Pavers and remixers
Study mode
Question of 246
1. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage not exceeding 1 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 3 [m],
b) not less than 2 [m],c) not less than 5 [m].2. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 5 [m],
b) not less than 15 [m],c) not less than 10 [m].3. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 5 [m],
b) not less than 10 [m],
c) not less than 15 [m].4. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 10 [m],
b) not less than 15 [m],
c) not less than 20 [m]. Repavery and remixers5. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 10 [m],b) not less than 15 [m],
c) not less than 30 [m].
6. Can workstations be organized in the danger zone under overhead power lines?
a) yes, always,
b) yes, but only after meeting additional requirements,
c) no, never.
7. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [V]?
a) not less than 5 [m],
b) not less than 3 [m],
c) not less than 30 [m].
8. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV]?
a) not less than 10 [m],b) not less than 15 [m],
c) not less than 5 [m].

9. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?
a) not less than 10 [m],
b) not less than 15 [m],c) not less than 30 [m].
10. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?
a) not less than 15 [m],b) not less than 5 [m],
c) not less than 10 [m].

11. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV]?
a) not less than 15 [m],
b) not less than 50 [m],c) not less than 30 [m].
12. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV]?
a) not less than 10 [m],
b) not less than 30 [m],c) not less than 15 [m].
13. What is the safe distance X for working with a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]?
a) not less than 40 [m],
b) not less than 30 [m],
c) not less than 3 [m].14. Work in the danger zone (overhead high voltage power line):
a) may be carried out provided that permission has been granted by the work manager,
b) may be carried out provided that the line has been disconnected from voltage, work is performed in a zone limited by groundings and at least one grounding is visible from the work location,
c) may not be carried out under any circumstances under electric lines in the danger zone.
15. The operator must perform work at a distance X from an active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [V]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 2 [m],b) 1 [m],
c) 5 [m].

16. The operator must perform work at a distance X from an active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 3 [m],
b) 15 [m],
c) 5 [m].
17. The operator must perform work at a distance X from an active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 15 [m],b) 5 [m],
c) 50 [m].
18. If the injured person has a detectable pulse but is not breathing, then:
a) chest compressions should be performed,
b) the airways should be cleared and artificial respiration started,
c) he should not be touched.19. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, it is essential to:
a) assist those with life-threatening conditions,
b) move away from the accident scene to call a doctor,c) give medication to the injured.20. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, it is essential to:
a) move away from the accident scene to call a doctor,b) assist those with life-threatening conditions,
c) ensure your own safety.
21. The obligation to provide first aid to accident victims rests with:
a) only those who have medical training,
b) everyone, as part of the rescue tasks can always be performed,
c) everyone, but criminal liability always threatens for mistakes made.22. The accident victim regained consciousness after a few minutes and wants to go home. In this situation, one should:
a) allow her to go home, recommending a visit to the doctor,b) give her something to drink and painkillers,
c) persuade her to stay and call for medical help.
23. First aid in a situation where a foreign body has entered the eye of the injured person consists of:
a) rinsing with clean water directing the stream from the nose outward from the eye,
b) rinsing with distilled water directing the stream inward to the eye,c) rinsing the eye with eye drops.24. The injured person cut their leg on an unsecured sharp element. Providing first aid in this situation is:
a) using a tourniquet,
b) applying sterile gauze, wrapping the wound with a bandage,
c) sticking a plaster directly on the wound.25. Suspecting spinal injury in a person who has fallen from a height and is conscious, one should:
a) lay her in a stable side position,b) seat her in a semi-reclining position,
c) not move her and wait for medical services to arrive.
26. To move away from the place where the electric wire was interrupted and the area is under voltage, you should:
a) slowly step away from this place, taking small steps, trying to maintain continuous contact of your feet with the ground,
b) quickly step away from the source of electric shock, lifting your feet high,c) run as fast as possible to a place that we assess as safe.27. First aid in the case of a first-degree burn is:
a) applying ointment to the burned area,b) applying greasy cream to the burned area,
c) pouring cold water on the burned area.
28. During work, a high voltage power line was torn down, as a result of which a colleague was electrocuted. In this situation, the correct behavior is:
a) call other colleagues for help with the injured person,
b) turn off the power source as quickly as possible,
c) approach the injured person to provide first aid.29. We perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation until:
a) 10 minutes have passed,
b) we have determined that the victim has started to breathe and circulation has returned,
c) the fire brigade arrives and secures the area.30. Immediate action in the case of severe bleeding from an injured upper limb includes:
a) applying a dressing, directly compressing the bleeding site, and elevating the limb,
b) disinfecting the wound with salicylic alcohol,c) lowering the limb below heart level.31. In case of a nosebleed, one should:
a) lean the bleeding person's head forward, pinch the nostrils,
b) lay the injured person on their back,c) tilt the head back and place a cold compress on the neck.32. The first step in dealing with a victim of carbon monoxide poisoning in a closed room is:
a) assess ABC,
b) evacuate the injured person from the room as quickly as possible,
c) conduct a preliminary examination.33. First aid during seizures caused by an epileptic attack consists of:
a) seating the injured person in a semi-sitting position and giving them something to drink,
b) protecting the injured person's head from injuries,
c) placing a wooden object in the injured person's mouth to prevent biting the tongue.34. In case of suspected cervical spine injury in a conscious person, one should:
a) not allow the injured person to move their head,
b) place the injured person in a lateral position,c) seat the injured person in a chair with a high back.35. The most important thing when a person is buried under earth, sand, or gravel is:
a) locating the injured person,
b) waiting for the ambulance to arrive,c) notifying the family.36. First aid for a person with a metal rod embedded in their calf involves calling for help and:
a) removing the embedded rod,b) moving the rod to check if the artery has been damaged,
c) securing the rod to prevent movement.
