Dozers class I
Study mode
Question of 362
1. What is the minimum allowable distance of the machine from the reach of the wedge of the collapse?
a) 0.6 [m],
b) 0.4 [m],c) 0.8 [m].2. The safe distance of the machine from the excavation is:
a) reach of the wedge of the collapse + 0.6 [m],
b) depth of the excavation + 0.6 [m],c) 1.6 [m].
3. Based on the provided table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] made in cohesive soils:
a) 1 [m],
b) 1.6 [m],
c) 2.6 [m].4. Based on the provided table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] made in fractured rocks:
a) 4.6 [m],
b) 3.6 [m],
c) 2.6 [m].5. Based on the provided table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] made in slightly cohesive soils:
a) 2.6 [m],b) 3.6 [m],
c) 3.1 [m]. Bulldozers Class I
6. What is the minimum safe distance from the UPPER edge of the embankment that a machine can approach, given the following data: Soil category - I (dry sand), height of the embankment - h = 2 [m], horizontal distance between the upper and lower edges of the embankment - a = 2.5 [m]?
a) 1.1 [m],
b) 0.6 [m],c) 3.6 [m].7. What is the minimum safe distance from the UPPER edge of the embankment that a machine can approach, given the following data: Soil category - II (slightly cohesive soils), height of the embankment - h = 4 [m], horizontal distance between the upper and lower edges of the embankment - a = 2.5 [m]?
a) 3.1 [m],
b) 0.6 [m],c) 5.6 [m].8. At what horizontal distance from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage not exceeding 1 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 5 [m],b) not less than 2 [m],
c) not less than 3 [m].
9. At what horizontal distance from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 15 [m],
b) not less than 5 [m],
c) not less than 10 [m].10. At what horizontal distance from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 10 [m],
b) not less than 15 [m],c) not less than 5 [m].11. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?
a) not less than 10 [m],
b) not less than 15 [m],
c) not less than 20 [m].12. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?
a) not less than 30 [m],
b) not less than 15 [m],c) not less than 10 [m].13. Is it possible to organize workstations in the danger zone under overhead power lines?
a) no, never,
b) yes, but only after meeting additional requirements,
c) yes, always.
14. What is the safe distance X for the operation of a machine or technical device under overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [V]?
a) not less than 5 [m],b) not less than 30 [m],
c) not less than 3 [m].
15. What is the safe distance X for the operation of a machine or technical device under overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV]?
a) not less than 5 [m],
b) not less than 10 [m],c) not less than 15 [m].16. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?
a) not less than 15 [m],
b) not less than 10 [m],
c) not less than 30 [m].17. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?
a) not less than 10 [m],
b) not less than 5 [m],c) not less than 15 [m].18. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV]?
a) not less than 50 [m],b) not less than 30 [m],
c) not less than 15 [m].
19. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV]?
a) not less than 15 [m],
b) not less than 10 [m],
c) not less than 30 [m].20. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]?
a) not less than 30 [m],
b) not less than 3 [m],c) not less than 40 [m].21. Work in the danger zone (overhead high voltage power line):
a) may not be carried out under electrical lines in the danger zone in any case,b) may be carried out provided that permission has been granted by the work manager,
c) may be carried out provided that the line has been disconnected from the voltage, the work is performed in a limited area with grounding, and at least one grounding is visible from the work location.
22. The operator is to perform work at a distance X from an active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [V]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 5 [m],
b) 2 [m],c) 1 [m].23. The operator is to perform work at a distance X from an active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 3 [m],b) 5 [m],
c) 15 [m].
24. The operator is to perform work at a distance X from an active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 15 [m],b) 5 [m],
c) 50 [m].
25. If the injured person has a detectable pulse but is not breathing, then:
a) he should not be touched,
b) the airways should be cleared and artificial respiration should be started,
c) cardiopulmonary resuscitation should be performed.26. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, one should primarily:
a) move away from the accident site to call a doctor,
b) provide assistance to those in life-threatening situations,
c) give injured persons medication.27. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, one should primarily:
a) ensure one's own safety,
b) move away from the accident site to call a doctor,c) provide assistance to those in life-threatening situations.28. The obligation to provide first aid to accident victims rests with:
a) only those with medical training,
b) everyone, as one can always perform part of the rescue tasks,
c) everyone, but there is always a risk of criminal liability for mistakes made.29. The accident victim regained consciousness after a few minutes and wants to go home. In such a situation, one should:
a) allow them to go home, recommending a visit to a doctor,
b) persuade them to stay and call for medical help,
c) give them something to drink and pain relief medication.30. First aid in a situation where a foreign body has entered the eye of the injured person consists of:
a) rinsing the eye with eye drops,b) rinsing with distilled water directing the stream to the inside of the eye,
c) rinsing with clean water directing the stream from the nose outward from the eye.
31. The injured person cut their leg on an unsecured sharp element. Providing first aid in this situation is:
a) using sterile gauze, wrapping the wound with a bandage,
b) sticking a plaster directly on the wound,c) using a tourniquet.32. Suspecting spinal injury in a person who has fallen from a height and is conscious, one should:
a) seat them in a semi-reclining position,b) lay them in the recovery position,
c) not move them and wait for medical services to arrive.
33. To move away from the place where the electric wire has been broken and the area is live, one should:
a) run as quickly as possible to a place that we assess as safe,b) quickly step away from the source of electric shock, lifting feet high,
c) leave the place slowly, taking small steps, trying to maintain continuous contact of feet with the ground.
34. First aid in the case of a first-degree burn is:
a) applying greasy cream to the burned area,b) applying ointment to the burned area,
c) pouring cold water on the burned area.
35. During work, a high-voltage power line was broken, resulting in a colleague being electrocuted. In this situation, the correct behavior is:
a) call other colleagues for help with the injured person,b) approach the injured person to provide first aid,
c) turn off the power source as quickly as possible.
36. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation is performed until:
a) we have confirmed that the victim has started breathing and circulation has returned,
b) 10 minutes have passed,c) the fire department arrives and secures the area.37. Immediate action in the case of severe bleeding from an injured upper limb includes:
a) lowering the limb below the level of the heart,b) disinfecting the wound with salicylic alcohol,
c) applying a dressing, directly compressing the bleeding site, and elevating the limb.
38. In the case of a nosebleed, one should:
a) lay the victim on their back,b) tilt the head back and place a cold compress on the neck,
c) lean the bleeding person's head forward and pinch the nostrils.
39. The first step in dealing with a carbon monoxide poisoning victim in a closed room is:
a) conducting a preliminary examination,b) assessing ABC,
c) the quickest possible evacuation of the victim from that room.
40. First aid during seizures caused by an epileptic attack consists of:
a) seating the victim in a semi-sitting position and giving them something to drink,b) placing a wooden object in the victim's mouth to prevent biting the tongue,
c) protecting the victim's head from injuries.
41. In case of suspected spinal injury in the cervical region in a conscious person, one should:
a) seat the injured person in a chair with a high back,
b) not allow the injured person to move their head,
c) place the injured person in a lateral position.42. The most important thing when a person is buried under earth, sand, or gravel is:
a) waiting for the ambulance to arrive,b) notifying the family,
c) locating the injured person.
43. First aid for a person with a metal rod embedded in their lower leg involves calling for help and:
a) moving the rod to check if the artery has been damaged,b) removing the embedded rod,
c) securing the rod to prevent movement.
44. The indication for using an AED defibrillator is:
a) severe dizziness,b) severe chest pain,
c) absence of detectable breath and pulse in the injured person.
45. During the operation of a machine/technical device, the prohibited actions while taking the exam are:
a) changing the working tool,b) performing daily technical service (DTS),
c) making structural changes to the machine/technical device.
