Graders class I
Study mode
Question of 337
1. What is the minimum allowable distance of the machine from the reach of the wedge of the collapse?
a) 0.6 [m],
b) 0.8 [m],c) 0.4 [m].2. The safe distance of the machine from the excavation is:
a) 1.6 [m],
b) the reach of the wedge of the collapse + 0.6 [m],
c) the depth of the excavation + 0.6 [m].
3. Based on the presented table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] made in cohesive soils:
a) 2.6 [m],b) 1 [m],
c) 1.6 [m].
4. Based on the presented table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] made in fractured rocks:
a) 4.6 [m],b) 2.6 [m],
c) 3.6 [m].
5. Based on the presented table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] made in slightly cohesive soils:
a) 3.6 [m],
b) 3.1 [m],
c) 2.6 [m]. Graders Class I6. What is the minimum safe distance from the UPPER edge of the embankment that a machine can approach, given the following data: Soil category - I (dry sand), height of the embankment - h = 2 [m], horizontal distance between the upper and lower edges of the embankment - a = 2.5 [m]?
a) 0.6 [m],
b) 1.1 [m],
c) 3.6 [m].7. What is the minimum safe distance from the UPPER edge of the embankment that a machine can approach, given the following data: Soil category - II (slightly cohesive soils), height of the embankment - h = 4 [m], horizontal distance between the upper and lower edges of the embankment - a = 2.5 [m]?
a) 3.1 [m],
b) 0.6 [m],c) 5.6 [m].8. What is the horizontal distance from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage not exceeding 1 [kV] that allows the operation of a machine or technical device?
a) not less than 5 [m],b) not less than 2 [m],
c) not less than 3 [m].
9. What is the horizontal distance from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV] that allows the operation of a machine or technical device?
a) not less than 15 [m],
b) not less than 5 [m],
c) not less than 10 [m].10. What is the horizontal distance from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV] that allows the operation of a machine or technical device?
a) not less than 5 [m],b) not less than 15 [m],
c) not less than 10 [m].
11. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?
a) not less than 15 [m],
b) not less than 10 [m],c) not less than 20 [m].12. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?
a) not less than 10 [m],b) not less than 15 [m],
c) not less than 30 [m].
13. Is it possible to organize workstations in the danger zone under overhead power lines?
a) yes, always,b) no, never,
c) yes, but only after meeting additional requirements.
14. What is the safe distance X for the operation of a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [V]?
a) not less than 30 [m],
b) not less than 3 [m],
c) not less than 5 [m].15. What is the safe distance X for the operation of a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV]?
a) not less than 15 [m],
b) not less than 5 [m],
c) not less than 10 [m].16. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?
a) no less than 15 [m],b) no less than 30 [m],
c) no less than 10 [m].
17. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?
a) no less than 5 [m],b) no less than 15 [m],
c) no less than 10 [m].
18. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV]?
a) no less than 30 [m],
b) no less than 15 [m],
c) no less than 50 [m].19. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV]?
a) no less than 10 [m],
b) no less than 30 [m],c) no less than 15 [m].20. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]?
a) no less than 30 [m],
b) no less than 3 [m],c) no less than 40 [m].21. Work in the danger zone (overhead high voltage power line):
a) may be carried out provided that the work manager's consent has been obtained,b) may not be carried out under any circumstances under electric lines in the danger zone,
c) may be carried out provided that the line has been disconnected from the voltage, the work is performed in a zone limited by groundings and at least one grounding is visible from the work site.
22. The operator must perform work at a distance X from the active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [V]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 2 [m],b) 1 [m],
c) 5 [m].
23. The operator must perform work at a distance X from the active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 5 [m],b) 3 [m],
c) 15 [m].
24. The operator must perform work at a distance X from the active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 5 [m],
b) 50 [m],
c) 15 [m].25. If the injured person has a detectable pulse but is not breathing, then:
a) he should not be touched,b) chest compressions should be performed,
c) the airways should be cleared and artificial respiration should be started.
26. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, one should primarily:
a) provide assistance to those in life-threatening situations,
b) distance oneself from the accident scene to call a doctor,c) give injured persons medication.27. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, one should primarily:
a) provide assistance to those in life-threatening situations,
b) take care of one's own safety,
c) distance oneself from the accident scene to call a doctor.28. The obligation to provide first aid to accident victims rests with:
a) only those who have medical training,
b) everyone, as one can always perform part of the rescue tasks,
c) everyone, but there is always a risk of criminal liability for mistakes made.29. The accident victim regained consciousness after a few minutes and wants to go home. In such a situation, one should:
a) persuade her to stay and call for medical help,
b) give her something to drink and pain relief medication,c) allow her to go home, recommending a visit to a doctor.30. First aid in a situation where a foreign body has entered the eye of the injured person consists of:
a) rinsing with distilled water directing the stream to the center of the eye,b) rinsing the eye with eye drops,
c) rinsing with clean water directing the stream from the nose outward from the eye.
31. The injured person cut their leg on an unsecured sharp object. Providing first aid in this situation is:
a) sticking a plaster directly on the wound,
b) using sterile gauze, wrapping the wound with a bandage,
c) using a tourniquet.32. Suspecting spinal injury in a person who has fallen from a height and is conscious, one should:
a) place them in the recovery position,
b) not move them and wait for medical services to arrive,
c) sit them in a semi-reclining position.33. To move away from the location where the electric wire has been broken and the area is live, one should:
a) quickly step away from the source of electric shock by lifting their feet high,b) run as fast as possible to a place that we assess as safe,
c) leave the area slowly, taking small steps, trying to maintain continuous contact of the feet with the ground.
34. First aid in the case of a first-degree burn is:
a) pouring cold water on the burned area,
b) applying greasy cream to the burned area,c) applying ointment to the burned area.35. During work, a high-voltage power line was broken, resulting in a colleague being electrocuted. In this situation, the correct behavior is:
a) calling other colleagues for help with the injured person,
b) turning off the power source as quickly as possible,
c) approaching the injured person to provide first aid.36. We perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation until:
a) the fire brigade arrives and secures the area,
b) we have determined that the victim has started breathing and circulation has returned,
c) 10 minutes have passed.37. Immediate action in the case of severe bleeding from an injured upper limb includes:
a) lowering the limb below heart level,b) disinfecting the wound with salicylic alcohol,
c) applying a dressing, directly compressing the bleeding site, and elevating the limb.
38. In the case of a nosebleed, one should:
a) lean the bleeding person's head forward, pinch the nostrils,
b) tilt the head back and place a cold compress on the neck,c) lay the injured person on their back.39. The first step in dealing with a carbon monoxide poisoning victim in a closed room is:
a) assessing ABC,
b) the quickest possible evacuation of the victim from that room,
c) conducting a preliminary examination.40. First aid during seizures caused by an epileptic attack consists of:
a) placing a wooden object in the victim's mouth to prevent biting the tongue,b) seating the victim in a semi-sitting position and giving them something to drink,
c) protecting the victim's head from injuries.
41. In case of suspected spinal injury in the cervical region in a conscious person, one should:
a) not allow the injured person to move their head,
b) place the injured person in a lateral position,c) seat the injured person in a chair with a high back.42. The most important thing when a person is buried under earth, sand, or gravel is:
a) waiting for the ambulance to arrive,b) notifying the family,
c) locating the injured person.
43. First aid for a person with a metal rod embedded in their lower leg involves calling for help and:
a) moving the rod to check if the artery has been damaged,
b) securing the rod to prevent movement,
c) removing the embedded rod.44. The indication for using an AED defibrillator is:
a) severe chest pain,
b) absence of detectable breath and pulse in the injured person,
c) severe dizziness.45. During the operation of a machine/technical device, the prohibited actions for which you are taking the exam are:
a) changing the working tool,b) performing daily technical service (DTS),
c) making structural changes to the machine/technical device.