37. The indication for using an AED defibrillator is:
a) severe chest pain,
b) absence of detectable breath and pulse in the injured person,
c) severe dizziness.38. During the operation of a machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam, prohibited actions include:
a) performing daily technical service (OTS),b) changing the working tool,
c) making structural changes to the machine/technical device.
39. During the operation of a machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam, prohibited actions include:
a) refueling the machine/technical device from a canister,b) cleaning the machine/technical device using a substance compliant with the operating and maintenance instructions,
c) cleaning the machine/technical device using gasoline or solvents whose vapors can create flammable/explosive gas mixtures with air.
40. The machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam may only be operated by:
a) a person with written confirmation of course completion in the form of a plastic card,b) any adult person with technical education and a driver's license of the appropriate category,
c) a person who has completed training and obtained a positive result on the test conducted by the commission appointed by the Łukasiewicz Research Network – Warsaw Institute of Technology.
41. The permissions to operate machines/technical devices for which you are taking the exam are issued by:
a) Technical Supervision Office (UDT),
b) Łukasiewicz Research Network - Warsaw Institute of Technology (SBŁ - WIT),
c) The County Office appropriate for the address of the person applying for the permissions.42. The permissions to operate machines/technical devices for which you are taking the exam:
a) are valid indefinitely,
b) are valid for 10 years from the date of issue,c) are valid for 5 years from the date of issue.43. A person holding permissions to operate: "Repavery and remixers without a class" can operate based on them:
a) only repavery and remixers,
b) repavery, remixers, and road surface repair machines,c) repavery, remixers, and machines for laying mineral-asphalt mixtures.44. An employee operating a machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam can start work provided that:
a) the machine/technical device has a valid UDT inspection,b) has a valid category D driving license,
c) has permissions to operate this type of machine/technical device.
45. In the event of a threat to life, health, property, or the environment caused by a malfunction of the machine/technical device, the operator:
a) continues working, but at the end of the shift makes an appropriate entry in the maintenance book,b) continues working, but at the end of the shift informs the supervisor about the situation,
c) immediately stops work and informs the supervisor about this fact.
46. Lifting and transporting people using working equipment:
a) is possible, but only outside the public road area,b) requires the consent of the construction manager,
c) is always prohibited.
47. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam has the right to refuse to work when:
a) he has the required personal protective equipment,b) there is an overhead power line at a distance of 35 meters with a rated voltage of 110 [kV],
c) this work requires special psychophysical fitness, and his psychophysical condition does not ensure its safe performance and poses a threat to others.
48. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is obliged to stop work when:
a) there is an overhead power line at a distance of 35 meters,b) he has the required personal protective equipment,
c) the work he is performing poses a direct threat to the health or life of others.
49. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is obliged to:
a) independently perform all current repairs of the machine/technical device,b) always have a category B driving license,
c) comply with the provisions of the operation and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device.
50. The person directly responsible for the safe operation of the machine for which you are taking the exam is:
a) the owner of the machine,b) the construction manager,
c) the machine operator.
51. The operator's book and the qualifications for the machine/technical device you are taking the exam for are issued by:
a) Office of Technical Inspection (UDT),b) Transport Technical Inspection (TDT),
c) Łukasiewicz Research Network - Warsaw Institute of Technology.
52. The obligation to use personal protective equipment:
a) does not apply on hot days,
b) arises from the operating and maintenance instructions and health and safety regulations,
c) arises only from internal regulations.53. An employee who witnesses an accident at work:
a) is obliged to assist the victims and then immediately leave the accident site,b) it is enough to notify the supervisor,
c) is obliged to assist the victims, notify the supervisor, and if necessary secure the accident site.
54. We define the danger zone as:
a) a place where work requiring specialized equipment is carried out, and the presence of people is only allowed at night,
b) a place where there are threats to the health and life of people,
c) a place where employees must only wear safety helmets.55. The area that the operator should check and secure before starting work with the machine/technical device (because there are threats to the health and life of people) is called:
a) danger zone,
b) dead zone,c) high-risk zone.56. During the charging of batteries, gas with very explosive properties is released. This gas is:
a) methane,
b) hydrogen,
c) ethane.57. Firefighting foam can be used to extinguish fires of group:
a) only C,
b) A and B,
c) C and D.58. Improper use of a snow extinguisher can result in:
a) fainting,b) burns from the extinguisher components,
c) frostbite caused by the extinguishing agent.
59. Water, fire blanket, powder extinguisher, carbon dioxide, sand are extinguishing agents that we will use to extinguish:
a) solid bodies,
b) oils,c) liquids.60. We can call sorbents:
a) petroleum-derived substances,
b) materials made from natural or synthetic substances that absorb liquids,
c) fire blankets.61. Group A fires concern:
a) flammable gases,
b) solid materials whose normal combustion occurs with the formation of glowing coals, e.g. wood, paper, etc.,
c) flammable liquids.62. Group B fires concern:
a) metals, e.g. magnesium, sodium, potassium, aluminum, titanium, etc.,
b) liquids and solid materials that melt, e.g. plastics, fuels, oils, etc.,
c) flammable gases.63. Group C fires concern:
a) gases, e.g. methane, propane, acetylene, hydrogen,
b) solid materials,c) flammable liquids.
64. Seeing such a pictogram you are informed about:
a) a larger number of people in a given area,
b) a gathering place during evacuation,
c) a danger zone.
65. While working you noticed a sign marked 'Zone 0'. It informs about:
a) a zone of a certain category of fire hazard,
b) a space where an explosive atmosphere exists,
c) a zone of existing fire load in the building.
66. The presented pictogram informs about:
a) the main power switch,
b) a set of fire protection equipment,
c) an internal hydrant.
67. Seeing such a pictogram you are informed about:
a) the assembly point during evacuation,b) the location of first aid,
c) the emergency exit.