46. During the operation of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam, the prohibited activities are:
a) cleaning the machine/technical device using gasoline or solvents whose vapors can create flammable/explosive gas mixtures with air,
b) cleaning the machine/technical device using a product in accordance with the operating and maintenance instructions,c) refueling the machine/technical device from a canister.47. When performing earthworks with the machine for which you are taking the exam, it is unacceptable to:
a) use the machine's blade at a safe distance from the excavation,
b) position the machine within the reach of the falling wedge,
c) extend the machine's blade towards the excavation.48. When performing earthworks with the machine for which you are taking the exam, it is unacceptable to:
a) use the machine on clay soils at air temperatures below -5°C,
b) use the machine on clay soils during heavy rain,
c) use the machine on clay soils at air temperatures above 30°C.49. When performing earthworks with the machine for which you are taking the exam, it is unacceptable to:
a) have people within a distance greater than the sum of the maximum reach of the working tool plus 6 meters,
b) have people within the working range of the machine's working tool,
c) have people near the machine during technical maintenance.50. When performing work, it is unacceptable to:
a) work near active overhead power lines at a distance less than specified by regulations,
b) work near an active power line with a rated voltage of 20 [kV] at a distance of 15 [m],c) work near an active power line with a rated voltage of 10 [kV] at a distance of 10 [m].51. The machine/technical device you are taking the exam for can only be operated by:
a) a person with written confirmation of course completion in the form of a plastic card,b) any adult person with a technical education and a driving license of the appropriate category,
c) a person who has completed training and obtained a positive result from the test conducted by the commission appointed by the Łukasiewicz Research Network – Warsaw Institute of Technology.
52. The rights to operate machines/technical devices you are taking the exam for are issued by:
a) Łukasiewicz Research Network - Warsaw Institute of Technology (LRN - WIT),
b) Office of Technical Inspection (UTN),c) County Office appropriate for the address of the person applying for the rights.53. The rights to operate machines/technical devices you are taking the exam for:
a) are valid for 10 years from the date of issue,b) are valid for 5 years from the date of issue,
c) are valid indefinitely.
54. A person holding the rights to operate: "Bulldozer class I" can operate based on them:
a) bulldozers with an engine power above 110 [kW] and all excavator-bulldozers,
b) all bulldozers regardless of engine power,
c) only bulldozers with an engine power above 110 [kW].55. An employee operating the machine/technical device you are taking the exam for can take up work provided that:
a) they have the rights to operate this type of machine/technical device,
b) they have a valid category D driving license,c) the machine/technical device has a valid UTN inspection.56. In the event of a threat to life, health, property, or the environment caused by a machine/technical device failure, the operator:
a) immediately stops work and informs the supervisor of this fact,
b) continues working but informs the supervisor of the situation at the end of the shift,c) continues working but makes an appropriate entry in the maintenance log at the end of the shift.57. Lifting and transporting people using working equipment:
a) requires the consent of the construction manager,
b) is always prohibited,
c) is possible, but only outside the public road area.58. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam has the right to refuse to work when:
a) they have the required personal protective equipment,
b) this work requires special psychophysical fitness, and their psychophysical condition does not ensure its safe performance and poses a threat to others,
c) there is an overhead power line with a rated voltage of 110 [kV] located 35 meters away.59. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is obliged to stop work when:
a) the work they are performing poses an immediate threat to the health or life of others,
b) they have the required personal protective equipment,c) there is an overhead power line located 35 meters away.60. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is obliged to:
a) comply with the instructions for the operation and use of the machine/technical device,
b) always have a category B driving license,c) independently perform all current repairs of the machine/technical device.61. The person directly responsible for the safe operation of the machine you are taking the exam for is:
a) the owner of the machine,
b) the operator of the machine,
c) the construction manager.62. The operator's book and qualifications for the machine/technical device you are taking the exam for are issued by:
a) The Office of Technical Inspection (UDT),b) The Transport Technical Inspection (TDT),
c) The Research Network Łukasiewicz - Warsaw Institute of Technology.
63. The obligation to use personal protective equipment:
a) arises from the operating and maintenance instructions and health and safety regulations,
b) does not apply on hot days,c) arises only from internal regulations.64. An employee who witnesses an accident at work:
a) only needs to inform their supervisor,b) is obliged to provide assistance to the victims and then immediately leave the accident site,
c) is obliged to provide assistance to the victims, inform their supervisor, and if necessary secure the accident site.
65. What elements of the machine you are taking the exam for protect the operator in case the machine tips over:
a) the machine seat,b) a certified safety helmet and a reflective vest,
c) a ROPS type machine cabin and safety belts.
66. In the event of loss of stability of a machine equipped with a ROPS cabin, the operator should:
a) try to leave the cabin as quickly as possible (before the machine tips over),b) quickly turn left and raise the working equipment as high as possible,
c) maintain a seated position while holding firmly to the steering wheel or other stable elements in the cabin.
67. In the event of loss of stability of a machine equipped with a ROPS cabin, the operator should:
a) immediately jump out of the cabin,
b) stay in the cabin,
c) turn on the warning/hazard lights.68. The danger zone is defined as:
a) a place where there are threats to the health and life of people,
b) a place where work requiring specialized equipment is carried out, and the presence of people is only allowed at night,c) a place where employees must only wear safety helmets.69. The area that the operator should check and secure before starting work with the machine/technical device (because there are threats to the health and life of people) is called:
a) danger zone,
b) blind spot,c) area of increased risk.
70. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:
a) "lower down",b) "turn the machine",
c) "raise up".
71. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:
a) "lower down",
b) "raise up",c) "rotate the machine".
72. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:
a) "movement in the indicated direction",
b) "rotate the machine",c) "raise up".
73. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:
a) "rotate the machine",
b) "movement in the indicated direction",
c) "raise up".
74. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:
a) "end of operation",b) "stop",
c) "horizontal distance".
75. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:
a) "fast movement",
b) "move forward",
c) "move backward".
76. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "slow movement",
b) "movement backwards",
c) "movement forwards".
77. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "stop",b) "end of operation",
c) "vertical distance".
78. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "STOP. Emergency stop",
b) "movement backwards",c) "horizontal distance".
79. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "START. Beginning of directing",
b) "STOP. Emergency stop",c) "movement backwards".
80. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "STOP. Emergency stop",
b) "STOP. Break - end of movement",
c) "movement backwards".
81. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "lower down",b) "horizontal distance",
c) "END. Stop operation".
82. During the charging of batteries, a gas with highly explosive properties is released. This gas is:
a) methane,b) ethane,
c) hydrogen.
83. Firefighting foam can be used to extinguish fires of group:
a) A and B,
b) C and D,c) only C.84. Improper use of a snow extinguisher can result in:
a) fainting,
b) frostbite caused by the extinguishing agent,
c) burns from the extinguisher components.85. Water, fire blanket, powder extinguisher, carbon dioxide, sand are extinguishing agents that we will use to extinguish:
a) solid bodies,
b) liquids,c) oils.86. Sorbents can be called:
a) fire blankets,b) petroleum substances,
c) materials made of natural or synthetic materials that absorb liquids.
87. Group A fires concern:
a) flammable liquids,b) flammable gases,
c) solid bodies whose normal combustion occurs with the formation of glowing coals, e.g. wood, paper, etc..
88. Group B fires concern:
a) metals, e.g. magnesium, sodium, potassium, aluminum, titanium, etc.,b) flammable gases,
c) liquids and solid materials that melt, e.g. plastics, fuels, oils, etc..
89. Group C fires concern:
a) flammable liquids,
b) gases, e.g. methane, propane, acetylene, hydrogen,
c) solid bodies.
90. Seeing such a pictogram you are informed about:
a) danger zone,b) a larger number of people in a given area,
c) a gathering place during evacuation.
91. During work, you noticed a sign marked 'Zone 0'. It informs about:
a) the zone of existing fire load in the building,
b) the space where an explosive atmosphere exists,
c) the zone of existing fire hazard category.
92. The presented pictogram informs about:
a) internal hydrant,
b) set of fire protection equipment,
c) main power switch.