46. During the operation of the machine/technical device, the prohibited activities are:
a) cleaning the machine/technical device using gasoline or solvents whose vapors can create flammable/explosive gas mixtures with air,
b) cleaning the machine/technical device using a product in accordance with the operating and maintenance instructions,c) refueling the machine/technical device from a canister.47. When performing earthworks with the machine for which you are taking the exam, it is unacceptable to:
a) use the machine's blade at a safe distance from the excavation,
b) position the machine within the reach of the falling wedge,
c) extend the machine's blade towards the excavation.48. When performing earthworks with the machine for which you are taking the exam, it is unacceptable to:
a) use the machine on clay soils at air temperatures above 30°C,
b) use the machine on clay soils during heavy rain,
c) use the machine on clay soils at air temperatures below -5°C.49. When performing earthworks with the machine for which you are taking the exam, it is unacceptable to:
a) allow people to be within the reach of the machine's working tool,
b) allow people to be at a distance greater than the sum of the maximum reach of the working tool plus 6 meters,c) allow people to be near the machine during technical maintenance.50. When performing work, it is unacceptable to:
a) work near active overhead power lines at a distance less than specified by regulations,
b) work near an active power line with a rated voltage of 10 [kV] at a distance of 10 [m],c) work near an active power line with a rated voltage of 20 [kV] at a distance of 15 [m].51. The machine/technical device you are taking the exam for can only be operated by:
a) any adult person with a technical education and a driving license of the appropriate category,
b) a person who has completed training and obtained a positive result from the test conducted by the commission appointed by the Łukasiewicz Research Network – Warsaw Institute of Technology,
c) a person with written confirmation of course completion in the form of a plastic card.52. The rights to operate machines/technical devices you are taking the exam for are issued by:
a) The Office of Technical Inspection (UDT),
b) The Łukasiewicz Research Network - Warsaw Institute of Technology (SBŁ - WIT),
c) The County Office appropriate for the address of the person applying for the rights.53. The rights to operate machines/technical devices you are taking the exam for:
a) are valid indefinitely,
b) are valid for 5 years from the date of issue,c) are valid for 10 years from the date of issue.54. A person with the rights to operate: "Grade I Graders" can, based on them, operate:
a) all graders and bulldozers with an engine power of up to 110 [kW],b) all graders and scrapers,
c) all graders, but this does not grant rights to any other machines/technical devices.
55. An employee operating the machine/technical device you are taking the exam for can start working provided that:
a) the machine/technical device has a valid UDT inspection,b) has a valid category D driving license,
c) has the rights to operate this type of machine/technical device.
56. In the event of a threat to life, health, property, or the environment caused by a machine/technical device failure, the operator:
a) immediately stops work and informs the supervisor of this fact,
b) continues working but makes an appropriate entry in the maintenance log at the end of the shift,c) continues working but informs the supervisor of the situation at the end of the shift.57. Lifting and transporting people using working equipment:
a) is always prohibited,
b) is possible, but only outside the public road area,c) requires the consent of the construction manager.58. An employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam has the right to refuse to work when:
a) there is an overhead power line with a rated voltage of 110 [kV] located 35 meters away,
b) this work requires special psychophysical fitness, and their psychophysical state does not ensure safe performance and poses a threat to others,
c) they have the required personal protective equipment.59. An employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is obliged to stop work when:
a) there is an overhead power line located 35 meters away,b) they have the required personal protective equipment,
c) the work they are performing poses a direct threat to the health or life of others.
60. An employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is obliged to:
a) comply with the instructions for the operation and use of the machine/technical device,
b) always have a category B driving license,c) independently perform all current repairs of the machine/technical device.61. The person directly responsible for the safe operation of the machine you are taking the exam for is:
a) machine operator,
b) construction manager,c) machine owner.62. The operator's book and qualifications for the machine/technical device you are taking the exam for are issued by:
a) Technical Supervision Authority (UDT),b) Transport Technical Supervision (TDT),
c) Łukasiewicz Research Network - Warsaw Institute of Technology.
63. The obligation to use personal protective equipment:
a) does not apply on hot days,
b) results from the operating and maintenance instructions and health and safety regulations,
c) results only from internal regulations.64. An employee who witnesses an accident at work:
a) is obliged to provide assistance to the victims and then immediately leave the accident site,
b) is obliged to provide assistance to the victims, notify the supervisor, and if necessary secure the accident site,
c) it is enough to notify the supervisor.65. What elements of the machine you are taking the exam for protect the operator in case of the machine overturning:
a) certified safety helmet and reflective vest,b) machine seat,
c) ROPS type machine cabin and seat belts.
66. In the event of loss of stability of a machine equipped with a ROPS cabin, the operator should:
a) maintain a seated position while holding tightly to the steering wheel or other stable elements in the cabin,
b) try to exit the cabin as quickly as possible (before the machine tips over),c) quickly turn left and raise the working equipment as high as possible.67. In the event of loss of stability of a machine equipped with a ROPS cabin, the operator should:
a) immediately jump out of the cabin,
b) remain in the cabin,
c) turn on the warning/emergency lights.68. The danger zone is defined as:
a) a place where work requiring specialized equipment is carried out, and the presence of people is only allowed at night,b) a place where workers must only wear safety helmets,
c) a place where there are threats to the health and life of people.
69. The area that the operator should check and secure before starting work with the machine/technical device (because there are threats to the health and life of people) is called:
a) danger zone,
b) area of increased risk,c) dead zone.70. During battery charging, a gas with highly explosive properties is released. This gas is:
a) methane,
b) hydrogen,
c) ethane.71. Firefighting foam can be used to extinguish fires of group:
a) A and B,
b) C and D,c) only C.72. Improper use of a snow extinguisher can result in:
a) frostbite caused by the extinguishing agent,
b) fainting,c) burns from the extinguisher components.73. Water, fire blanket, powder extinguisher, carbon dioxide, sand are extinguishing agents that we will use to extinguish:
a) oils,b) liquids,
c) solids.
74. We can call sorbents:
a) fire blankets,
b) materials made from natural or synthetic substances that absorb liquids,
c) petroleum-derived substances.75. Group A fires concern:
a) solids that normally burn with the formation of glowing coals, e.g., wood, paper, etc.,
b) flammable liquids,c) flammable gases.76. Group B fires concern:
a) liquids and solid materials that melt, e.g. plastics, fuels, oils, etc.,
b) metals, e.g. magnesium, sodium, potassium, aluminum, titanium, etc.,c) flammable gases.77. Group C fires concern:
a) gases, e.g. methane, propane, acetylene, hydrogen,
b) flammable liquids,c) solids.
78. Seeing such a pictogram you are informed about:
a) a larger number of people in a given area,
b) the assembly point during evacuation,
c) the danger zone.
79. While working you noticed a sign marked 'Zone 0'. It informs about:
a) a space where an explosive atmosphere exists,
b) a zone of a certain fire hazard category,c) a zone of existing fire load in the building.
80. The presented pictogram informs about:
a) the main power switch,
b) a set of fire protection equipment,
c) an internal hydrant.
81. Seeing such a pictogram informs you about:
a) the assembly point during evacuation,b) the location of first aid,
c) the emergency exit.
82. Seeing such a pictogram informs you about:
a) the prohibition of using the fire extinguisher,b) the high temperature affecting the fire extinguisher,
c) the location of the fire extinguisher.