68. Seeing such a pictogram you are informed about:
a) the location of the fire extinguisher,
b) high temperature affecting the fire extinguisher,c) the prohibition of using the fire extinguisher.69. You see a person whose clothing is on fire and who is fleeing in panic. Your reaction is:
a) you tell him to wait in an upright position for the arrival of rescue services,b) you wave your arms or outer garment strongly next to him to extinguish the burning clothing,
c) you try to stop him, lay him on the ground, and start extinguishing.
70. Electrical devices and installations can be extinguished using:
a) powder or snow extinguishers,
b) foam extinguishers,c) water.71. Burning fuel can be extinguished using:
a) water,
b) powder, foam or snow extinguishers,
c) low-octane ethylene.72. Burning clothing on a person can be extinguished using:
a) water mist extinguisher or fire blanket,
b) snow or powder extinguisher,c) plastic material.73. What obligations does an employee have when they decide to refrain from work due to health and safety regulations?
a) They must immediately notify their supervisor,
b) They should organize work for others,c) They have no obligations in this situation.74. How can an operator prevent hazards in the workplace?
a) By using personal protective equipment to minimize risk,
b) By not reporting faults in machines,c) By ignoring health and safety rules.75. It is not permissible to position a workplace directly under active overhead power lines or at a horizontal distance from the outermost conductors of less than:
a) for lines: 1 [kV] - 3 [m], 15 [kV] - 5 [m], 30 [kV] - 10 [m], 110 [kV] - 15 [m], 400 [kV] - 30 [m],
b) for lines: 1 [kV] - 1 [m], 15 [kV] - 3 [m], 30 [kV] - 5 [m], 110 [kV] - 10 [m],c) for all voltages - 1 [m] from the power line.76. How does the operator know what personal protective equipment is required for a given machine/technical device?
a) The choice of personal protective equipment depends on the opinion of colleagues at work,b) The operator must independently choose the appropriate protective measures,
c) Information about the necessary personal protective equipment is included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine.
77. The operator should refuse to perform a task when:
a) the work requires familiarization with the location of underground and overhead utilities,b) the work is being performed at night,
c) the work is inconsistent with the intended use of the machine/technical device.
78. The operator can prevent hazards during the operation of the machine/technical device by:
a) limiting the use of personal protective equipment,b) inattention and routine,
c) following health and safety rules and adhering to the operating instructions.
79. Which of the situations listed is unacceptable during the use of the machine/technical device?
a) Operating the machine without supervision,
b) Unauthorized persons being in the danger zone caused by the operation of the machine/technical device,
c) Reporting faults directly to the supervisor.80. An accident at work is considered to be:
a) a sudden event related to the work being performed, caused by an external factor, resulting in injury or death,
b) a sudden event unrelated to the work being performed, caused by an external factor, resulting in injury or death,c) a prolonged event related to the work being performed, caused by an internal factor, resulting in equipment damage.81. A fatal accident at work is considered to be an accident in which death occurred:
a) only at the moment of the accident,
b) within a period not exceeding 6 months from the date of the accident,
c) after a period of more than 6 months from the date of the accident.82. Health and safety regulations require:
a) the scrapping of an old working machine within the time specified in its operating and maintenance instructions, while observing the requirements for the disposal of hazardous materials,b) the performance of a warranty inspection of the working machine before the expiration of one year from its purchase,
c) securing the working machine during breaks in its operation against accidental activation by unauthorized persons.
83. Thermal hazards occurring during the operation of a mixer/reviver are:
a) the risk of burns caused by hot materials and poisoning caused by inhaling harmful vapors or dust,
b) the risk of overheating the machine due to the need for frequent lubrication,c) the risk of injury resulting from contact with cold surfaces of the machine.84. In the event of a person being electrocuted:
a) it is recommended to use any tools to disconnect the power, regardless of their actual purpose,
b) do not touch the injured person until the power source is disconnected,
c) immediate resuscitation should be initiated, regardless of whether the power source has been disconnected.85. Seeing a person whose clothes are on fire, the first thing to do is:
a) use a fire extinguisher, preferably a snow extinguisher, to extinguish the burning clothing, and then try to quickly remove the melted clothing,
b) cut off the air supply by rolling the injured person or wrapping them in a fire blanket, wet clothing, or a wet blanket,
c) leave the injured person standing to facilitate air access and extinguish the flames more quickly.86. Rules and methods of marking works carried out on public roads 'under traffic':
a) define the regulations regarding permanent road marking, which do not take into account temporary changes in traffic,b) is determined solely by the decision of the construction manager, without the need to prepare an additional project,
c) defines the Temporary Traffic Organization Project, which presents the types and methods of placing road signs, traffic lights, sound signals, and traffic safety devices.
87. When carrying out works in the road lane:
a) one must familiarize oneself with the Safe Work Execution Instruction (IBWR) and use personal protective equipment, such as safety helmets, work shoes, and high-visibility protective clothing,
b) vehicles used in the works may be unmarked if they are visible up close,c) employees may work without personal protective equipment, provided the works are short-term.88. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is performed:
a) when the victim is not breathing and there is no detectable pulse. For a non-professional rescuer, the absence of breathing is a sufficient basis to start resuscitation,
b) when the victim is breathing but is unconscious, with no contact,c) only in cases of fainting and minor injuries, to improve blood circulation.89. An employee has the right to refrain from performing work due to health and safety regulations, notifying their supervisor immediately if:
a) the working conditions do not pose a threat, but are too difficult for them,b) the work they are performing has not been reported to the construction supervision,
c) the working conditions pose a direct threat to health or life.
90. Physical factors generating hazards in the workplace are:
a) lack of or inadequate training of employees,b) lack of appropriate medical examinations of the employee,
c) spilled lubricants, oils, and fuels.
91. Work with a machine/technical device is unacceptable when:
a) the second operator did not report an upcoming inspection,b) its repair was carried out after dark,
c) it is malfunctioning.