93. Seeing such a pictogram, you are informed about:
a) emergency exit,
b) assembly point during evacuation,c) location of first aid.
94. Seeing such a pictogram, you are informed about:
a) high temperature affecting the extinguisher,b) prohibition of using the extinguisher,
c) location of the extinguisher.
95. You see a person whose clothing is on fire and who, in panic, is running away. Your reaction is:
a) you instruct him to wait in an upright position for the arrival of rescue services,
b) you try to stop him, lay him on the ground, and start extinguishing,
c) you wave your hands or outer covering strongly next to him to extinguish the burning clothing.96. Electrical devices and installations can be extinguished using:
a) water,b) foam extinguishers,
c) powder or snow extinguishers.
97. Burning fuel can be extinguished using:
a) powder, foam or snow extinguishers,
b) water,c) low-octane ethylene.98. Clothing burning on a person can be extinguished using:
a) water mist extinguisher or fire blanket,
b) snow or powder extinguisher,c) plastic material.99. What obligations does an employee have when they decide to refrain from work due to health and safety regulations?
a) They must immediately notify their supervisor,
b) They have no obligations in this situation,c) They should organize work for others.100. How can an operator prevent hazards in the workplace?
a) By ignoring health and safety rules,b) By not reporting faults in machines,
c) By using personal protective equipment to minimize risk.
101. It is not permissible to position the workplace directly under active overhead power lines or at a horizontal distance from the outermost wires of less than:
a) for lines: 1 [kV] - 3 [m], 15 [kV] - 5 [m], 30 [kV] - 10 [m], 110 [kV] - 15 [m], 400 [kV] - 30 [m],
b) for all voltages - 1 [m] from the power line,c) for lines: 1 [kV] - 1 [m], 15 [kV] - 3 [m], 30 [kV] - 5 [m], 110 [kV] - 10 [m].102. How does the operator know what personal protective equipment is required for a given machine/technical device?
a) Information about the necessary personal protective equipment is included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine,
b) The operator must independently choose the appropriate protective measures,c) The choice of personal protective equipment depends on the opinion of colleagues at work.103. The operator should refuse to perform a task when:
a) the work requires familiarization with the location of underground and above-ground utilities,
b) the work is inconsistent with the intended use of the machine/technical device,
c) the work is being performed at night.104. The operator can prevent hazards during the operation of the machine/technical device by:
a) limiting the use of personal protective equipment,
b) adhering to health and safety rules and following the operating instructions,
c) inattention and routine.105. Which of the following situations is unacceptable during the use of the machine/technical device?
a) Operating the machine without supervision,b) Reporting faults directly to the supervisor,
c) Unauthorized persons being in the danger zone caused by the operation of the machine/technical device.
106. An accident at work is considered:
a) a sudden event related to the work performed, caused by an external factor, resulting in injury or death,
b) a prolonged event related to the work performed, caused by an internal factor, resulting in equipment damage,c) a sudden event unrelated to the work performed, caused by an external factor, resulting in injury or death.107. A fatal accident at work is considered to be an accident in which death occurred:
a) within a period not exceeding 6 months from the date of the accident,
b) after a period exceeding 6 months from the date of the accident,c) only at the moment of the accident.108. It is prohibited to:
a) allow unauthorized persons within the reach of the machine's work and work on slopes exceeding the permissible incline,
b) report noticed defects to the supervisor before starting work,c) operate the machine after completing training and obtaining the appropriate qualifications.109. When getting on and off the machine, it is prohibited to:
a) use the control lever as support,
b) face the machine when getting on and off,c) intensively use the handrails and steps.110. Health and safety regulations require:
a) scrapping the old working machine within the time specified in its operating and maintenance manual, while observing the requirements for the disposal of hazardous materials,
b) securing the working machine during breaks in its operation against accidental activation by unauthorized persons,
c) performing a warranty inspection of the working machine before the end of one year from its purchase.111. In the event of a person being electrocuted:
a) do not touch the victim until the power source is disconnected,
b) immediate resuscitation should be started, regardless of whether the power source has been disconnected,c) it is recommended to use any tools to disconnect the power, regardless of their actual purpose.112. In the event of a person being buried under earth or sand:
a) we always calmly wait for rescue services - any attempt to help would be too dangerous,b) the person should be dug out as quickly as possible regardless of one's own safety - it's about their life,
c) the person should be dug out as quickly as possible, provided it is safe for the rescuer.
113. Seeing a person whose clothes are on fire, the first thing to do is:
a) use a fire extinguisher, preferably a snow one, to extinguish the burning clothing, and then try to quickly remove the melted clothing,b) leave the victim standing to facilitate air access and extinguish the flames faster,
c) cut off the air supply by rolling the victim or wrapping them in a fire blanket, wet clothing, or a wet blanket.
114. If during earthworks unidentified objects are discovered, then:
a) a danger zone with a radius of 6 [m] should be designated, outside of which normal work can continue,b) earthworks can continue if a distance of at least 1 [m] is maintained from such an object,
c) further work is interrupted and the supervising person is notified.
115. In the event of finding an unexploded ordnance during earthworks, one should:
a) stop work, remove other workers from the danger area, notify superiors, and secure the site,
b) try to carefully remove the unexploded ordnance from the work area and continue working,c) ignore the unexploded ordnance if it does not pose an immediate threat.116. Wedge of soil collapse:
a) it is the area around the working machine extending to a distance of 6 [m] beyond its farthest reach,
b) it occurs when the slope of the embankment exceeds the angle of the natural soil slope,
c) it occurs only when the soil is in a frozen state.117. Range of the wedge of soil collapse:
a) depends solely on the soil temperature,
b) depends on the depth of the excavation and the category of the soil,
c) depends on the speed of the machine's operation and the efficiency of the operator.118. The angle of the natural slope is:
a) the angle at which the machine can be safely operated - it depends on the parameters of the given machine,b) the angle at which the soil will definitely collapse by itself - it depends solely on the temperature of that soil,
c) the maximum slope at which the soil can remain without collapsing - it depends, among other things, on the category of the soil.
119. Rules and methods of marking works carried out on public roads 'under traffic':
a) is defined by the Temporary Traffic Organization Project, which presents the types and methods of placing road signs, traffic lights, sound signals, and traffic safety devices,
b) are defined by regulations concerning permanent road markings, which do not take into account temporary changes in traffic,c) is determined solely by the construction manager's decision, without the need to prepare an additional project.120. When carrying out work in the road lane:
a) one must familiarize oneself with the Safe Work Execution Instruction (IBWR) and use personal protective equipment, such as safety helmets, work shoes, and high-visibility protective clothing,
b) vehicles used in the works may be unmarked if they are visible up close,c) workers may work without personal protective equipment, provided that the work is short-term.121. Wedge of soil:
a) is the space around the machine, dependent on the machine's working speed and its mass,b) is the zone where the soil becomes unstable - its extent depends solely on the depth of the excavation, the type of soil does not matter here,
c) occurs when the slope angle exceeds the natural soil slope angle - its extent depends on the type of soil and the depth of the excavation or the height of the slope.
122. The natural slope angle is:
a) the angle at which any slope becomes unstable, regardless of the type of soil,
b) the maximum slope at which the soil can remain without sliding - it depends on the type of soil, e.g., moisture, cohesion, and grain size,
c) the angle at which the machine can safely move on the embankment, regardless of the soil category.123. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is performed:
a) only in the case of fainting and minor injuries, to improve blood circulation,
b) when the victim is not breathing and there is no detectable pulse. For a person who is not a professional rescuer, the absence of breathing is a sufficient basis to start resuscitation,
c) when the victim is breathing but is unconscious and there is no contact with them.124. An employee has the right to refrain from performing work due to health and safety regulations, notifying their supervisor immediately if:
a) the working conditions pose an immediate threat to health or life,
b) the working conditions do not pose a threat but are too difficult for them,c) the work they are performing has not been reported to the construction supervision.125. Physical factors generating hazards in the workplace are:
a) lack of appropriate medical examinations for the employee,b) lack of or inadequate training for employees,
c) spilled lubricants, oils, and fuels.