83. You see a person whose clothing is on fire and who is fleeing in panic. Your reaction is:
a) you tell him to wait in an upright position for the arrival of rescue services,
b) you try to stop him, lay him on the ground, and start extinguishing,
c) you wave your arms or outer covering strongly next to him to extinguish the burning clothing.84. Electrical devices and installations can be extinguished using:
a) water,
b) powder or snow extinguishers,
c) foam extinguishers.85. Burning fuel can be extinguished using:
a) powder, foam, or snow extinguishers,
b) water,c) low-octane ethylene.86. Clothing on fire on a person can be extinguished using:
a) water mist extinguisher or fire blanket,
b) snow or powder extinguisher,c) plastic material.87. What obligations does an employee have if they decide to refrain from performing work due to health and safety regulations?
a) There are no obligations in this situation,
b) They must immediately notify their supervisor,
c) They should organize work for others.88. How can an operator prevent hazards in the workplace?
a) By using personal protective equipment to minimize risk,
b) By not reporting faults in machines,c) By ignoring health and safety rules.89. It is not permissible to position a workplace directly under active overhead power lines or at a horizontal distance from the outermost conductors of less than:
a) for all voltages - 1 [m] from the power line,b) for lines: 1 [kV] - 1 [m], 15 [kV] - 3 [m], 30 [kV] - 5 [m], 110 [kV] - 10 [m],
c) for lines: 1 [kV] - 3 [m], 15 [kV] - 5 [m], 30 [kV] - 10 [m], 110 [kV] - 15 [m], 400 [kV] - 30 [m].
90. How does the operator know what personal protective equipment is required for a given machine/technical device?
a) The choice of personal protective equipment depends on the opinions of colleagues at work,
b) Information about necessary personal protective equipment is included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine,
c) The operator must independently choose the appropriate protective measures.91. The operator should refuse to perform the task when:
a) the work is being done at night,
b) the work is inconsistent with the intended use of the machine/technical device,
c) the work requires familiarization with the location of underground and overhead utilities.92. The operator can prevent hazards during the operation of the machine/technical device by:
a) limiting the use of personal protective equipment,
b) following health and safety rules and adhering to the operating instructions,
c) inattention and routine.93. Which of the following situations is unacceptable during the use of the machine/technical device?
a) The presence of unauthorized persons in the danger zone caused by the operation of the machine/technical device,
b) Reporting faults directly to the supervisor,c) Operating the machine without supervision.94. An accident at work is considered to be:
a) a long-term event related to the work being performed, caused by an internal reason, resulting in equipment damage,
b) a sudden event related to the work being performed, caused by an external reason, resulting in injury or death,
c) a sudden event unrelated to the work being performed, caused by an external reason, resulting in injury or death.95. A fatal accident at work is considered to be an accident in which death occurred:
a) only at the moment of the accident,
b) within a period not exceeding 6 months from the date of the accident,
c) after a period exceeding 6 months from the date of the accident.96. It is prohibited to:
a) undertake work with a machine after completing training and obtaining the appropriate qualifications,
b) allow unauthorized persons within the reach of the machine's operation and work on slopes exceeding the permissible incline,
c) report noticed defects to the supervisor before starting work.97. When getting on and off the machine, it is prohibited to:
a) use the control lever as support,
b) intensively use the handrails and steps,c) face the machine when getting on and off.98. Health and safety regulations require:
a) securing the working machine during breaks in its operation against accidental activation by unauthorized persons,
b) scrapping the old working machine within the time specified in its operating and maintenance manual, while adhering to the requirements for the disposal of hazardous materials,c) performing a warranty inspection of the working machine before one year from its purchase.99. In case of electric shock to a person:
a) it is recommended to use any tools to disconnect the power, regardless of their actual purpose,b) immediate resuscitation should be initiated, regardless of whether the power source has been disconnected,
c) do not touch the victim until the power source has been disconnected.
100. In case a person is buried under earth or sand:
a) we always calmly wait for rescue services - any attempt to help would be too dangerous,
b) they should be dug out as quickly as possible, if it is safe for the person undertaking the rescue action,
c) they should be dug out as quickly as possible regardless of one's own safety - it is about their life.101. Seeing a person whose clothes are on fire, one should first:
a) use a fire extinguisher, preferably a snow extinguisher, to extinguish the burning clothing, and then try to quickly remove the fused clothing,
b) cut off the air supply by rolling the victim or wrapping them in a fire blanket, wet clothing, or a wet blanket,
c) leave the victim standing to facilitate air access and extinguish the flames faster.102. If during earthworks unidentified objects are discovered, then:
a) earthworks can continue if a distance of at least 1 [m] is maintained from such an object,
b) further work is interrupted and the supervising person for the earthworks is notified,
c) a danger zone with a radius of 6 [m] should be designated, beyond which normal work can continue.103. In the case of finding an unexploded ordnance during earthworks, one should:
a) stop work, remove other workers from the danger area, notify superiors, and secure the site,
b) try to carefully remove the unexploded ordnance from the work site and continue working,c) ignore the unexploded ordnance if it does not pose an immediate threat.104. A wedge of soil collapse:
a) occurs only when the soil is in a frozen state,
b) occurs when the slope of the embankment exceeds the angle of the natural slope of the soil,
c) is the area around the working machine extending a distance of 6 [m] beyond its farthest reach.105. The reach of the soil collapse wedge:
a) depends solely on the soil temperature,b) depends on the speed of the machine's operation and the efficiency of the operator,
c) depends on the depth of the excavation and the category of the soil.
106. The angle of natural slope is:
a) the maximum slope at which the soil can remain without sliding - it depends, among other things, on the category of the soil,
b) the angle at which the soil will definitely slide on its own - it depends solely on the temperature of that soil,c) the angle at which it is safe to operate the machine - it depends on the parameters of the given machine.107. The wedge of soil collapse:
a) occurs when the slope of the embankment exceeds the angle of natural slope of the soil - its extent depends on the type of soil and the depth of the excavation or the height of the embankment,
b) is the zone in which the soil becomes unstable - its extent depends solely on the depth of the excavation, the type of soil does not matter here,c) is the space around the machine, dependent on the working speed of the machine and its mass.108. The angle of natural slope is:
a) the slope at which any embankment becomes unstable, regardless of the type of soil,
b) the maximum slope at which the soil can remain without sliding - it depends on the type of soil, e.g. moisture, cohesiveness, and grain size,
c) the angle at which the machine can safely move on the embankment, regardless of the category of soil.109. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is performed:
a) when the victim is not breathing and there is no detectable pulse. For a person who is not a professional rescuer, the absence of breathing is a sufficient basis to start resuscitation,
b) only in the case of fainting and minor injuries, to improve blood circulation,c) when the victim is breathing but is unconscious and there is no contact with them.110. An employee has the right to refrain from performing work due to health and safety regulations, notifying their supervisor immediately when:
a) the work they are performing has not been reported to the construction supervision,b) the working conditions do not pose a threat, but are too difficult for them,
c) the working conditions pose an immediate threat to health or life.
111. Physical factors generating hazards in the workplace are:
a) spilled lubricants, oils, and fuels,
b) lack of appropriate medical examinations of the employee,c) lack of or inadequate training of employees.112. Working with a machine/technical device is not allowed when:
a) its repair was carried out after dark,
b) it is malfunctioning,
c) the second operator did not report an upcoming inspection.113. Working near overhead power lines:
a) always requires the power in the line to be turned off,
b) is possible without meeting additional requirements provided that specific distances depending on the rated voltage of the line are maintained,
c) always requires double grounding of the line.114. The operator is obliged to refuse to work if:
a) the working machine is malfunctioning,
b) they would have to work under power lines, and the voltage in them has been turned off and the line grounded,c) there is no construction manager or any other person authorized to supervise at the work site.115. The danger zone from a machine/technical device is:
a) a place where there are hazards to health or life of people,
b) always the entire fenced construction site,c) a place where the machine/technical device cannot be used.116. Accidents at work can result from the poor technical condition of the working machine, for example:
a) damage to the equipment,
b) injury to a limb, torso, or head,
c) failure of the drive system.117. Unacceptable behaviors are:
a) performing daily maintenance of the machine after dark,b) working after dark in a well-lit place, with full concentration of the operator,
c) operating a faulty machine and working under the influence of alcohol.
118. General rules for safely getting on and off the machine are:
a) you can step down backwards from the machine, but only when the steps are slippery,b) using cables and levers as aids when getting on is permissible when the machine is turned off,
c) a person should face the machine, remember the "three-point support" rule, and use only specially made steps and handrails.
