,
b) low engine oil pressure,
c) low fuel level.
189. The symbol of the light shown means:
a) engine oil filter,b) hydraulic oil,
c) engine oil.
190. The symbol of the light shown means:
a) hydraulic oil level,b) engine coolant level,
c) engine oil level.
191. Oils with designations 70W, 85W, 80W-90 are:
a) brake oils,b) engine oils,
c) gear oils.
192. The maintenance activities before starting work include:
a) visual inspection and lubrication,
b) performing a work cycle without materials,c) ordering materials (aggregate, sand, etc.) needed for the day of work.193. In case of the need to dismantle the cover/protection to carry out maintenance, it is not allowed to:
a) reassemble the cover/protection,
b) start working with the device without the cover/protection installed,
c) record such a fact in the documentation.194. The lighting of the battery charging indicator signals to the operator of the construction machine a failure of:
a) battery switch,b) starter,
c) V-belt and/or alternator.
195. If during daily technical maintenance before work the operator notices that one of the windows in the cabin is cracked, then:
a) he should not start working,
b) he may start working provided that the window is only cracked and has not "fallen out",c) he may start working if it is not the front window.196. Before starting work, the operator should:
a) install window sun shields,
b) clean the windows by removing snow, ice, and other contaminants,
c) open the windows for better communication.197. When changing hydraulic oils, one should:
a) use any type of oil,
b) use only the types of oils recommended by the machine manufacturer,
c) always use only biodegradable oils.198. To ensure the technical efficiency of the working machine, one should:
a) follow technical service and maintenance according to the operating and maintenance instructions,
b) use the machine/technical device without exceeding 50% of the permissible load,c) use the machine/technical device only under full load.199. On the construction site, empty containers of lubricants, oil filters, and used oils should be:
a) thrown into the mixed waste container,b) thrown into any waste container,
c) placed in a properly marked hazardous waste container.
200. Stickers (pictograms) located on the machine/technical device serve to:
a) indicate places where one can stay without any risk,b) inform about the prohibition of approaching the machine/technical device,
c) convey important information about safety and the use of the machine/technical device.
201. Grease points in the machine should be serviced:
a) always after 10 hours of operation,
b) according to the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine,
c) during all breaks in work.202. Engine oil with parameters 5W-50 is:
a) only summer oil,b) only winter oil,
c) all-season oil.
203. Before starting work on a new type of machine/technical device, the operator should:
a) perform a test run,b) conduct a periodic inspection,
c) familiarize themselves with the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine/technical device.
204. OTC service is:
a) round-the-clock technical service,
b) daily technical service,
c) temporary technical service.205. The basic types of services are:
a) round-the-clock, all-season, annual, technological service,b) visual, active, passive service,
c) daily, periodic, warehouse, transport service.
206. Batteries, when starting a machine using a supporting battery, should be connected:
a) crosswise,b) in series,
c) in parallel.
207. In the case of electrolyte loss caused by spillage through a cracked battery case, one should:
a) secure the spill area in terms of environmental protection, and then replace the battery,
b) add demineralized water to a level 10 mm above the top edges of the plates,c) add electrolyte to the proper level and charge the battery.208. The activities performed by the operator as part of daily maintenance during operation are:
a) auditory control of the machine's operation and observation of indicators,
b) replenishing operating fluids and daily lubrication,c) cleaning the machine.209. When inflating a tire of the machine's wheel, one should:
a) stand by the inflated wheel provided that a safety helmet is worn,b) check the state of the inflated wheel by bending the side part of the tire,
c) not stand directly next to the inflated wheel.
210. If the manufacturer has provided for operational running-in, it should be carried out:
a) without load,b) with maximum load,
c) with the recommended load in the machine/technical device operating manual.
211. The passage of the machine on public roads should be performed in the position:
a) transport position,
b) working position,c) transfer position.212. When storing the machine, one must ensure that:
a) the machine is facing the exit,
b) there are no leaks of operating fluids,
c) no machine documents are left in the cabin.213. Securing the machine during storage downtime involves:
a) disassembling all filters and protecting them from moisture,
b) cleaning the machine of dirt and corrosion,
c) filling the hydraulic oil tank to the top.214. The rods of hydraulic cylinders, during technical maintenance of the stored machine, should be:
a) disassembled and their seals replaced,b) removed and cleaned,
c) protected against corrosion.
215. During longer storage of the machine, the fuel tank should be:
a) filled to the top to prevent condensation of water vapor inside the tank,
b) filled to 1/3 of its capacity and left open,c) empty to avoid fire hazards.216. During the daily operation of the machine, the condition of should be checked:
a) connections and tightness of the hydraulic system,
b) values of working pressure in the hydraulic system,c) tools and equipment.217. If the machine's engine has not been running for a long time during daily operation, you should:
a) start the engine and gently increase the RPM to reach the operating temperature faster,b) replace the fuel pre-filter,
c) check the oil level and other operating fluids.