126. Work with a machine/technical device is unacceptable when:
a) its repair was carried out after dark,b) the second operator did not report an upcoming inspection,
c) it is malfunctioning.
127. Working near overhead power lines:
a) always requires double grounding of the line,b) always requires power to be turned off in the line,
c) is possible without meeting additional requirements provided that specific distances depending on the rated voltage of the line are maintained.
128. The operator is obliged to refuse to work if:
a) they would have to work under power lines, and the voltage in them has been turned off and the line grounded,
b) the machine is malfunctioning,
c) there is no site manager or any other person authorized to supervise at the work site.129. The danger zone from a machine/device is:
a) a place where there are hazards to health or life of people,
b) a place where the machine/device cannot be used,c) always the entire fenced construction site.130. Accidents at work resulting from the poor technical condition of the machine may involve, for example:
a) injury to a limb, torso, or head,
b) damage to equipment,c) failure of the drive system.131. Unacceptable behaviors are:
a) performing daily machine maintenance after dark,b) working after dark in a well-lit place, with full concentration of the operator,
c) operating a faulty machine and working under the influence of alcohol.
132. General rules for safely getting on and off the machine are:
a) using cables and levers as aids when getting on is permissible when the machine is turned off,b) one can descend backwards from the machine, but only when the steps are slippery,
c) a person should face the machine, remember the "three-point support" rule, and use only specially made steps and handrails.
133. Basic employee responsibilities regarding OHS are:
a) not being late for work, finishing on time, confirming presence at work in the manner accepted by the employer,b) enforcing labor code regulations regarding their rights, including payment for overtime worked,
c) adhering to OHS regulations and rules, taking care of the condition of machines and tools, maintaining order in the workplace, and using personal protective equipment.
134. In the case of a person electrocuted, after disconnecting the power source, one should:
a) move the injured person to another location as quickly as possible,
b) check the condition of the injured person, and if necessary: call for help, clear the airways, perform resuscitation, and use an AED if available,
c) leave the injured person alone if they have regained consciousness, without further actions.135. When a person buried under earth or sand is partially dug out, one should:
a) quickly dig out the left hand to check for a pulse,b) focus on digging out the lower parts of the injured person's body,
c) quickly clear the airways.
136. After extinguishing the flames on a person with burns and calling for help, you should:
a) use a snow extinguisher to cool the burn area,b) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes, previously removing any melted clothing,
c) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes, without removing any melted clothing.
137. If the operator notices faults that may prevent the proper operation of the machine, then:
a) ignore the faults if the machine is currently working properly,
b) is obliged to refuse to start the machine and report this fact to the supervisor,
c) should continue working and repair the machine after completing the task.138. For optical marking of works carried out in the road lane, the following are used:
a) only traffic lights, flashing,b) traffic cones in any well-visible color and uniform red obstacles placed at the work site,
c) traffic cones in red or orange, and after dark, cones with white reflective stripes and separators.
139. What markings should vehicles and machines used for work in the road lane have?
a) Vehicles and machines should be marked only when working after dark. The method of marking is specified in the operating and maintenance manual of the given machine,b) Vehicles should use light signals of any color visible from a distance. Other machines do not need to be additionally marked,
c) Vehicles should be equipped with yellow light signals visible from at least 150 m, and machines on the roadway should be marked with road barriers with reflective elements and warning lights.
140. Seeing such a pictogram, you are informed about:
a) a place to perform AED,
b) a place where an external automatic defibrillator is available,
c) a place where a first aid kit is available.141. Properly performed cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) consists of:
a) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 100-120 times per minute to a depth of 5–6 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 30 compressions (breaths are not mandatory),
b) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 30-60 times per minute to a depth of 1–3 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 15 compressions (breaths are mandatory),c) connecting an external automatic defibrillator (AED) and following its instructions; CPR is not performed without an AED.142. Material must not be stored in the natural slope failure danger zone:
a) when the excavation walls are unshored,
b) always, when the soil is sandy,c) when the excavation is deeper than 1.5 [m] regardless of its support.143. The Safe Execution of Construction Works Instruction is:
a) a plan for the road in construction works,
b) a document containing information regarding safety on the construction site,
c) a document confirming qualifications for operating machines and technical devices in earthworks, construction, and road works.144. The BIOZ plan means:
a) the Safe Health Protection Instruction plan,b) the Safety and Resource Specification plan,
c) the Safety and Health Protection plan.
145. A vehicle performing cleaning, repair, or modernization work on the road should send:
a) red flashing signals,b) orange flashing signals,
c) yellow flashing signals.
146. In order to direct traffic during work in the road lane, it is required to:
a) have the qualifications to operate all machines working on the section for which traffic is being directed,b) have the qualifications to operate at least one of the machines and appropriate personal protective equipment,
c) have a valid certificate of completion of a course in traffic management and be visible from a sufficient distance.
147. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 4 [m],b) 1.6 [m],
c) 1 [m].
148. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 1.6 [m],b) 1 [m],
c) 1.5 [m].
149. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 0.5 [m],
b) 1.6 [m],c) 1 [m].150. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 1 [m],
b) 2 [m],c) 1.6 [m].151. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 1 [m],
b) 2 [m],
c) 1.6 [m].152. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 1 [m],
b) 3 [m],
c) 2 [m].153. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 4 [m],
b) 3 [m],c) 2.6 [m].154. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 1 [m],b) 2.6 [m],
c) 1.6 [m].
155. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 6.6 [m],b) 3.6 [m],
c) 2.1 [m].
156. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 4.6 [m],
b) 2.6 [m],
c) 2 [m].157. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 2 [m],b) 2.6 [m],
c) 1.1 [m].
158. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 1.6 [m],
b) 2 [m],c) 2.6 [m].159. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 2.6 [m],
b) 2 [m],c) 4.6 [m].160. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 3 [m],
b) 3.6 [m],
c) 2.1 [m].161. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category III (cracked rocks) is:
a) 4.6 [m],
b) 4 [m],c) 2.6 [m].162. Traffic safety devices used during work conducted in the road lane may be colored:
a) white, green, blue,b) red, yellow-red, blue,
c) white, red, yellow, and black.
163. Traffic safety devices used to secure and mark the work site in the road lane should be visible:
a) only at night,b) only during the day,
c) during the day and at night.
164. Persons performing work in the area of 2-lane roads and highways should have:
a) flashing lights in orange color,
b) high visibility clothing class III,
c) warning clothing in red color.165. In a situation of danger, when it is not possible to open the cabin doors:
a) one must not leave the cabin until help arrives,b) the space after removing the floor panel can be used as an emergency exit,
c) the emergency exit provided by the manufacturer should be used.
166. In the case of mechanical damage to the FOPS/ROPS cabin (e.g. denting of the cabin element) the operator:
a) can continue working if the cabin windows are intact,b) can repair the damage on their own without wasting time on downtime,
c) should stop working and report the failure to the supervisor or the person responsible in the company for the machines.
167. In the case of mechanical damage to the FOPS/ROPS cabin (e.g. denting of the cabin element) the operator:
a) can always repair such damage on their own,b) can repair such damage on their own, but only based on the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine,
c) cannot repair such damage on their own.
168. If the seat belt is damaged, one should:
a) continue working and report the problem after finishing work,b) exercise special caution while performing work,
c) report the damage and not start working until the belt is repaired or replaced.
169. The operator must wear a safety helmet while operating the machine when:
a) working in a machine not equipped with a closed cabin,
b) working on demolition tasks using long booms,c) frequently leaning out of the cabin while working.170. Entering and exiting the machine should be done:
a) sideways, being careful of the instruments in the cabin,b) backwards to the machine, using a three-step ladder,
c) facing the machine, maintaining three points of contact.