119. The basic duties of an employee regarding occupational health and safety are:
a) not being late for work, finishing on time, confirming presence at work in the manner accepted by the employer,b) enforcing labor code regulations regarding their rights, including payment for overtime worked,
c) adhering to health and safety regulations and rules, taking care of the condition of machines and tools, maintaining order in the workplace, and using personal protective equipment.
120. In the case of a person electrocuted, after disconnecting the power source, one should:
a) check the condition of the injured person, and if necessary: call for help, clear the airways, perform resuscitation, and use an AED if available,
b) move the injured person to another location as quickly as possible,c) leave the injured person alone if they have regained consciousness, without further actions.121. When a person buried under earth or sand is partially dug out, you should:
a) dig out the left arm as quickly as possible to check the pulse,
b) clear the airways as quickly as possible,
c) focus on digging out the lower parts of the victim's body.122. After extinguishing the flames on a person with burns and calling for help, you should:
a) use a snow extinguisher to cool the burn area,
b) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes without tearing off the melted clothing,
c) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes, first tearing off the melted clothing.123. If the operator notices faults that may prevent the proper operation of the machine, then:
a) ignore the faults if the machine is currently working properly,b) should continue working and repair the machine after completing the task,
c) is obliged to refuse to start the machine and report this fact to the supervisor.
124. Seeing such a pictogram, you are informed about:
a) a place where an external automatic defibrillator is available,
b) a place where a first aid kit is available,c) a place for performing AED.125. Properly performed cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) consists of:
a) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 100-120 times per minute to a depth of 5–6 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 30 compressions (breaths are not mandatory),
b) connecting the external automatic defibrillator (AED) and following its instructions; CPR is not performed without AED,c) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 30-60 times per minute to a depth of 1–3 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 15 compressions (breaths are mandatory).126. The abbreviation IBWR stands for:
a) Instruction for Non-Failure Execution of Works,b) Instruction for Non-Failure Execution of Works,
c) Instruction for Safe Execution of Works.
127. Expand the abbreviation IBWR:
a) Instruction for Safe Execution of Works,
b) Implementation of Non-Failure Execution of Works,c) Information on Safe Execution of Works.128. The Instruction for Safe Execution of Construction Works is:
a) a document confirming qualifications for operating machines and technical devices in earthworks, construction, and road works,b) a road plan in construction works,
c) a document containing information regarding safety on the construction site.
129. The BIOZ plan stands for:
a) Safety and Resource Specification Plan,b) Safe Health Protection Instruction Plan,
c) Safety and Health Protection Plan.
130. When driving a machine for earthworks on a public road, the operator must:
a) be at least 20 years old and have operator qualifications for the specific earthworks machine,b) only have qualifications for the specific earthworks machine, with no additional requirements,
c) have a driver's license of the appropriate category, operator qualifications for the specific machine, and liability insurance.
131. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 4 [m],
b) 1 [m],
c) 1.6 [m].132. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 1.5 [m],
b) 1 [m],c) 1.6 [m].133. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 1 [m],
b) 0.5 [m],
c) 1.6 [m].134. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 1 [m],
b) 2 [m],c) 1.6 [m].135. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 2 [m],
b) 1 [m],c) 1.6 [m].136. The reach of the wedge of the block for an excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 1 [m],
b) 3 [m],
c) 2 [m].137. The reach of the wedge of the block for an excavation with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 4 [m],
b) 2.6 [m],c) 3 [m].138. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 2.6 [m],b) 1 [m],
c) 1.6 [m].
139. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 2.1 [m],
b) 3.6 [m],c) 6.6 [m].140. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 4.6 [m],b) 2 [m],
c) 2.6 [m].
141. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 1.1 [m],
b) 2 [m],c) 2.6 [m].142. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 2.6 [m],b) 2 [m],
c) 1.6 [m].
143. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 4.6 [m],
b) 2.6 [m],
c) 2 [m].144. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 3.6 [m],
b) 3 [m],c) 2.1 [m].145. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 4.6 [m],
b) 4 [m],c) 2.6 [m].146. In a dangerous situation, when the cabin door cannot be opened:
a) the emergency/evacuation exit provided by the manufacturer should be used,
b) the cabin must not be left until help arrives,c) the space can be used as an evacuation exit after removing the floor panel.147. In the event of mechanical damage to the FOPS/ROPS cabin (e.g., denting of the cabin element) the operator:
a) should stop working and report the failure to the supervisor or the person responsible for machines in the company,
b) can repair the damage on their own without wasting time on downtime,c) can continue working if the cabin windows are intact.148. In the event of mechanical damage to the FOPS/ROPS cabin (e.g., denting of the cabin element) the operator:
a) cannot repair such damage on their own,
b) can always repair such damage on their own,c) can repair such damage on their own, but only based on the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine.149. If the seat belt is damaged, one should:
a) continue working and report the problem after finishing work,
b) report the damage and not start working until the belt is repaired or replaced,
c) exercise special caution while performing work.150. The operator must wear a safety helmet while operating the machine when:
a) they often lean out of the cabin while working,
b) they are working in a machine not equipped with a closed cabin,
c) they are working on demolition work using long booms.151. Entering and exiting the machine should be done:
a) facing the machine, maintaining three points of contact,
b) with back to the machine, using a three-step ladder,c) entering sideways while being careful of the devices in the cabin.152. Prohibited activities during the operation and servicing of the machine or technical device are:
a) using machines with safety or signaling devices,b) using machines on rocky ground during heavy rain,
c) operating machines by individuals without appropriate qualifications.
153. The site for earthworks before they begin should be:
a) additionally compacted,
b) marked and designated,
c) fenced in a permanent manner.154. In the case of ongoing earthworks, the designation of the danger zone involves:
a) securing and marking the zone 6 [m] from the machine,
b) securing and marking the entire work area,
c) conducting work pointwise while maintaining the zone 6 [m].155. Visible underground infrastructure devices that provide initial insight into their course are most often:
a) hydrant boxes, water shut-off boxes, manhole covers,
b) abandoned road frames where they pass,c) graphic symbols marked on the road surface.156. The operator can work, without the need for prior loosening, in soil:
a) all categories above IV,b) categories V-VIII,
c) category I.
157. Humus is:
a) a deeper layer of soil, usually reaching a thickness of up to 1 [m],b) a mineral used for stabilizing the substrate,
c) the outer layer of soil rich in humus.
158. Soils, according to the degree of difficulty of their detachment, are divided into:
a) 4 categories,
b) 16 categories,
c) 10 categories.159. The operator of the machine should know the category of soil on which he works:
a) to be able to assess the depth of the excavation,b) to know the requirements for operating the machine's chassis,
c) to calculate the safe distance for setting up the machine and the reach of the wedge of the collapse.
160. Removing humus is:
a) work performed always after the completion of construction works,
b) one of the stages of preparatory works,
c) the main stage of earthworks.161. Creating a level surface of a given shape or profile is:
a) land compaction,
b) land profiling,
c) land leveling.162. The main goal of land leveling is:
a) to create a flat, usually horizontal surface,
b) to compact the soil surface,c) to give the surface a specific shape.163. The term: "performance of a machine for earthworks" refers to:
a) the level of engine load during the machine's operation in a unit of time,b) the amount of fuel consumed by the machine per hour of operation,
c) the effect of the machine's work over a unit of time.
164. The performance of a machine for earthworks can be expressed:
a) in units of volume or mass per unit of time e.g. [m³/h], [t/h],
b) in pressure units [bar] or temperature [°C],c) in speed or revolutions per unit of time e.g. [km/h], [rpm], [rev/s].165. Construction excavations are divided into:
a) narrow-space, wide-space, and cavity,
b) small, medium, and deep,c) underground, above ground, and intermediate.166. An example of an atypical job that a grader can perform is:
a) leveling fresh concrete pours,b) loading material onto a vehicle,
c) snow removal.
167. The recommended blade attack angle when grading terrain with a grader is:
a) about 70 [°],b) about 10 [°],
c) about 40 [°].