92. Working near overhead power lines:
a) is possible without meeting additional requirements provided that certain distances depending on the rated voltage of the line are maintained,
b) always requires double grounding of the line,c) always requires power to be turned off in the line.93. The operator is obliged to refuse to start work if:
a) there is no site manager or any other person authorized to supervise at the work site,
b) the machine is malfunctioning,
c) they would have to work under power lines, and the voltage in them has been turned off and the line grounded.94. The danger zone from a machine/device is:
a) a place where the machine/device cannot be used,b) always the entire fenced construction site,
c) a place where there are hazards to health or life of people.
95. Accidents at work resulting from the poor technical condition of the machine may involve, for example:
a) failure of the drive system,b) damage to the equipment,
c) injury to a limb, torso, or head.
96. Unacceptable behaviors are:
a) performing daily machine maintenance after dark,
b) operating a faulty machine and working under the influence of alcohol,
c) working after dark in a well-lit place, with full concentration of the operator.97. The basic duties of an employee in terms of OHS are:
a) enforcing the labor code regulations regarding their rights, including payment for overtime worked,
b) adhering to OHS regulations and principles, taking care of the condition of machines and tools, maintaining order in the workplace, using personal protective equipment,
c) not being late for work, finishing on time, confirming presence at work in the manner accepted by the employer.98. The most common mechanical hazards that an operator of a remixer/re-paver may encounter are:
a) working for long hours in low temperatures in winter conditions,b) fatigue caused by long hours of continuous work,
c) injuries caused by moving parts of the machine, falling objects, and falls from heights.
99. In the case of a person electrocuted, after disconnecting the power source, one should:
a) check the condition of the victim, and if necessary: call for help, clear the airways, perform resuscitation, and use an AED if available,
b) move the victim to another location as quickly as possible,c) leave the victim alone if they have regained consciousness, without further actions.100. After extinguishing flames on a person with burns and calling for help, one should:
a) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes, without removing the fused clothing,
b) use a snow extinguisher to cool the burn area,c) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes, first removing the fused clothing.101. The optical segregation of work carried out in the road lane is served by:
a) road cones in any well-visible color and uniform red obstacles set up at the work site,b) exclusively traffic lights, flashing,
c) road cones in red or orange color, and after dark, cones with white reflective stripes and separators.
102. What markings should vehicles and machines used for work in the road lane have?
a) Vehicles and machines should be marked only when working after dark. The method of marking is specified in the operating and maintenance manual of the given machine,
b) Vehicles should be equipped with yellow lights visible from at least 150 m, and machines on the roadway should be marked with road barriers with reflective elements and warning lights,
c) Vehicles should use lights of any color that is visible from a distance. Other machines do not need to be additionally marked.103. The statement: "The operator's qualifications for the machine you are taking the exam for are sufficient to operate such a machine on public roads" is:
a) true, but only under normal air visibility conditions,
b) false,
c) true.
104. Seeing such a pictogram, you are informed about:
a) the location where an automatic external defibrillator is available,
b) a place to perform AED,c) a location where a first aid kit is available.105. Properly performed cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) consists of:
a) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 30-60 times per minute to a depth of 1–3 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 15 compressions (breaths are mandatory),b) connecting the automatic external defibrillator (AED) and following its instructions; CPR is not performed without AED,
c) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 100-120 times per minute to a depth of 5–6 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 30 compressions (breaths are not mandatory).
106. The abbreviation IBWR stands for:
a) Safe Work Execution Instruction,
b) Failure-Free Work Execution Instruction,c) Failure-Free Work Execution Training.107. Expand the abbreviation IBWR:
a) Implementation of Failure-Free Work Execution,b) Information on Safe Work Execution,
c) Safe Work Execution Instruction.
108. The Safe Work Execution Instruction for Construction Works is:
a) a document confirming qualifications for operating machines and technical devices in earthworks, construction, and road works,b) a road plan in construction works,
c) a document containing information regarding safety on the construction site.
109. The BIOZ plan stands for:
a) Safe Health Protection Instruction plan,b) Safety and Resource Specification plan,
c) Safety and Health Protection plan.
110. A vehicle performing cleaning, repair, or modernization work on the road should send:
a) orange flashing signals,b) red flashing signals,
c) yellow flashing signals.
111. In order to direct traffic during work in the road lane, it is required to:
a) have a valid certificate of completion of a course in traffic management and be visible from a sufficient distance,
b) have the qualifications to operate at least one of the machines and appropriate personal protective equipment,c) have the qualifications to operate all machines working on the section to which traffic management applies.112. Traffic safety devices used during work conducted in the road lane can be colored:
a) white, green, blue,b) red, yellow-red, blue,
c) white, red, yellow, and black.
113. Traffic safety devices used to secure and mark the work site in the road lane should be visible:
a) only at night,
b) during the day and at night,
c) only during the day.114. Persons performing work in the area of 2-lane roads and highways should have:
a) class III high visibility clothing,
b) warning clothing in red color,c) flashing lights in orange color.115. The operator must wear a safety helmet while operating the machine when:
a) working in a machine not equipped with a closed cabin,
b) often leaning out of the cabin during work,c) working on demolition work using long booms.116. Entering and exiting the machine should be done:
a) backwards to the machine, using a three-step ladder,b) sideways while being careful of the devices in the cabin,
c) facing the machine, maintaining three points of contact.
117. The use of petroleum-derived substances on metal elements of machines transporting mineral-asphalt mass is prohibited because:
a) they can excessively shorten the binding time of the asphalt mass,
b) they can negatively affect the properties of the mixture,
c) they cause rapid wear of metal components.118. During the road surface renewal process, repavers and remixers:
a) operate solely as machines for crushing aggregate on the surface,b) completely remove all layers of the surface, allowing for the application of a new concrete surface,
c) transform the old asphalt surface into a new bituminous mixture, using hot or cold recycling methods.
119. In the asphalt recycling process, water is used for:
a) increasing the durability of the asphalt after drying,b) solely cooling the asphalt mixture before application,
c) maintaining optimal moisture, which is crucial for the efficiency of the process.