171. Prohibited activities during the operation and maintenance of a machine or technical device are:
a) using machines on rocky ground during heavy rain,b) using machines with safety or signaling devices,
c) operating machines by individuals without appropriate qualifications.
172. The site for earthworks should be:
a) permanently fenced,
b) marked and designated,
c) additionally compacted.173. In the case of ongoing earthworks, the designation of the danger zone involves:
a) conducting work pointwise while maintaining a zone of 6 [m],b) securing and marking the zone of 6 [m] from the machine,
c) securing and marking the entire work area.
174. Visible underground infrastructure devices that provide initial insight into their layout are most often:
a) graphic symbols applied to the road surface,b) abandoned road edges where they pass,
c) hydrant boxes, water shut-off boxes, manhole covers.
175. An operator can work, without the need for prior loosening, in soil:
a) category I,
b) all categories above IV,c) categories V-VIII.176. The minimum distance from the edge of the excavation with supported walls, in which spoil can be stored is:
a) 0.6 [m] from the edge of the excavation, if the spoil load has been taken into account in the selection of the support,
b) 0.3 [m] from the edge of the excavation, without additional conditions,c) directly at the edge of the excavation, if the soil is dry.177. Examples of work classified as preparatory work before starting earthworks may include:
a) preparing the site by removing obstacles, performing control trenches, and marking out the building,
b) purchasing and storing materials and tools necessary for the work,c) daily operation of machines and technical devices.178. The basic methods of dewatering excavations are:
a) mechanical dewatering, natural dewatering, surface dewatering,
b) surface dewatering, deep dewatering, surrounding drainage,
c) extracting water by pumping, manual drying.179. Soils, according to the degree of difficulty in their disintegration, are divided into:
a) 4 categories,
b) 16 categories,
c) 10 categories.180. The operator of the machine should know the category of soil on which he works:
a) to be able to assess the depth of the excavation,b) to know the requirements for operating the machine's chassis,
c) to calculate the safe distance for setting up the machine and the reach of the failure wedge.
181. An example of work classified as preparatory work for earthworks is:
a) performing control trenches, removing trees and shrubs, marking out buildings on site,
b) installing lighting devices and designating places for heavy machines,c) laying asphalt surfaces and installing fences.182. Subsurface drainage consists of:
a) digging ditches around the excavation,
b) lowering the groundwater level using depression wells or needle filters,
c) pumping water from the bottom level of the excavation.183. With a bulldozer, you can directly work on:
a) all soils up to category 5, higher require a ripper,
b) all soils up to category 3, higher require loosening,
c) soils of category 1 and 2, higher are unsuitable for bulldozers.184. The bulldozer, in terms of moving the material, is most characterized by:
a) moving material over short distances, leveling and performing excavations,
b) transporting material over longer distances, loading onto transport vehicles,c) finishing work related to laying bituminous masses.185. Resistance during cutting with bulldozer equipment:
a) remains the same regardless of the cutting angle,b) decreases with a larger cutting angle,
c) increases when the cutting angle is larger.
186. When the soil is more difficult to detach and requires breaks at the "zero" level between subsequent stages, detachment should be applied:
a) combing,
b) stepped,
c) flat.187. Moving the excavated material with a bulldozer will be more effective over greater distances by reducing material loss if we apply the method:
a) terrain,
b) bearing,
c) lateral shift.188. Giving a leveled surface of a specified shape or profile is:
a) compacting the terrain,b) leveling the terrain,
c) profiling the terrain.
189. Flat detachment is used:
a) in soils of category I and II,
b) in all soil categories,c) only in soils of category IV.190. Stepped detachment of soil should be applied:
a) when detaching soil at a great depth without changing the level,
b) when detaching soil at shallow depths, cyclically reducing the depth until the tool is fully filled,
c) exclusively when detaching sand and gravel.191. The basic assumption of the wedge detachment method is that:
a) the plow is gradually raised from a depth of 15-30 [cm] to the "zero" level over a distance of 5-8 [m],
b) the plow is raised every 1 [m] to different depths, without reaching the "zero" level,c) the plow remains at a constant depth throughout the working section.192. The field method of moving the excavated material is based on:
a) the excavated material is transported over greater distances to avoid spilling on the sides of the blade,b) the excavated material is mainly transported using additional safeguards on the blade to prevent spilling,
c) the excavated material moves across the terrain, and after several cycles, piles form on the sides of the blade, which reduces material loss.
193. The bearing method of moving the excavated material involves:
a) moving the excavated material over a hardened surface to reduce the resistance of the blade,
b) creating a flat trench about 0.8 [m] deep, in which the excavated material is moved, which limits material loss on the sides,
c) evenly distributing the excavated material using the oscillating motion of the blade.194. Working with a ripper requiring passes at an angle of 45 [˚] is called:
a) the parallel method,b) the perpendicular method,
c) the rhombus method.
195. During leveling of the terrain with varying soil types, the bulldozer operator should:
a) change the angle of the blade and reduce the moving speed when encountering denser soil,
b) direct the blade upwards and increase the speed in the case of dense soil,c) work constantly with the same blade angle and at full moving speed.196. To reduce cutting resistance, the operator should set a smaller cutting angle for soils:
a) more cohesive,
b) permeable,c) less cohesive.197. A one-time immersion of the blade and reaching level '0' only at the end of the cycle is characteristic of:
a) stepped detachment,b) flat detachment,
c) wedge detachment.
198. The formation of prisms on the sides increasing the efficiency of movement during the transport of material by a bulldozer is characteristic of:
a) transmission method,
b) field method,
c) bearing method.199. The main goal of leveling the terrain is:
a) to create a flat, usually horizontal surface,
b) to compact the soil surface,c) to give the surface a specific shape.200. The bulldozer's plow, during flat detachment, is usually lowered:
a) to the maximum depth of the plow,
b) to a depth of about 10-15 [cm], depending on the type of soil,
c) to a depth of about 20-25 [cm], regardless of the type of soil.201. The comb peeling method consists of:
a) initially sinking the blade of the moldboard, and then gradually raising it without full shallowing, in cycles to fully fill the tool,
b) peeling the soil only to a depth of 5 [cm] with each pass,c) fully shallowing the blade after each sinking.202. The step peeling method consists of:
a) filling the moldboard by deep digging without raising the tool,b) maintaining the plow at one depth throughout the working section,
c) cyclically raising the plow to zero level after each sinking by 10-20 [cm], until the working tool is fully filled.
203. The wedge peeling method is used:
a) when peeling sand, without differentiating the depth of the plow's work,
b) with soils where it is necessary to gradually raise the plow to zero level as it moves along the working section,
c) on hard soils, without the need to change the working depth.204. The efficiency of the field method during the movement of the excavated material can be increased:
a) by reducing the cutting depth, which prevents the excavated material from spilling over the sides of the moldboard,
b) by repeating passes in the same place, creating piles on the sides of the moldboard that reduce the spilling of material,
c) by making passes with a shift relative to the previous one, so that the piles on the sides do not reduce the spilling of material.205. The maximum effective distance for moving excavated material using the bearing method is about:
a) 100 meters,
b) 500 meters,c) 20 meters.206. The main application of a ripper in bulldozers is:
a) transporting materials to the storage site,b) digging deep trenches,
c) loosening the soil and tearing thin layers of asphalt or concrete.
207. The term: "machine efficiency for earthworks" refers to:
a) the level of engine load during the machine's operation in a unit of time,
b) the effect of the machine's work over a unit of time,
c) the amount of fuel consumed by the machine per hour of operation.208. The efficiency of a machine for earthworks can be expressed:
a) in pressure units [bar] or temperature [°C],b) in speed or revolutions per unit of time e.g. [km/h], [rpm], [rev./s],
c) in volume or mass units per unit of time e.g. [m³/h], [t/h].