168. To achieve precise leveling of the terrain during the repair of a dirt road, the grader operator should:
a) set the blade so that it just lightly touches the road surface,
b) set the blade perpendicular to the road surface,c) set the blade at a 90 [°] angle to the road axis.169. The appropriate speed for a grader during snow removal of fresh snow:
a) should always be higher than 60 [km/h],
b) is third or fourth gear, to effectively throw the snow to the side,
c) is first or second gear, to evenly lay the snow.170. The ripper on a grader is used for:
a) spreading rubble on a construction site,
b) loosening the hard top layer of soil when it is too hard to cut with the blade,
c) breaking seals on the machine.171. The height adjustment of the ground cutting from one side of the machine is used for:
a) extending the blade to the left or right,b) rotating the blade,
c) raising and lowering the left or right end of the blade.
172. An excavation is classified as wide-ranging when:
a) its depth exceeds 2 [m] regardless of length,
b) its width exceeds 1.5 [m] and length is greater than 1.5 [m],
c) its width is 1 [m] and length and depth are greater than 1.5 [m].173. The use of a jointed frame is particularly useful:
a) on flat terrain free of obstacles,
b) in narrow spaces and when working on sharp turns,
c) in places where the terrain requires a high pressure on the ground.174. One of the activities listed below does not belong to the tasks performed by a grader. It is:
a) repairing a dirt road,b) cutting earth embankments,
c) loading the excavated material onto a vehicle.
175. When repairing a dirt road with a grader that has large unevenness, one should:
a) perform the repair in several steps, each time setting the blade to lightly touch the road surface,
b) set the blade perpendicular to the road axis and significantly reduce the travel speed,c) use the blade set as low as possible for a single smoothing of the surface.176. The blade, when snow plowing fresh snow, should be:
a) rotated around the vertical axis and extended,
b) positioned centrally in the middle and perpendicular to the axis of the road,c) directed upwards.177. It is recommended to use a ripper:
a) in the case of soft, loose soil,b) when the ground is wet and sticks to the blade,
c) in the case of hard ground that is difficult to cut directly with the blade.
178. Operating the machine with the cabin doors open is allowed:
a) always,
b) only if the operating and maintenance manual of the machine provides for such a possibility,
c) only when the air temperature exceeds 25 [°C].179. Disconnecting the working equipment with hydraulic drive from the quick coupler is associated with:
a) zeroing the hydraulic system,
b) venting the hydraulic system,c) relieving pressure from the central lubrication system.180. Changing the height position of the rippers in the working system is possible thanks to:
a) manual gear transmission,b) the inertia force of the rippers,
c) hydraulic actuators.
181. The "floating" spoon/blade system:
a) allows the machine to move smoothly on slopes,
b) works on the principle of automatic adjustment to the terrain, which is possible thanks to a special hydraulic system,
c) protects the equipment from loss during drainage work.182. The type of interchangeable working equipment used depends on whether:
a) the equipment is approved for use by the machine manufacturer,
b) the equipment has a CE certificate,c) the machine has undergone a periodic inspection.183. The main purpose of using articulated frames in a grader is to:
a) enable more efficient use of the machine, especially in difficult conditions,
b) increase the stability of the machine when working on concrete surfaces,c) improve transport capabilities over long distances.184. The articulated frame facilitates the work of the grader:
a) in narrow spaces, allowing for easy maneuvering,
b) when leveling wide parking areas,c) when working with exceptionally dry materials requiring a different cutting technique.185. In the case of large irregularities on the repaired dirt road, one should:
a) set the grader blade at an average level and drive the entire road evenly,b) focus on leveling only the deepest sections in one step,
c) perform the work in several steps, each time lightly touching the road surface with the blade.
186. During the repair of an unpaved road, the grader should move:
a) with frequent changes in direction to precisely level the surface,b) in neutral gear, as the unpaved road requires minimal contact with the machine,
c) in 1st or 2nd gear to ensure high accuracy of work.
187. The articulated frame affects the quality of land leveling because:
a) it allows the rear wheels to move parallel over the leveled terrain, reducing the rocking of the machine,
b) it causes the machine's wheels to bypass part of the material, speeding up the work,c) it limits the ability to change the angle of the blade during movement.188. The course of underground utilities should be marked before starting work to:
a) allow for quick movement of machines in any direction,
b) avoid the risk of damaging the network during work,
c) save time and reduce earthwork costs.189. Which of the listed elements is not part of the hydraulic system:
a) hydraulic lock, hydraulic oil tank,
b) starter, alternator,
c) pump, distributor, actuator.190. The hydraulic lock in the machine is:
a) a valve responsible for controlling the entire hydraulic system,
b) a valve protecting against uncontrolled movement of the element in a given line,
c) the closure of the hydraulic oil inlet at its tank.191. The change of hydraulic oil pressure into mechanical motion is the responsibility of:
a) hydraulic actuator and hydraulic motor,
b) hydraulic distributor,c) hydraulic pump system.192. The pressure in the hydraulic system is generated by:
a) hydraulic pump,
b) hydraulic motor,c) hydraulic actuator.193. Directing the flow of hydraulic oil to individual systems is carried out by:
a) hydraulic lock,
b) hydraulic distributor,
c) relief valve.194. The safety valve protects the hydraulic system from:
a) overheating of hydraulic oil,
b) excessive pressure increase,
c) air in the hydraulic system.195. The relief valve in the hydraulic system is responsible for:
a) limiting the maximum working pressure in a given circuit,
b) venting the system,c) maintaining a constant position of the working tool.196. If the pressure in the hydraulic system rises excessively, the excess oil will be directed to:
a) hydraulic oil tank,
b) distributor,c) hydraulic oil filter.197. The basic parameters that characterize an electric accumulator are:
a) rated voltage [V], resistance [Ω], power [W],b) rated voltage [V], power [W], mass [kg],
c) rated voltage [V], capacity [Ah], starting current [A].
198. Lead-acid batteries can be charged:
a) in a place specifically designated for this purpose,
b) only in an air-conditioned room,c) in any room.199. The pressure in the tires should be adjusted to:
a) values given in the operating and maintenance manual,
b) requirements of the landowner,c) preferences of the operator.200. Uneven pressure in the tires:
a) improves the driving properties of the machine,b) does not affect the operation of the machine,
c) reduces the stability of the machine.
201. The main purpose of using a joint frame in a grader is:
a) increasing the power of the machine and operational speed,
b) enabling work in hard-to-reach places and improving the stability of the machine,
c) reducing the weight of the machine and fuel consumption.202. In a working machine, the reduction gear is most often located:
a) in the drive system near the driving wheels,
b) in the operator's cabin, near the driving controller,c) in the hydraulic system, close to the main pump.203. The hydraulic distributor:
a) directs the flow of hydraulic oil to the appropriate sections,
b) converts mechanical energy into hydraulic energy,c) increases the torque in the side transmission.204. The hydraulic distributor is a device that:
a) distributes oil between the engine and the hydraulic system,b) distributes oil between the small circuit and the large circuit,
c) allows control of individual hydraulic sections of the machine.
205. The ROPS cabin in construction machines protects the operator from:
a) being hit by falling objects from above,b) dust in the operator's cabin,
c) crushing in the event of the machine overturning.
206. ROPS cabin in construction machines protects against:
a) the machine falling off a slope and rolling over,
b) crushing the operator in case the machine tips over,
c) the machine tipping over.207. Differential mechanism:
a) regulates the flow of fluids in the differential system,b) allows for increased speed on straight sections,
c) enables differentiation of the rotational speed of the drive wheels working on a single axle.
208. Joints in drive systems serve to:
a) stabilize the machine on uneven terrain,b) reduce the rotational speed of the wheels,
c) transmit torque between shafts with inclined axes.