120. The hot recycling process is a technology that:
a) is inefficient, as it can only be performed in a single-layer system,b) is effective for any type of surface, regardless of tar content,
c) is not intended for layers containing tar.
121. The hot recycling process is characterized by:
a) the necessity of completely closing the road during the work,
b) high mobility of the working team,
c) manual dosing of the fine aggregate mixture.122. After milling the wear layer and adding the corrective mixture in the remixing process, the following occurs:
a) heating the processed mixture before spreading,
b) mixing the new mixture with the old one,
c) compacting the layer.123. Heating the upper layer of the regenerated surface is carried out by:
a) using infrared heaters,
b) applying hot water to the surface,c) using electric heaters directly on the surface.124. During the milling process, the verticalization of the upper wear layer is crucially performed by:
a) rollers with cutting tools and scraping blades,
b) rollers with cutting tools and brushes for collecting the milled layer,c) crushing rollers and double-edged blades.125. The first stage of the remixing process of the bituminous surface is:
a) milling the wear layer and adding the corrective mixture,
b) heating the wear layer,
c) mixing the new mixture with the old one.126. Overheating of asphalt binder during hot recycling can lead to:
a) weakening of the surface structure and its faster damage,
b) improving the quality of the binder, which positively affects the durability of the surface,c) increasing the moisture content of the material.127. Foamed asphalt is produced in the asphalt recycling process by:
a) delivering asphalt to expansion chambers, where water and compressed air are added to hot asphalt, causing it to foam and increase in volume,
b) prolonged mixing of asphalt with chemical additives, which increases its flexibility without the use of water,c) mixing asphalt with water, and then adding emulsion, which causes foam formation.128. The hydraulic system of working cylinders in recyclers allows for:
a) adjustment of working height,
b) transport of cut materials,c) injection of water under high pressure for cooling.129. The element of the reclaimer responsible for the preliminary removal of the old road surface is:
a) spreading board,b) auger,
c) milling machine.
130. Mineral-asphalt mixture is:
a) a material formed by mixing cement, aggregate, water, and possible admixtures and additives, which is still in a state allowing for compaction,b) a mixture of soil category 3 or 4, water, asphalt binder, and additives in appropriate proportions,
c) a mixture of fine and coarse aggregate, asphalt binder, filler, and additives in appropriate proportions.
131. Mastic Asphalt MA is:
a) another name for pure asphalt binder,b) a mixture of sand, binder, cement, and a large amount of water giving the whole mixture fluid properties,
c) a mineral-asphalt mixture with very low content of voids produced in a mixer and not requiring compaction during installation.
132. "Repaving" is:
a) the installation of an asphalt carpet on a heated and shaped surface,
b) mixing a new mineral-asphalt mixture with the material of the existing surface,c) removing cracks from the wearing course of the surface.133. "Remixing" is:
a) removing cracks from the wearing course of the surface,
b) mixing a new mineral-asphalt mixture with the material of the existing surface,
c) the installation of an asphalt carpet on a heated and shaped surface.134. During the remixing/repaving process, milling is performed:
a) hot,
b) cold,c) wet.135. The repaving procedure is carried out in the following order of operations:
a) heating the surface, loosening, profiling, laying a new layer, compaction,
b) heating the surface, profiling, loosening, compaction,c) loosening, heating the surface, laying a new layer, compaction.136. During the remixing/repaving process, the heating temperature of the old layer should be adjusted to:
a) the temperature of the binder in the layer,
b) the temperature of the prevailing atmospheric conditions,c) the working temperature of the milling drum.137. Which of the listed elements are not part of the hydraulic system:
a) pump, distributor, actuator,b) hydraulic lock, hydraulic oil tank,
c) starter, alternator.
138. The hydraulic lock in the machine is:
a) a valve responsible for controlling the entire hydraulic system,b) the closure of the hydraulic oil inlet at its tank,
c) a valve protecting against uncontrolled movement of the element located in a given line.
139. The change in hydraulic oil pressure into mechanical movement is caused by:
a) hydraulic distributor,b) hydraulic pump system,
c) hydraulic actuator and hydraulic motor.
140. The pressure in the hydraulic system is generated by:
a) hydraulic pump,
b) hydraulic motor,c) hydraulic actuator.141. The control of hydraulic oil flow to individual systems is carried out by:
a) relief valve,
b) hydraulic distributor,
c) hydraulic lock.142. The safety valve protects the hydraulic system from:
a) excessive pressure increase,
b) overheating of hydraulic oil,c) air in the hydraulic system.143. The relief valve in the hydraulic system is responsible for:
a) venting the system,b) maintaining a constant position of the working tool,
c) limiting the maximum working pressure in a given circuit.
144. If the pressure in the hydraulic system increases excessively, the excess oil will be directed to:
a) hydraulic oil tank,
b) hydraulic oil filter,c) distributor.145. The basic parameters that characterize an electric accumulator are:
a) rated voltage [V], resistance [Ω], power [W],
b) rated voltage [V], capacity [Ah], starting current [A],
c) rated voltage [V], power [W], weight [kg].146. Lead-acid batteries can be charged:
a) in any room,b) only in an air-conditioned room,
c) in a place specifically designated for this purpose.
147. The method of driving the milling drum using a hydraulic motor and planetary gearbox is:
a) chain drive,b) belt drive,
c) hydrostatic drive.
148. Chain drive for the milling drum is used:
a) when direct connection of the drive to the planetary gearbox is necessary,b) in cases where quick disassembly of the drum drive is required,
c) in cases where a strong and durable connection of the drive is needed under high load conditions.
149. The primary task of the hydraulic accumulator in a hydrostatic system is:
a) evenly distributing oil to the system receivers,
b) storing energy in the form of pressure of the working fluid,
c) regulating the temperature of the working fluid.150. In a hydrostatic system, the energy of the fluid pressure is transmitted to:
a) thermostatic, overflow, and check valves,b) oil coolers and pressure gauges,
c) hydraulic motors or hydraulic actuators.