209. The cutting angle in bulldozer equipment determines:
a) the angle of the blade's position relative to the ground affecting cutting resistance and work efficiency,
b) the angle of inclination of the entire bulldozer in relation to the ground level,c) the angle of the blade's lift above the ground during movement.210. To fill deep narrow trenches while minimizing the risk associated with a wedge of collapse, one should use:
a) intermediate pushing, i.e. dumping the spoil onto another spoil from a safe distance from the edge of the trench,
b) filling by direct entry into the trench,c) direct pushing of the spoil to the edge of the trench.211. Using a smaller cutting angle is recommended:
a) for sandy soils, to increase the cutting depth,b) for less cohesive soils, to facilitate cutting,
c) for more cohesive soils, to reduce cutting resistance.
212. The basic functions (tasks) of a bulldozer are:
a) moving bulk materials over large distances on the ground,
b) loosening and moving soil for leveling the terrain,
c) crushing construction materials for finishing purposes.213. Soil obtained from excavation is called a deposit:
a) when it is used for compacting the terrain,b) regardless of future use,
c) when it is stored for later, e.g., to fill the excavation.
214. Operating a machine with the cabin doors open is allowed:
a) only if the operating and maintenance manual of the machine provides for such a possibility,
b) always,c) only when the air temperature exceeds 25 [°C].215. Disconnecting the working equipment with hydraulic drive from the quick coupler is related to:
a) relieving pressure from the central lubrication system,
b) zeroing the hydraulic system,
c) bleeding the hydraulic system.216. The change in the position of the height of the breakers in the working system is possible thanks to:
a) hydraulic actuators,
b) manual gear transmission,c) the inertia of the breakers.217. The "floating" bucket/blade system:
a) operates on the principle of automatic adjustment to the terrain, which is possible thanks to a special hydraulic system,
b) protects the equipment from loss during drainage works,c) allows the machine to move smoothly on slopes.218. The bulldozer working system allows each bulldozer to work:
a) in at least one working plane,
b) in at least three working planes,c) in at least two working planes.219. The type of interchangeable working equipment used depends on whether:
a) the equipment has a CE certificate,
b) the equipment is approved for use by the machine manufacturer,
c) the machine has undergone a periodic inspection.220. The course of underground infrastructure must be marked before starting work in order to:
a) save time and reduce earthwork costs,
b) avoid the risk of damaging networks during work,
c) allow for quick movement of machines in any direction.221. Which of the listed elements are not part of the hydraulic system:
a) hydraulic lock, hydraulic oil tank,
b) starter, alternator,
c) pump, distributor, actuator.222. The hydraulic lock in a machine is:
a) a valve responsible for controlling the entire hydraulic system,b) the closure of the hydraulic oil inlet at its tank,
c) a valve protecting against uncontrolled movement of the element located in a given line.
223. The change of hydraulic oil pressure into mechanical motion is the responsibility of:
a) hydraulic distributor,
b) hydraulic actuator and hydraulic motor,
c) hydraulic pump system.224. The pressure in the hydraulic system is generated by:
a) hydraulic actuator,
b) hydraulic pump,
c) hydraulic motor.225. Directing the flow of hydraulic oil to individual systems is carried out by:
a) overflow valve,b) hydraulic lock,
c) hydraulic distributor.
226. The safety valve protects the hydraulic system from:
a) air in the hydraulic system,b) overheating of the hydraulic oil,
c) excessive pressure increase.
227. The relief valve in the hydraulic system is responsible for:
a) maintaining a constant position of the working tool,
b) limiting the maximum working pressure in a given circuit,
c) venting the system.228. If the pressure in the hydraulic system increases excessively, the excess oil will be directed to:
a) the hydraulic oil tank,
b) the hydraulic oil filter,c) the distributor.229. The basic parameters that characterize an electric accumulator are:
a) rated voltage [V], capacity [Ah], starting current [A],
b) rated voltage [V], resistance [Ω], power [W],c) rated voltage [V], power [W], weight [kg].230. Lead-acid batteries can be charged:
a) in any room,b) only in an air-conditioned room,
c) in a place specifically designated for this purpose.
231. In a working machine, the brake is most often located:
a) in the operator's cabin, near the driving controller,
b) in the drive system near the driving wheels,
c) in the hydraulic system, close to the main pump.232. The main function of the brake (side gearbox) is:
a) to increase the stability of the machine,
b) to change the torque and transfer the drive to the driving wheels,
c) to reduce fuel consumption.233. The hydraulic distributor:
a) increases the torque in the side gearbox,b) converts mechanical energy into hydraulic energy,
c) directs the flow of hydraulic oil to the appropriate sections.
234. The hydraulic distributor is a device that:
a) allows control of individual hydraulic sections of the machine,
b) distributes oil between the engine and the hydraulic system,c) distributes oil between the small circuit and the large circuit.235. The ROPS cabin in construction machines protects the operator from:
a) crushing in the event of the machine overturning,
b) being hit by falling objects from above,c) dust in the operator's cabin.236. The ROPS cabin in construction machines protects against:
a) the machine overturning,b) the machine falling off a slope and rolling over,
c) crushing the operator in case of the machine overturning.
237. The element of the hydrostatic drive system that converts the mechanical energy of the engine into hydraulic energy is:
a) hydraulic motor or hydraulic actuator,
b) hydraulic oil pump,
c) rotation column.238. The term body in earthmoving machines refers to:
a) the upper part of the machine,
b) the base of the machine,c) the upper part of the machine with the drive system.239. The hydrokinetic transmission (torque converter) in the machine's drive system:
a) smoothly increases the torque as the load increases,
b) allows manual control of the torque transmitted to the drive wheels,c) smoothly decreases the torque as the load increases.240. The smooth increase of torque, depending on the load, is the responsibility of:
a) mechanical gearbox,b) drive shaft with joints,
c) hydrokinetic transmission.
241. Reducing speed while simultaneously increasing the torque transmitted to the drive wheels is achieved by:
a) hydraulic distributor,b) wet brakes,
c) planetary gears.
242. Equipping the bulldozer with a ripper:
a) allows for crushing large rubble and stones,b) increases its traction when working on uneven terrain,
c) enables loosening hard ground.
243. The lifting system and the blade position changing system are crucial for the effective operation of the bulldozer because:
a) they allow for precise positioning of the blade, enabling effective detachment and leveling of the terrain,
b) they provide additional load, increasing pressure on the ground,c) they provide drive to the blade, increasing the detaching force.244. The side walls of the blade in front bulldozers:
a) allow for adjusting the angle of inclination of the blade,
b) increase the volume of the pile,
c) prevent excessive wear of the blade.245. The lifting system in bulldozer working attachments:
a) changes the position of the main frame relative to the ground,
b) allows for adjusting the height of the blade,
c) controls the flow of hydraulic oil in bulldozers with additional attachments.246. ROPS frame damages resulting in the need for replacement are:
a) discoloration of the paint caused by weather conditions and the passage of time,b) minor surface scratches,
c) cracking or bending of the structure.
247. Drilling additional holes in the ROPS cabin structure is prohibited because:
a) it reduces the operator's comfort,b) it decreases the weight of the machine,
c) it causes a decrease in the strength of the structure.
248. The flow and direction of hydraulic fluid in the system are regulated by:
a) hydraulic motors,
b) hydraulic valves,
c) hydraulic pumps.249. Components of the system, such as actuators and hydraulic motors, convert hydraulic energy into:
a) electrical energy,
b) mechanical energy,
c) pressure in the tank.250. A track that is too tightly tensioned can cause:
a) preventing the machine from turning,b) immediate problems with the machine's movement,
c) excessive wear of the chain, drive wheels, and rollers.
251. Too loose a track can result in:
a) greater load on the hydraulic system,b) improved traction when working in marshy terrain,
c) falling off the undercarriage and accelerated wear of pins and drive wheels.
252. The function of the FOPS protective structure is:
a) protection of the operator from the effects of exhaust fumes and noise,
b) protection of the operator from falling objects,
c) protection of the operator from the consequences of the machine overturning.253. The FOPS protective structure must be used when:
a) all earthworks,b) underwater works,
c) works during which heavy elements may fall on the cabin (e.g., demolition works, in quarries, etc.).