209. The operation of cross joints in drive systems involves:
a) checking the oil level in the joints as part of daily technical maintenance,
b) keeping them clean and regularly lubricating,
c) daily checking of clearances.210. Hydrokinetic transmission (torque converter) in the machine's drive system:
a) smoothly reduces the torque as the load increases,b) allows for manual control of the torque transmitted to the drive wheels,
c) smoothly increases the torque as the load increases.
211. For smooth torque increase, depending on the load, the following is responsible:
a) mechanical gearbox,
b) hydrokinetic transmission,
c) drive shaft with joints.212. Reducing speed while simultaneously increasing the torque transmitted to the drive wheels is achieved by:
a) planetary gears,
b) hydraulic distributor,c) wet brakes.213. The differential mechanism allows the transmission of torque to the wheels:
a) of two different axles,
b) while the wheels rotate at different speeds,
c) ensuring their rotation always at the same speeds.214. In vehicles with a differential mechanism when navigating turns:
a) the inner wheel rotates faster than the outer wheel,
b) the inner wheel rotates slower than the outer wheel,
c) the load is transferred solely to the inner wheel.215. Damage to the ROPS frame resulting in the need for replacement includes:
a) minor surface scratches,
b) cracking or bending of the structure,
c) discoloration of the paint caused by weather conditions and the passage of time.216. Drilling additional holes in the ROPS cabin structure is prohibited because:
a) it reduces the weight of the machine,
b) it causes a decrease in the strength of the structure,
c) it lowers the comfort of the operator's work.217. The element of the system that transmits torque directly to the drive wheels of the grader is:
a) internal combustion engine,
b) side gearbox,
c) hydraulic pump.218. In the hydrostatic drive system of the grader, hydraulic motors are most often:
a) multi-piston motors,
b) internal combustion engines,c) gear motors.219. The flow and direction of hydraulic fluid in the system are regulated by:
a) hydraulic motors,
b) hydraulic valves,
c) hydraulic pumps.220. Elements of the system, such as actuators and hydraulic motors, convert hydraulic energy into:
a) mechanical energy,
b) electrical energy,c) pressure in the tank.221. The function of the protective structure FOPS is:
a) protection of the operator from the effects of exhaust fumes and noise,
b) protection of the operator from falling objects,
c) protection of the operator from the consequences of the machine overturning.222. The protective structure FOPS must necessarily be used in:
a) all earthworks,b) underwater works,
c) works where heavy elements may fall on the cabin (e.g., demolition works, in quarries, etc.).
223. In a machine equipped with a protective structure ROPS or FOPS, there must exist and be used by the operator an additional safety system, which is:
a) seat belts,
b) protective footwear, hearing protectors, respiratory protection,c) safety helmet, protective footwear.224. The protective structure ROPS in a machine:
a) is always required,
b) is not required when only qualified machine operators are employed,c) is not required when it is not technically possible, and there is a low risk of the machine overturning (possibility of support with a boom).225. Optimal damping of shocks and vibrations of the operator's seat is ensured by:
a) as flexible seat adjustment as possible,b) setting the seat rigidly,
c) adjusting the seat to the weight of the operator.
226. The mandatory equipment used for the operator to observe the area directly behind the machine is:
a) rear camera,
b) external mirror,
c) sound signal when reversing.227. Together with the operator, other people can ride in the machine's cabin if:
a) the manufacturer has installed an additional seat,
b) the machine is moving at a low speed,c) they have undergone health and safety training with the operator and there are a maximum of 2 people.228. The most important element of the operator's cabin equipment from the perspective of his safety is:
a) emergency STOP button,b) mirror or camera,
c) seat belt.
229. Mirrors and reversing cameras in the machine are used for:
a) checking the technical condition of the machine,
b) improving the operator's visibility and increasing safety,
c) facilitating the maneuvering of working equipment.230. In ROPS-type cabins, additional equipment such as phone holders can be installed independently:
a) but this equipment must be permanently screwed to the cabin structure,
b) provided that there is no interference with the cabin structure,
c) remembering that installation is only possible on the cabin posts.231. The green flash lamp placed on the machine cabin signals, among other things:
a) the machine's eco mode is activated,b) no operator in the cabin,
c) seat belts are properly fastened.
232. In a parallel connection of two identical batteries, the voltage of such a system is:
a) the product of the voltages of individual batteries,
b) equal to the voltage of a single battery,
c) the sum of the voltages of individual batteries.233. In a series connection of two identical batteries, the voltage of such a system is:
a) the product of the voltages of individual batteries,
b) the sum of the voltages of individual batteries,
c) equal to the voltage of a single battery.234. Fuses in the electrical installation of the machine protect it from the effects of:
a) short circuits and overloads,
b) low voltage,c) high temperature.235. One of the elements of the electrical system protecting the motor from seizing is:
a) speed controller,b) main fuse,
c) engine oil pressure sensor.
236. Gel batteries that are part of the electrical system do not require:
a) charging with a rectifier,
b) replenishing the electrolyte,
c) replacement in case of housing damage.237. Electrical systems of machines and devices should be equipped with a device that causes emergency stop in at least the quantity of:
a) two devices causing emergency stop placed on both sides of the machine, according to the European machinery directive,
b) one device causing emergency stop, according to the European machinery directive,
c) three devices causing emergency stop, according to the European machinery directive.238. The emergency stop device of a machine is a part of:
a) the electrical system,
b) the drive system,c) the fuel system.239. The main parameters of an internal combustion engine that affect work efficiency are:
a) torque, rotational speed,
b) compression ratio, displacement,c) type of carburetor, type of ignition system.240. The crank-piston system of an internal combustion engine is designed to:
a) ensure effective operation of the clutch,b) convert mechanical energy into hydraulic energy,
c) convert the reciprocating motion of the piston into the rotational motion of the crankshaft.
241. The lubrication system in an internal combustion engine:
a) provides regulation of the rotational speed and reduces engine vibrations during operation,b) is responsible for removing hazardous substances generated in the combustion process of the mixture,
c) is responsible for the proper lubrication of the moving parts of the engine that work together.
242. The engine timing system is used for:
a) damping noise and minimizing engine vibrations during operation,b) ensuring the optimal composition of the fuel-oil-air mixture for combustion,
c) controlling the filling of the combustion chamber with air or the fuel-air mixture and controlling the emptying of this chamber of exhaust gases.
243. Systems present in internal combustion engines include, among others:
a) crankshaft-piston system, fuel supply system, cooling system,
b) hydraulic system, intake system,c) exhaust system, pneumatic system, closed system.244. The low-pressure part of the fuel supply system in a diesel engine is:
a) fuel tank and injectors,
b) fuel tank, supply pump, filters, fuel lines,
c) fuel lines, high-pressure pump, common rail.245. The element controlling the flow of coolant in the so-called "large circuit" is:
a) thermosiphon,
b) thermostat,
c) thermocouple.246. An intercooler is:
a) a charged air cooler,
b) another name for the engine coolant radiator,c) a device for burning solid particles in exhaust gases.247. DPF filter:
a) is a dry particulate filter responsible for capturing soot from exhaust gases,
b) is used to reduce NOx (nitrogen oxides) emissions,c) is a precise cabin filter protecting the operator while working in high dust conditions.248. The frequency and scope of periodic maintenance of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam:
a) are included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine,
b) are included in the IBWR documentation,c) is determined by the owner of the machine/technical device.249. The operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device is:
a) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by the health and safety services on the construction site,b) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device, which includes among others IBWR,
c) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device.
250. The operator of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is not allowed to:
a) make any repairs or maintenance,b) during work, check the technical condition of the machine/technical device,
c) use the machine/technical device for purposes other than intended.
251. A symptom of too low hydraulic oil level may be:
a) "jerky" intermittent movement of hydraulic actuators,
b) loud operation of the starter,c) uneven operation of the diesel engine.252. In the event of detecting tire damage that may pose a threat, the operator should:
a) notify the supervisor and cautiously continue working,
b) stop working,
c) continue working while reducing the speed and load of the machine.253. If the low engine oil pressure warning light comes on, the operator:
a) should stop working and turn off the engine,
b) does not need to take any action,c) can continue working if the hydraulic system is functioning properly.254. The cause of the machine's loss of stability may be:
a) the machine operating in a suitable location for it,b) driving on a hardened surface,
c) too low tire pressure.