151. A part of the remixer is not:
a) arm,
b) milling machine,c) bin for mineral-asphalt mixture.152. A green flash lamp placed on the machine cabin signals, among other things:
a) the machine's ecological operating mode is on,b) no operator in the cabin,
c) correct fastening of the seat belts.
153. In a parallel connection of two identical batteries, the voltage of such a system is:
a) the sum of the voltages of individual batteries,
b) equal to the voltage of a single battery,
c) the product of the voltages of individual batteries.154. In a series connection of two identical batteries, the voltage of such a system is:
a) the product of the voltages of individual batteries,
b) the sum of the voltages of individual batteries,
c) equal to the voltage of a single battery.155. Fuses in the electrical installation of the machine protect it against the effects of:
a) short circuits and overloads,
b) high temperature,c) low voltage.156. One of the elements of the electrical system protecting the engine from seizing is:
a) engine oil pressure sensor,
b) main fuse,c) speed controller.157. Gel batteries, which are elements of the electrical system, do not require:
a) charging with a rectifier,
b) electrolyte replenishment,
c) replacement in case of housing damage.158. Electrical systems of machines and devices should be equipped with a device that causes emergency stop in at least the quantity of:
a) one device causing emergency stop, in accordance with the European machinery directive,
b) two devices causing emergency stop placed on both sides of the machine, in accordance with the European machinery directive,c) three devices causing emergency stop, in accordance with the European machinery directive.159. The emergency stop device of a machine is an element of:
a) drive system,b) fuel system,
c) electrical system.
160. The main parameters of a combustion engine affecting work efficiency are:
a) type of carburetor, type of ignition system,
b) torque, rotational speed,
c) compression ratio, displacement.161. The crankshaft-piston system of the internal combustion engine is designed to:
a) convert the reciprocating motion of the piston into the rotational motion of the crankshaft,
b) convert mechanical energy into hydraulic energy,c) ensure the effective operation of the clutch.162. The lubrication system in the internal combustion engine:
a) is responsible for the proper lubrication of the moving parts of the engine that work together,
b) is responsible for removing hazardous substances generated in the combustion process of the mixture,c) provides regulation of the rotational speed and reduces engine vibrations during operation.163. The timing system of the engine is used for:
a) damping noise and minimizing engine vibrations during operation,
b) controlling the filling of the combustion chamber with air or fuel-air mixture and controlling the emptying of this chamber of exhaust gases,
c) ensuring the optimal composition of the fuel-oil-air mixture for combustion.164. Systems present in internal combustion engines include, among others:
a) hydraulic system, intake system,b) exhaust system, pneumatic system, closed system,
c) crankshaft-piston system, fuel system, cooling system.
165. The low-pressure part of the fuel system of a diesel engine is:
a) fuel tank and injectors,
b) fuel tank, supply pump, filters, fuel lines,
c) fuel lines, high-pressure pump, common rail.166. The element controlling the flow of coolant in the so-called "large circuit" is:
a) thermocouple,b) hot water bottle,
c) thermostat.
167. An intercooler is:
a) a device for burning solid particles in exhaust gases,b) another name for the engine coolant radiator,
c) an air cooler for turbocharged engines.
168. DPF filter:
a) is used to reduce NOx (nitrogen oxides) emissions,b) is a precise cabin filter protecting the operator during work in high dust conditions,
c) is a dry particulate filter responsible, among other things, for capturing soot from exhaust gases.
169. The frequency and scope of periodic maintenance of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam:
a) is determined by the owner of the machine/technical device,
b) is included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine,
c) is included in the IBWR documentation.170. The operating and maintenance manual for the machine/technical device is:
a) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device,
b) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device, which includes, among other things, IBWR,c) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by health and safety services on the construction site.171. The operator of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is not allowed to:
a) use the machine/device contrary to its intended purpose,
b) check the technical condition of the machine/device during operation,c) make any repairs or maintenance.172. A symptom of too low a level of hydraulic oil may be:
a) loud operation of the starter,b) uneven operation of the diesel engine,
c) "jerky" intermittent movement of hydraulic actuators.
173. If the warning light for too low engine oil pressure comes on, the operator:
a) may continue working if the hydraulic system is functioning properly,
b) should stop working and turn off the engine,
c) does not have to take any action.174. The operating and maintenance manual for the machine/device:
a) is established by the owner or user of the machine,b) is used to record information about faults,
c) contains, among other things, information about hazards during the operation of the machine/device.
175. The CE Declaration of Conformity is a document:
a) issued by institutions that test machines for resistance to weather conditions,b) confirming that the product was manufactured in the countries of the European Union,
c) in which the manufacturer confirms that its product meets all applicable EU requirements regarding safety, health protection, and environmental protection.
176. Information regarding the use of personal protective equipment and ways to reduce the occupational risk the operator can find:
a) in the CE Declaration of Conformity,b) in the service book,
c) in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device.
177. The operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device:
a) is created by institutions that conduct testing and accreditation of machine/technical device prototypes before allowing them for serial production,b) is created by the construction manager based on information from the manufacturer,
c) is developed by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device or the entity that introduces the machine/technical device to the market.
178. The operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device:
a) does not matter where it is located, the most important thing is that the owner of the machine has it in case of resale of the machine,b) should be located in the office along with the company's documentation and be available in case of inspection,
c) should be located in the machine or with the device, treated as part of the machine/technical device and be available at any time.
179. Identification data of the machine/technical device:
a) should be noted on the inner side of the protective helmet assigned to the given machine/technical device,b) due to their importance are always printed in red,
c) are located on the nameplate of the machine/technical device, additionally they may be in the marking places described in the manual.
180. To minimize the risk of machine/technical device failure the operator should:
a) perform maintenance activities only when the machine/technical device stops working,
b) regularly visually assess the condition of the machine/technical device and report any noticed irregularities,
c) use the machine/technical device until the failure becomes serious.181. The operator uses the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine or technical device to:
a) record the hours worked and fuel consumption by the machine,b) record all faults of the machine or technical device noticed during operation,
c) understand the technical specifications, health and safety rules, and methods of repairing faults.