254. In a machine equipped with a ROPS or FOPS protective structure, there must be and be used by the operator an additional safety system, which is:
a) protective footwear, hearing protectors, respiratory protection,b) protective helmet, protective footwear,
c) seat belts.
255. The ROPS protective structure in a machine:
a) is not required when it is not technically possible, and there is a low risk of the machine overturning (possibility of support with a boom),b) is not required when only qualified machine operators are employed,
c) is always required.
256. Optimal shock and vibration damping of the operator's seat is ensured by:
a) as flexible a seat adjustment as possible,
b) adjusting the seat to the weight of the operator,
c) setting the seat rigidly.257. Protective equipment that the machine must have during demolition work is:
a) protective canopy – FOPS cabin,
b) device warning against overload and protection against cable breakage on the boom,c) signal lamp and white-red-white safety stickers.258. Mandatory equipment for the operator to observe the area directly behind the machine is:
a) external mirror,
b) rearview camera,c) sound signal when reversing.259. Together with the operator, other people may ride in the machine's cabin if:
a) the machine is moving at a low speed,
b) the manufacturer has installed an additional seat,
c) they have undergone health and safety training with the operator and there are a maximum of 2 people.260. The most important element of the operator's cabin equipment from the perspective of his safety is:
a) mirror or camera,b) emergency STOP button,
c) seat belt.
261. Mirrors and rearview camera in the machine are used for:
a) improving the operator's visibility and increasing safety,
b) checking the technical condition of the machine,c) facilitating the maneuvering of working equipment.262. In ROPS-type cabins, additional equipment such as phone holders can be installed independently:
a) provided that there is no interference with the cabin structure,
b) remembering that installation is only possible on the cabin pillars,c) but this equipment must be permanently screwed to the cabin structure.263. A green flashing light placed on the machine's cabin signals, among other things:
a) the absence of the operator in the cabin,
b) the correct fastening of the seat belts,
c) the machine's eco mode being activated.264. In a parallel connection of two identical batteries, the voltage of such a system is:
a) the sum of the voltages of the individual batteries,
b) equal to the voltage of a single battery,
c) the product of the voltages of the individual batteries.265. In a series connection of two identical batteries, the voltage of such a system is:
a) equal to the voltage of a single battery,b) the product of the voltages of the individual batteries,
c) the sum of the voltages of the individual batteries.
266. Fuses in the electrical installation of the machine protect it from the effects of:
a) short circuits and overloads,
b) low voltage,c) high temperature.267. An alternator is:
a) a three-phase alternating current generator,
b) a single-phase direct current generator,c) a two-phase direct current generator.268. One of the elements of the electrical system protecting the motor from seizing is:
a) main fuse,b) speed controller,
c) engine oil pressure sensor.
269. Gel batteries, which are elements of the electrical system, do not require:
a) charging with a rectifier,
b) electrolyte replenishment,
c) replacement when the housing is damaged.270. Electrical systems of machines and devices should be equipped with a device that causes emergency stop in at least the amount of:
a) three devices causing emergency stop, according to the European machinery directive,
b) one device causing emergency stop, according to the European machinery directive,
c) two devices causing emergency stop placed on both sides of the machine, according to the European machinery directive.271. The emergency stop device of the machine is a component of:
a) the electrical system,
b) the fuel system,c) the drive system.272. The main parameters of the internal combustion engine affecting work efficiency are:
a) type of carburetor, type of ignition system,
b) torque, rotational speed,
c) compression ratio, displacement.273. The crank-piston system of the internal combustion engine is designed to:
a) ensure the effective operation of the clutch,b) convert mechanical energy into hydraulic energy,
c) convert the reciprocating motion of the piston into the rotational motion of the crankshaft.
274. The engine timing system is used for:
a) controlling the filling of the combustion chamber with air or air-fuel mixture and controlling the emptying of this chamber of exhaust gases,
b) damping noise and minimizing engine vibrations during operation,c) ensuring the optimal composition of the fuel-oil-air mixture for combustion.275. Systems present in internal combustion engines include, among others:
a) hydraulic system, intake system,b) exhaust system, pneumatic system, closed system,
c) crank-piston system, fuel supply system, cooling system.
276. The low-pressure part of the diesel engine fuel supply system is:
a) fuel lines, high-pressure pump, common rail,
b) fuel tank, supply pump, filters, fuel lines,
c) fuel tank and injectors.277. The element controlling the flow of coolant in the so-called "large circuit" is:
a) thermocouple,b) hot water bottle,
c) thermostat.
278. An intercooler is:
a) a device for burning solid particles in exhaust gases,b) another name for the engine coolant radiator,
c) an air cooler for turbocharged engines.
279. DPF filter:
a) is a precise cabin filter protecting the operator while working in high dust conditions,b) is used to reduce NOx (nitrogen oxides) emissions,
c) is a dry particulate filter responsible, among other things, for capturing soot from exhaust gases.
280. The frequency and scope of periodic maintenance of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam:
a) is determined by the owner of the machine/technical device,b) is included in the IBWR documentation,
c) is included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine.
281. The operating and maintenance manual for a machine/technical device is:
a) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device,
b) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by the health and safety services on the construction site,c) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device, which includes, among other things, IBWR.282. The operator of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam must not:
a) make any repairs or maintenance,b) during operation, check the technical condition of the machine/technical device,
c) use the machine/technical device contrary to its intended purpose.
283. A symptom of too low a level of hydraulic oil may be:
a) "jerky" intermittent movement of hydraulic actuators,
b) uneven operation of the diesel engine,c) loud operation of the starter.284. If the warning light for too low engine oil pressure comes on, the operator:
a) may continue working if the hydraulic system is functioning properly,
b) should stop working and turn off the engine,
c) does not have to take any action.285. The operating and maintenance manual for a machine/technical device:
a) includes, among other things, information about hazards during the operation of the machine/technical device,
b) is used to record information about faults,c) is established by the owner or user of the machine.286. The CE Declaration of Conformity is a document:
a) in which the manufacturer confirms that its product meets all applicable EU requirements regarding safety, health protection, and the environment,
b) issued by institutions that test machines for resistance to weather conditions,c) confirming that the product was manufactured in the countries of the European Union.287. Information regarding the use of personal protective equipment and ways to limit the occupational risk the operator can find:
a) in the CE Declaration of Conformity,b) in the service book,
c) in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device.
288. The operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device:
a) is created by institutions that conduct testing and accreditation of machine/technical device prototypes before allowing them for serial production,
b) is developed by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device or the entity that places the machine/technical device on the market,
c) is created by the construction manager based on information from the manufacturer.289. The operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device:
a) should be located in the machine or with the technical device, treated as part of the machine/technical device, and be available at all times,
b) does not matter where it is located, the most important thing is that the owner of the machine has it in case of resale of the machine,c) should be located in the office together with the company's documentation and be available in case of inspection.290. Identification data of the machine/technical device:
a) are located on the nameplate of the machine/technical device, additionally they may be in the marking places described in the manual,
b) due to their importance are always printed in red,c) should be noted on the inner side of the protective helmet assigned to the given machine/technical device.291. To minimize the risk of machine/technical device failure, the operator should:
a) perform maintenance activities only when the machine/technical device stops working,b) use the machine/technical device until the failure becomes serious,
c) regularly visually assess the condition of the machine/technical device and report any noticed irregularities.