255. The operating and maintenance manual for the machine/technical device:
a) includes, among other things, information about hazards during the operation of the machine/technical device,
b) is established by the owner or user of the machine,c) is used to record information about faults.256. The CE Declaration of Conformity is a document:
a) confirming that the product was manufactured in the countries of the European Union,
b) in which the manufacturer confirms that their product meets all applicable EU requirements regarding safety, health protection, and the environment,
c) issued by institutions that test machines for resistance to weather conditions.257. Information regarding the use of personal protective equipment and ways to limit the occupational risk the operator can find:
a) in the CE Declaration of Conformity,
b) in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device,
c) in the service book.258. The operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device:
a) is developed by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device or the entity that introduces the machine/technical device to the market,
b) is created by the construction manager based on information from the manufacturer,c) is created by institutions that conduct testing and accreditation of prototypes of machines/technical devices before allowing them for serial production.259. The operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device:
a) should be located in the machine or with the technical device, treated as part of the machine/technical device, and be available at all times,
b) does not matter where it is located, the most important thing is that the owner of the machine has it in case of resale of the machine,c) should be located in the office along with the company's documentation and be available in case of inspection.260. Identification data of the machine/technical device:
a) should be noted on the inner side of the protective helmet assigned to the given machine/technical device,b) due to their importance are always printed in red,
c) are located on the nameplate of the machine/technical device, additionally may be in the marking places described in the manual.
261. To minimize the risk of machine/technical device failure, the operator should:
a) regularly visually assess the condition of the machine/technical device and report any noticed irregularities,
b) use the machine/technical device until the failure becomes serious,c) perform maintenance activities only when the machine/technical device stops working.262. Key activities for the safe technical operation of the machine are:
a) securing equipment, covers, and doors against accidental closure and using personal protective equipment,
b) performing technical service without securing working equipment to save time,c) using latex gloves, without the need for other personal protective equipment.263. The principles of safe technical servicing of machines are:
a) the machine should be positioned on level ground, working equipment lowered to the ground, engine turned off, and the key removed from the ignition,
b) the engine may remain on to perform service faster, especially if the machine is running idle,c) the machine can be left on sloped terrain, as long as the operator plans a short technical service.264. Breaking in the machine during the initial period of operation is:
a) an intensive full load test of the machine,
b) the process of achieving optimal clearances and even wear of parts,
c) the stage of the machine working without load.265. During the break-in of the machine, the operator should pay attention to:
a) work at maximum load,
b) limit the machine's load to the level specified in the operating and maintenance manual,
c) always turn off the lubrication systems before working.266. The operator uses the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine or technical device to:
a) learn the technical specifications, health and safety rules, and methods of repairing faults,
b) record the hours worked and fuel consumption by the machine,c) record all faults of the machine or device noticed during operation.267. The operational part of the operating and maintenance instructions for the machine or device includes:
a) a catalog of spare parts,b) a detailed description of the construction and operation of all elements of the machine/device,
c) instructions regarding, among others, controlling the machine/device.
268. The operating and maintenance instructions must always be present with the machine/device because:
a) it is essential for periodic technical inspections,b) it minimizes the risk of it being lost,
c) its absence may be a reason for the inspector to disallow the machine from operating.
269. When operating a machine equipped with a hydrokinetic transmission, long slippages should be avoided because:
a) they can cause leakage and oil spillage from the hydraulic system,b) they reduce the overall power transmitted to the drive system,
c) they cause excessive heating of the converter, which can lead to its damage.
270. The SAE designation on oil refers to:
a) the multi-season qualification of the oil,
b) the viscosity of the engine oil, that is, its ability to flow and lubricate,
c) the pressure of the engine oil.271. Oil with the symbol SAE 15W-40 means that:
a) at positive temperature has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40,b) at positive temperature has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 15W,
c) at negative temperature has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 15W, and at positive temperature of summer oil class SAE 40.
272. Oil with the symbol SAE 10W-30 means that:
a) at negative temperature has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 30,
b) at negative temperature has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W, and at positive temperature of summer oil class SAE 30,
c) at positive temperature has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W.273. The symbol SAE 10W-30 means:
a) a mixture of engine oil and hydraulic oil,
b) multi-season engine oil with specified parameters,
c) hydraulic oil with specified parameters.274. Engine oil with the symbol SAE 5W-40 means that:
a) at negative temperature has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 5W, and at positive temperature of summer oil class SAE 40,
b) at negative temperature has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40,c) at positive temperature has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 5W.
275. The symbol of the warning light shown in the graphic means:
a) low engine oil pressure,b) low coolant level,
c) low engine oil level.
276. The symbol of the warning light shown in the image means:
a) low engine oil pressure,
b) low coolant level,c) low fuel level.
277. The symbol of the light shown means:
a) engine oil filter,b) hydraulic oil,
c) engine oil.
278. The symbol of the light shown means:
a) engine oil level,
b) hydraulic oil level,c) engine coolant level.279. Oils with designations 70W, 85W, 80W-90 are:
a) brake oils,
b) transmission oils,
c) engine oils.280. In case of the need to dismantle the cover/protection for maintenance, it is not allowed to:
a) record such a fact in the documentation,
b) start working with the machine without installing the cover/protection,
c) reinstall the cover/protection.281. The lighting of the battery charging indicator signals to the operator of the construction machine a malfunction of:
a) the battery switch,b) the starter,
c) the V-belt and/or alternator.
282. The operator's seat cannot be adjusted when:
a) the machine is in motion,
b) the engine is not running,c) the seat is turned backwards.283. If during daily technical service before work the operator notices that one of the windows in the cabin is cracked, then:
a) he can start working provided that the window is only cracked and has not "fallen out",
b) he should not start working,
c) he can start working if it is not the front window.284. Before starting work, the operator should:
a) open the windows for better communication,
b) clean the windows by removing snow, ice, and other contaminants,
c) install sunshades on the windows.285. When changing hydraulic oils, one should:
a) use only types of oils that are recommended by the machine manufacturer,
b) use any type of oil,c) always use only biodegradable oils.286. To ensure the technical efficiency of the working machine, one should:
a) use the machine/technical device not exceeding 50% of the permissible load,b) use the machine/technical device only under full load,
c) follow technical service and maintenance according to the operating and maintenance instructions.
287. On the construction site, empty containers of lubricants, oil filters, and used oils should be:
a) thrown into any waste container,
b) placed in a properly marked container for hazardous waste,
c) thrown into a mixed waste container.288. Stickers (pictograms) located on the machine/technical device serve to:
a) convey essential information about safety and the use of the machine/technical device,
b) inform about the prohibition of approaching the machine/technical device,c) indicate places where one can stay without any risk.289. Lubrication points in the machine should be serviced:
a) always after 10 hours of operation,b) during all breaks in work,
c) according to the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine.
290. Engine oil with parameters 5W-50 is:
a) oil only for winter,
b) all-season oil,
c) oil only for summer.291. Before starting work on a new type of machine/technical device, the operator should:
a) perform a test run,
b) familiarize themselves with the operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device,
c) perform a periodic inspection.292. OTC service is:
a) temporary technical service,
b) daily technical service,
c) round-the-clock technical service.293. The basic types of services are:
a) round-the-clock, multi-seasonal, annual, technological service,b) visual, active, passive service,
c) daily, periodic, warehouse, transport service.
294. Batteries, when starting the machine using a supporting battery, should be connected:
a) in parallel,
b) crosswise,c) in series.295. In the case of electrolyte loss caused by spillage through a cracked battery casing, one should:
a) add demineralized water to a level 10 mm above the upper edges of the plates,
b) secure the leak area in terms of environmental protection, and then replace the battery,
c) add electrolyte to the proper level and charge the battery.296. The activities performed by the operator as part of daily maintenance during work are:
a) replenishing operating fluids and daily lubrication,b) cleaning the machine,
c) auditory control of the machine's operation and observation of indicators.