182. In 'normal' mode, the machine is controlled by:
a) the steering wheel via the front wheels, while the rear wheels are kept straight,
b) solely by the rear wheels, while the front ones are automatically adjusted,c) using a joystick that controls both the front and rear wheels simultaneously.183. The SAE designation on the oil refers to:
a) the pressure of the engine oil,
b) the viscosity of the engine oil, meaning its ability to flow and lubricate,
c) the multi-season qualification of the oil.184. Oil with the symbol SAE 15W-40 means that:
a) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 15W,
b) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 15W, and at positive temperatures of summer oil class SAE 40,
c) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40.185. Oil with the symbol SAE 10W-30 means that:
a) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 30,
b) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W, and at positive temperatures of summer oil class SAE 30,
c) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W.186. The SAE 10W-30 symbol means:
a) a mixture of engine oil and hydraulic oil,b) hydraulic oil with specified parameters,
c) multi-season engine oil with specified parameters.
187. Engine oil with the SAE 5W-40 symbol means that:
a) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 5W, and at positive temperatures of summer oil class SAE 40,
b) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40,c) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 5W.
188. The symbol of the warning light shown in the graphic means:
a) low coolant level,
b) low engine oil level,
c) low engine oil pressure.
189. The symbol of the warning light shown in the graphic means:
a) low fuel level,b) low coolant level,
c) low engine oil pressure.

190. The symbol of the light shown means:
a) hydraulic oil,
b) engine oil,
c) engine oil filter.
191. The presented symbol of the indicator means:
a) engine coolant level,b) hydraulic oil level,
c) engine oil level.
192. Oils with designations 70W, 85W, 80W-90 are:
a) gear oils,
b) brake oils,c) engine oils.193. The high-pressure water pump in the repavers powered by the hydraulic system:
a) allows effective cleaning of the machine and its components after work is completed,
b) cools the hydraulic system during intensive use,c) supplies water to the surface to reduce friction.194. The servicing activities before starting work include:
a) performing a work cycle without materials,b) ordering materials (aggregate, sand, etc.) needed for the given workday,
c) visual inspection and lubrication.
195. In case of the need to dismantle the cover/protection for servicing, it is prohibited to:
a) reassemble the cover/protection,
b) start working with the device without the cover/protection installed,
c) record such a fact in the documentation.196. The lighting of the battery charging control light signals to the construction machine operator a failure of:
a) the V-belt and/or alternator,
b) the starter,c) the battery switch.197. The operator's seat cannot be adjusted when:
a) the engine is not running,b) the seat is turned backwards,
c) the machine is in motion.
198. If during daily technical service before work the operator notices that one of the windows in the cabin is cracked, then:
a) he should not start working,
b) he may start working if it is not the front window,c) he may start working provided that the window is only cracked and has not "fallen out".199. Before starting work, the operator should:
a) open the windows for better communication,
b) clean the windows by removing snow, ice, and other contaminants,
c) install sun shields on the windows.200. When changing hydraulic oils, one should:
a) use only types of oils that are recommended by the machine manufacturer,
b) use any type of oil,c) always use only biodegradable oils.201. To ensure the technical efficiency of the working machine, it is necessary to:
a) follow technical service and maintenance according to the operating and exploitation instructions,
b) use the machine/technical device without exceeding 50% of the permissible load,c) use the machine/technical device only under full load.202. At the construction site, empty containers of lubricants, oil filters, and used oils should be:
a) thrown into any waste container,b) thrown into the mixed waste container,
c) placed in a properly marked hazardous waste container.
203. Stickers (pictograms) located on the machine/technical device serve to:
a) inform about the prohibition of approaching the machine/technical device,b) indicate places where one can stay without any risk,
c) convey important information about safety and the use of the machine/technical device.
204. Lubrication points in the machine should be serviced:
a) according to the operating and exploitation instructions of the machine,
b) during all breaks in work,c) always after 10 hours of work.205. Engine oil with parameters 5W-50 is:
a) multi-season oil,
b) only summer oil,c) only winter oil.206. Before starting work on a new type of machine/technical device, the operator should:
a) familiarize themselves with the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine/technical device,
b) perform a trial work,c) conduct a periodic inspection.207. OTC service is:
a) temporary technical service,
b) daily technical service,
c) round-the-clock technical service.208. The basic types of services are:
a) daily, periodic, warehouse, transport service,
b) visual, active, passive service,c) round-the-clock, multi-seasonal, annual, technological service.209. Batteries, when starting the machine using a supporting battery, should be connected:
a) in parallel,
b) crosswise,c) in series.210. In the case of electrolyte loss caused by spillage through a cracked battery case, one should:
a) add electrolyte to the proper level and charge the battery,
b) secure the leakage area in terms of environmental protection, and then replace the battery,
c) add demineralized water to a level 10 mm above the upper edges of the plates.211. The activities performed by the operator as part of daily maintenance during work are:
a) cleaning the machine,
b) auditory control of the machine's operation and observation of indicators,
c) replenishing operating fluids and daily lubrication.212. If the manufacturer has provided for operational run-in, it should be carried out:
a) with the load recommended in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device,
b) without load,c) with the maximum load.213. Driving the machine on public roads should be done in the position:
a) transport,
b) working,c) transfer.214. When storing the machine, one should ensure that:
a) the machine is facing the exit,b) no documents of the machine are left in the cabin,
c) there are no leaks of operating fluids.
215. Securing the machine during storage downtime involves:
a) disassembling all filters and protecting them from moisture,
b) cleaning the machine of dirt and corrosion,
c) filling the hydraulic oil tank to the top.216. The rods of hydraulic cylinders, during the technical service of the warehouse machine, should be:
a) protected against corrosion,
b) disassembled and the seals replaced,c) dismantled and cleaned.217. During the loading of the machine onto the transport vehicle:
a) the operator should drive onto the transport vehicle independently,b) assistance from a second person is recommended only when loading onto a low-loader trailer,
c) assistance from a second person is recommended.