218. When inflating tires on the working machine, the operator should:
a) stand beside the tire tread or on the other side of the machine,
b) stand directly in front of the tire to monitor the pressure,c) ensure that bystanders are nearby.219. Information regarding faults, their codes, and methods of removal can be found in the document titled:
a) operating and maintenance manual,
b) daily report,c) construction machine book.220. The correct order for connecting the auxiliary battery to the discharged battery in the machine is as follows:
a) negative terminal of the machine's battery, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, machine frame,b) machine frame, positive terminal of the machine's battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery,
c) positive terminal of the machine's battery, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, machine frame.
221. In case of electrolyte loss in the battery, one should:
a) top it up with DOT-3 fluid,
b) top it up with distilled or demineralized water,
c) top it up with water other than distilled.222. Checking the charge state of the 12 [V] starter battery by "sparking" poses a risk of:
a) an explosion of hydrogen escaping from the battery,
b) electric shock from high voltage,c) seizing the alternator.223. Before storing wheels in a wheeled machine, one should:
a) loosen to reduce the static load on the mounting screws,b) inflate to maximum pressure to prevent tire deformation,
c) relieve to prevent tire deformation.
224. The scope of daily technical service of the machine does not include:
a) checking and adjusting valve clearances,
b) checking the condition of tires and tire pressure,c) checking the oil level in the engine.225. The purpose of lubrication in working machines is:
a) to raise the temperature of cooperating elements,
b) to reduce friction,
c) to increase the engine speed.226. The most commonly used type of fuses in electrical installations of working machines is:
a) fuse links,
b) automatic fuses,c) residual current devices.227. The phenomenon of electrostatic discharge during refueling a machine can lead to:
a) fire,
b) short circuit of the electrical installation,c) poisoning.228. In the case of connecting two batteries in parallel with different rated voltages:
a) thicker cables should be used than with batteries of the same rated voltages,b) both batteries may discharge,
c) there may be an explosion of the battery with the lower rated voltage.
229. When checking the pressure in a tire, the machine should be:
a) running and warmed up,
b) unloaded, and the tire should be cold,
c) loaded to make the measurement more accurate.230. The correct way to connect a battery to a charger during charging is:
a) the positive terminal of the battery to the negative terminal of the charger, the negative terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger,
b) the positive terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger, the negative terminal of the battery to the negative terminal of the charger,
c) the positive terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger, the negative terminal of the charger to the "ground" of the machine.231. After connecting the battery, the terminals should be greased with:
a) technical vaseline,
b) grease containing molybdenum disulfide,c) graphite grease.232. To safely inflate a tire, one should:
a) stand to the side of the tire tread and use a long pneumatic hose,
b) stand opposite the tire valve while inflating,c) use a short pneumatic hose with a pressure gauge.233. One of the goals of warehouse management is:
a) repairing damaged machine parts before the next season,b) preparing the machine for transport for the future user,
c) protecting the machine from corrosion and other harmful factors during long-term storage.
234. If during daily technical service the operator notices a leak in the cooling system, they should:
a) report the leak and not use the machine until it is repaired,
b) organize fluid and top it up to the minimum level if the leak is small,c) top up the coolant and continue working.235. The level of coolant in the expansion tank should be checked:
a) only during periodic technical service,
b) during every daily technical service,
c) only in case of engine overheating.236. If the operator notices a hydraulic fluid leak during daily maintenance, he should:
a) top up the oil and continue working,b) reduce the RPM and continue working,
c) report the leak and not use the machine until it is repaired.
237. The frequency of performing periodic technical maintenance depends on:
a) the number of hours worked (engine hours),
b) the number of completed working cycles,c) the production date of the machine.238. If during daily technical maintenance the operator notices a low level of engine oil, he should:
a) top up the oil to the appropriate level,
b) top up the level with any available oil, even if it is of a different type,c) start working if the level is not very low and the warning light is not on.239. A characteristic activity for seasonal technical maintenance is:
a) checking the charging voltage value,b) checking the working pressure value of the hydraulic system,
c) replacing the coolant with one appropriate for the season.
240. The basic maintenance tasks that should be performed before starting a diesel engine are:
a) checking the oil level in the engine, checking the coolant level, checking the condition of the air filter,
b) checking the oil level in the gearbox, checking the operation of the working system, checking the operation of the brakes,c) bleeding the fuel system, checking the level of transmission oil, checking the starter.241. Activities performed as part of daily technical service (OTC) carried out during the operation of the machine are:
a) observation only of control and measurement indicators such as: oil pressure, engine temperature, hydraulic oil temperature,
b) observation of control and measurement instruments and monitoring the proper operation of the machine using sight, hearing, and smell,
c) primarily sensory control of the proper functioning of the machine's working system.242. We distinguish, among others, the following types of technical services:
a) running-in, daily, periodic, seasonal, storage, emergency, night,