297. When inflating a tire of the machine's wheel, one should:
a) not stand directly next to the inflated wheel,
b) stand next to the inflated wheel provided that a safety helmet is worn,c) check the state of the inflated wheel by observing the deflection of the side part of the tire.298. If the manufacturer has provided for operational running-in, it should be carried out:
a) without load,b) with maximum load,
c) with the load recommended in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device.
299. During the storage of the machine on a wheeled chassis, the machine's wheels should be:
a) removed from the machine,
b) unloaded,
c) secured with wedges.300. Driving the machine on public roads should be done in the position:
a) transfer,
b) transport,
c) working.301. During the loading of the machine onto the transport vehicle, the operator should:
a) approach at a speed of at least 5 [km/h],b) know the maximum speed allowed for the given transport vehicle,
c) know the permissible angle of inclination of the loading plates for the given machine.
302. The responsibility for the placement and securing of the machine on the transport vehicle lies with:
a) the carrier (e.g. driver),
b) the machine operator,c) the owner or the person responsible for machines in the company.303. When storing the machine, one should ensure that:
a) the machine is facing the exit,
b) there are no leaks of operating fluids,
c) no documents of the machine are left in the cabin.304. Securing the machine during storage downtime involves:
a) filling the hydraulic oil tank to the top,b) disassembling all filters and protecting them from moisture,
c) cleaning the machine of dirt and corrosion.
305. The rods of hydraulic cylinders, during technical maintenance of the stored machine, should be:
a) protected against corrosion,
b) disassembled and their seals replaced,c) removed and cleaned.306. During the loading of the machine onto the transport vehicle:
a) the operator should drive onto the transport vehicle independently,b) assistance from a second person is recommended only when loading onto a low-loader trailer,
c) assistance from a second person is recommended.
307. The recommended method for loading heavy working machines onto low-loader trailers is:
a) loading using other machines,b) loading on ropes,
c) mechanized loading from the front ramp.
308. During longer storage of the machine, the fuel tank should be:
a) empty, to avoid fire hazards,
b) filled to the top, to prevent condensation of water vapor inside the tank,
c) filled to 1/3 of its capacity and left open.309. During daily maintenance of the machine, the condition of should be checked:
a) the working pressure values in the hydraulic system,
b) the connections and tightness of the hydraulic system,
c) the tools and equipment.310. If the machine's engine has not been running for a longer time during daily maintenance, one should:
a) start the engine and gently increase the RPM to reach the operating temperature faster,b) replace the fuel pre-filter,
c) check the oil level and other operating fluids.
311. When inflating tires on a working machine, the operator should:
a) stand directly in front of the tire to monitor the pressure,b) ensure that bystanders are nearby,
c) stand to the side of the tire tread or on the other side of the machine.
312. Information regarding faults, their codes, and methods of removal can be found in a document called:
a) daily report,
b) operation and maintenance manual,
c) construction machine book.313. The correct sequence for connecting the auxiliary battery to the discharged battery in the machine is as follows:
a) positive terminal of the machine battery, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, machine frame,
b) machine frame, positive terminal of the machine battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery,c) negative terminal of the machine battery, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, machine frame.314. In case of electrolyte loss in the battery, one should:
a) top it up with distilled or demineralized water,
b) top it up with DOT-3 fluid,c) top it up with water other than distilled.315. Checking the charge state of the 12 [V] starter battery by "sparking" poses a risk of:
a) electric shock from high voltage,b) seizing the alternator,
c) explosion of hydrogen escaping from the battery.
316. Before storing wheels in a wheel machine, it is necessary to:
a) relieve the load to prevent tire deformation,
b) inflate to maximum pressure to prevent tire deformation,c) loosen to reduce the static load on the mounting screws.317. The scope of daily technical service for the machine does not include:
a) checking and adjusting valve clearances,
b) checking the oil level in the engine,c) checking the condition of the tires and tire pressure.318. When cleaning the radiator, to avoid damaging it, one should:
a) use sharp tools for cleaning,b) use a strong jet of water under high pressure,
c) keep the compressed air nozzle at an appropriate distance from the radiator.
319. The purpose of lubrication in working machines is:
a) to raise the temperature of cooperating elements,b) to increase the engine speed,
c) to reduce friction.
320. The most commonly used type of fuses in the electrical installations of working machines is:
a) automatic fuses,
b) cartridge fuses,
c) residual current devices.321. The phenomenon of electrostatic discharge during the refueling of a machine can lead to:
a) poisoning,b) short circuit of the electrical installation,
c) fire.
322. In the case of parallel connection of two batteries with different rated voltages:
a) thicker cables should be used than with batteries of the same rated voltages,
b) there may be an explosion of the battery with the lower rated voltage,
c) both batteries may discharge.323. When checking the pressure in a tire, the machine should be:
a) unloaded, and the tire should be cold,
b) loaded to make the measurement more accurate,c) running and warmed up.324. The correct way to connect a battery to a charger during charging is:
a) the positive terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger, the negative terminal of the charger to the "ground" of the machine,b) the positive terminal of the battery to the negative terminal of the charger, the negative terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger,
c) the positive terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger, the negative terminal of the battery to the negative terminal of the charger.
325. After connecting the battery, the terminals are lubricated with:
a) technical vaseline,
b) graphite grease,c) grease containing molybdenum disulfide.326. To safely inflate a tire, you should:
a) use a short pneumatic hose with a manometer,
b) stand to the side of the tire tread and use a long pneumatic hose,
c) stand opposite the tire valve while inflating.327. One of the goals of warehouse management is:
a) to protect the machine from corrosion and other harmful factors during long-term storage,
b) to repair damaged machine components before the next season,c) to prepare the machine for transport for the future user.328. If the operator notices a leak in the cooling system during daily technical service, he should:
a) report the leak and not use the machine until it is repaired,
b) top up the coolant and continue working,c) organize the fluid and top it up to the minimum level if the leak is small.329. The level of coolant in the expansion tank should be checked:
a) only during periodic technical service,b) only in case of engine overheating,
c) during every daily technical service.
330. If the operator notices a hydraulic fluid leak during daily technical service, he should:
a) top up the oil and continue working,
b) report the leak and not use the machine until it is repaired,
c) reduce the RPM and continue working.331. The frequency of performing periodic technical service depends on:
a) the number of hours worked (engine hours),
b) the number of completed working cycles,c) the production date of the machine.332. If during daily technical service the operator notices a low level of engine oil, he should:
a) top up the oil to the appropriate level,
b) top up the level with any available oil, even if it is of a different type,c) continue working if the level is not very low and the warning light is not on.333. A characteristic activity for seasonal technical service is:
a) replacing the coolant with one appropriate for the season,
b) checking the working pressure values of the hydraulic system,c) checking the charging voltage values.334. The basic service activities that should be performed before starting a diesel engine are:
a) checking the oil level in the gearbox, checking the operation of the working system, checking the operation of the brakes,
b) checking the oil level in the engine, checking the coolant level, checking the condition of the air filter,
c) bleeding the fuel system, checking the level of transmission oil, checking the starter.335. Activities performed as part of daily technical service (OTC) carried out during the operation of the machine include:
a) observing control and measuring instruments and checking the proper operation of the machine using sight, hearing, and smell,
b) primarily conducting a sensory check of the proper functioning of the machine's working system,c) observing only control and measuring indicators such as: oil pressure, engine temperature, hydraulic oil temperature.336. We distinguish, among others, the following types of technical services:
a) transport, arrival, daily, periodic, seasonal, storage,
b) transport, arrival, storage, service-repair (SR), catalog,c) arrival, daily, periodic, seasonal, storage, emergency, night.337. We perform technical services for the purpose of:
a) maintaining the value of the machine or technical device at a constant, unchanging level,