218. The recommended method for loading heavy working machines onto low-loader trailers is:
a) loading using other machines,
b) mechanized loading from the front ramp,
c) loading on ropes.219. During longer storage of the machine, the fuel tank should be:
a) filled to 1/3 of its capacity and left open,
b) filled to the top to prevent condensation of water vapor inside the tank,
c) empty to avoid fire hazards.220. During daily operation of the machine, the condition of should be checked:
a) the working pressure values in the hydraulic system,b) tools and equipment,
c) connections and tightness of the hydraulic system.
221. If the machine's engine has not been running for a longer time during daily maintenance, you should:
a) replace the fuel pre-filter,b) start the engine and gently increase the RPM to reach the operating temperature faster,
c) check the oil level and other operating fluids.
222. Information regarding faults, their codes, and methods of removal can be found in the document named:
a) operating and maintenance manual,
b) daily report,c) construction machine book.223. The correct order for connecting the auxiliary battery to the discharged battery in the machine is as follows:
a) machine frame, positive terminal of the machine's battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery,
b) positive terminal of the machine's battery, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, machine frame,
c) negative terminal of the machine's battery, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, machine frame.224. In case of electrolyte loss in the battery, you should:
a) top it up with water other than distilled,
b) top it up with distilled or demineralized water,
c) top it up with DOT-3 fluid.225. Checking the charge state of the 12 [V] starter battery by "sparking" poses a risk of:
a) electric shock from high voltage,b) seizing the alternator,
c) explosion of hydrogen escaping from the battery.
226. Before storing wheels in a wheel machine, it is necessary to:
a) relieve pressure to prevent tire deformation,
b) loosen to reduce the static load on the mounting screws,c) inflate to maximum pressure to prevent tire deformation.227. The scope of daily technical service of the machine does not include:
a) checking the condition of the tires and tire pressure,b) checking the oil level in the engine,
c) checking and adjusting valve clearances.
228. When cleaning the radiator, to avoid damaging it, you should:
a) keep the compressed air nozzle at an appropriate distance from the radiator,
b) use a strong stream of water under high pressure,c) use sharp tools for cleaning.229. The purpose of lubrication in working machines is:
a) to increase the engine speed,
b) to reduce friction,
c) to raise the temperature of cooperating elements.230. The most commonly used type of fuses in the electrical installations of working machines is:
a) residual current devices,b) automatic fuses,
c) cartridge fuses.
231. The phenomenon of electrostatic discharge during the refueling of a machine can lead to:
a) poisoning,b) short circuit of the electrical installation,
c) fire.
232. In the case of connecting two batteries in parallel with different rated voltages:
a) thicker cables should be used than with batteries of the same rated voltages,b) both batteries may discharge,
c) the battery with the lower rated voltage may explode.
233. When checking the pressure in a tire, the machine should be:
a) running and warmed up,b) loaded to make the measurement more accurate,
c) unloaded, and the tire should be cold.
234. The correct way to connect a battery to a charger during charging is:
a) the positive terminal of the battery to the negative terminal of the charger, the negative terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger,
b) the positive terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger, the negative terminal of the battery to the negative terminal of the charger,
c) the positive terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger, the negative terminal of the charger to the "ground" of the machine.235. After connecting the battery, the terminals are lubricated with:
a) grease containing molybdenum disulfide,
b) technical vaseline,
c) graphite grease.236. One of the goals of warehouse service is:
a) repairing damaged machine components before the next season,b) preparing the machine for transport for the future user,
c) protecting the machine from corrosion and other harmful factors during long-term storage.
237. If during daily technical service the operator notices a leak in the cooling system, he should:
a) organize fluid and refill to the minimum level if the leak is small,b) refill the coolant and continue working,
c) report the leak and not use the machine until it is repaired.
238. The level of coolant in the expansion tank should be checked:
a) only in case of engine overheating,b) only during periodic technical service,
c) during every daily technical service.
239. If the operator notices a hydraulic fluid leak during daily technical service, he should:
a) reduce the RPM and continue working,
b) report the leak and not use the machine until it is repaired,
c) top up the oil and continue working.240. The frequency of performing periodic technical service depends on:
a) the number of completed working cycles,b) the production date of the machine,
c) the number of hours worked (engine hours).
241. If during daily technical service the operator notices a low level of engine oil, he should:
a) top up the oil to the appropriate level,
b) start work if the level is not very low and the warning light is not on,c) top up the level with any available oil, even if it is of a different type.242. A characteristic activity for seasonal technical service is:
a) checking the charging voltage value,b) checking the working pressure value of the hydraulic system,
c) replacing the coolant with one appropriate for the season.
243. The basic service activities that should be performed before starting a diesel engine are:
a) bleeding the fuel system, checking the level of transmission oil, checking the starter,
b) checking the oil level in the engine, checking the coolant level, checking the condition of the air filter,
c) checking the oil level in the gearbox, checking the operation of the working system, checking the operation of the brakes.244. Activities performed as part of daily technical service (OTC) carried out during the operation of the machine include:
a) primarily the organoleptic control of the proper operation of the machine's working system,
b) observation of control and measuring instruments and checking the proper operation of the machine using sight, hearing, and smell,
c) observation only of control and measuring indicators such as: oil pressure, engine temperature, hydraulic oil temperature.245. We distinguish, among others, the following types of technical services:
a) transport, commissioning, daily, periodic, seasonal, storage,
b) commissioning, daily, periodic, seasonal, storage, emergency, night,c) transport, commissioning, storage, service-repair (ON), catalog.246. We perform technical maintenance in order to:
a) maintain the value of the machine or technical device at a constant, unchanged level,b) ensure quiet operation of the machine or technical device,