292. Key activities for the safe technical operation of a machine are:
a) using latex gloves, without the need for other personal protective equipment,
b) securing accessories, covers, and doors against accidental closure and using personal protective equipment,
c) performing technical service without securing working accessories to save time.293. The principles of safe technical servicing of machines are:
a) the machine should be positioned on level ground, working accessories lowered to the ground, engine turned off, and the key removed from the ignition,
b) the engine may remain on to perform service faster, especially if the machine is running idle,c) the machine can be left on sloped terrain, as long as the operator plans a short technical service.294. Breaking in a machine during the initial period of operation is:
a) the process of achieving optimal clearances and even wear of parts,
b) the stage of the machine's operation without load,c) an intensive test of the machine under full load.295. During the break-in of the machine, the operator should pay attention to:
a) limit the machine's load to the level specified in the operating and maintenance manual,
b) always turn off the lubrication systems before work,c) operate at maximum load.296. The operator uses the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine or technical device to:
a) record all faults of the machine or device noticed during operation,
b) learn the technical specifications, health and safety rules, and methods of repairing faults,
c) record the hours worked and fuel consumption of the machine.297. The operational part of the operating and maintenance instructions for the machine or technical device includes:
a) a detailed description of the construction and operation of all elements of the machine/device,
b) instructions regarding, among others, controlling the machine/device,
c) a catalog of spare parts.298. The operating and maintenance instructions must always be present with the machine/device because:
a) it is necessary for periodic technical inspections,b) it minimizes the risk of losing it,
c) its absence may be a reason for the health and safety inspector to disallow the machine from operating.
299. When operating a machine equipped with a hydrokinetic transmission, long slippages should be avoided because:
a) they cause excessive heating of the converter, which can lead to its damage,
b) they can cause leakage and oil spillage from the hydraulic system,c) they reduce the overall power transmitted to the drive system.300. The SAE designation on oil refers to:
a) the viscosity of engine oil, that is, its ability to flow and lubricate,
b) the multi-season qualification of the oil,c) the pressure of the engine oil.301. Oil with the symbol SAE 15W-40 means that:
a) at positive temperature has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40,
b) at negative temperature has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 15W, and at positive temperature of summer oil class SAE 40,
c) at positive temperature has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 15W.302. Oil with the symbol SAE 10W-30 means that:
a) at negative temperature has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W, and at positive temperature of summer oil class SAE 30,
b) at negative temperature has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 30,c) at positive temperature has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W.303. The symbol SAE 10W-30 means:
a) hydraulic oil with specified parameters,b) a mixture of engine oil and hydraulic oil,
c) multi-season engine oil with specified parameters.
304. Engine oil with the symbol SAE 5W-40 means that:
a) at negative temperature has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40,
b) at negative temperature has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 5W, and at positive temperature of summer oil class SAE 40,
c) at positive temperature has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 5W.
305. The symbol of the warning light shown in the graphic means:
a) low engine oil pressure,
b) low engine oil level,
c) low coolant level.
306. The symbol of the warning light shown in the graphic means:
a) low fuel level,b) low coolant level,
c) low engine oil pressure.
307. The symbol of the light shown means:
a) hydraulic oil,
b) engine oil,
c) engine oil filter.
308. The symbol of the light shown means:
a) engine oil level,
b) hydraulic oil level,c) engine coolant level.309. Oils with designations 70W, 85W, 80W-90 are:
a) engine oils,
b) transmission oils,
c) brake oils.310. In case of the need to dismantle the cover/protection for maintenance, it is not allowed to:
a) record such a fact in the documentation,b) reassemble the cover/protection,
c) start working with the device without installing the cover/protection.
311. The lighting of the battery charging control light signals to the operator of the construction machine a failure of:
a) the starter,
b) the V-belt and/or alternator,
c) the battery switch.312. The operator's seat cannot be adjusted when:
a) the seat is turned backwards,
b) the machine is in motion,
c) the engine is not running.313. If during the daily technical service before work the operator notices that one of the windows in the cabin is cracked, then:
a) he should not start working,
b) he may start working if it is not the front window,c) he may start working provided that the window is only cracked and has not "fallen out".314. Before starting work, the operator should:
a) open the windows for better communication,
b) clean the windows by removing snow, ice, and other contaminants,
c) install sun shields on the windows.315. The seat belt should be replaced:
a) after a collision or overturning of the machine,
b) during each periodic service,c) when it has become contaminated.316. When changing hydraulic oils, one should:
a) use only types of oils recommended by the machine manufacturer,
b) use any type of oil,c) always use only biodegradable oils.317. To ensure the technical efficiency of the working machine, one should:
a) operate the machine/technical device only under full load,
b) follow technical service and maintenance according to the operating and maintenance instructions,
c) operate the machine/technical device without exceeding 50% of the permissible load.318. On the construction site, empty containers of lubricants, oil filters, and used oils should be:
a) thrown into any waste container,b) thrown into the mixed waste container,
c) placed in a properly marked hazardous waste container.
319. Stickers (pictograms) located on the machine/technical device serve to:
a) convey important information about safety and the use of the machine/technical device,
b) inform about the prohibition of approaching the machine/technical device,c) indicate places where one can stay without any risk.320. Lubrication points in the machine should be serviced:
a) during all breaks in work,b) always after 10 hours of operation,
c) according to the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine.
321. Engine oil with parameters 5W-50 is:
a) only winter oil,b) only summer oil,
c) multi-season oil.
322. Before starting work on a new type of machine/technical device, the operator should:
a) perform a periodic inspection,b) perform a test run,
c) familiarize themselves with the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine/technical device.
323. OTC service is:
a) daily technical service,
b) temporary technical service,c) round-the-clock technical service.324. The basic types of services are:
a) daily, periodic, warehouse, transport service,
b) visual, active, passive service,c) round-the-clock, multi-season, annual, technological service.325. Batteries, when starting the machine using a supporting battery, should be connected:
a) in series,
b) in parallel,
c) crosswise.326. In the case of electrolyte loss caused by spillage through a cracked battery casing, one should:
a) add electrolyte to the proper level and charge the battery,b) add demineralized water to a level 10 mm above the upper edges of the plates,
c) secure the leak area in terms of environmental protection, and then replace the battery.
327. The activities performed by the operator as part of daily maintenance during work include:
a) cleaning the machine,b) replenishing operating fluids and daily lubrication,
c) auditory control of the machine's operation and observation of indicators.
328. If the manufacturer has provided for operational run-in, it should be carried out:
a) with the load recommended in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device,
b) with the maximum load,c) without load.329. When loading the machine onto the transport vehicle, the operator should:
a) know the maximum speed allowed for the given transport vehicle,b) perform the approach at a speed of at least 5 [km/h],
c) know the permissible angle of inclination of the loading ramps for the given machine.
330. The responsibility for the placement and securing of the machine on the transport vehicle lies with:
a) the owner or the person responsible for the machines in the company,
b) the carrier (e.g., the driver),
c) the machine operator.331. When storing a machine, one must ensure that:
a) no documents of the machine are left in the cabin,
b) there are no leaks of operating fluids,
c) the machine is facing the exit.332. Securing the machine during storage downtime involves:
a) filling the hydraulic oil tank to the top,b) disassembling all filters and protecting them from moisture,
c) cleaning the machine of dirt and corrosion.
333. The rods of hydraulic cylinders, during technical service of the stored machine, should be:
a) protected against corrosion,
b) disassembled and cleaned,c) taken apart and the seals replaced.334. When loading the machine onto the transport vehicle:
a) assistance from a second person is recommended only when loading onto a low-loader trailer,
b) assistance from a second person is recommended,
c) the operator should drive onto the transport vehicle independently.335. The recommended method for loading heavy working machines onto low-loader trailers is:
a) loading using other machines,
b) mechanized loading from the front ramp,
c) loading on ropes.336. During longer storage of the machine, the fuel tank should be:
a) filled to the top to prevent condensation of water vapor inside the tank,
b) empty to avoid fire hazards,c) filled to 1/3 of its capacity and left open.337. During daily operation of the machine, the condition of should be checked:
a) connections and tightness of the hydraulic system,
b) tools and equipment,c) the value of working pressure in the hydraulic system.338. If the machine's engine has not been running for a long time, during daily operation you should:
a) replace the fuel pre-filter,
b) check the oil level and other operating fluids,
c) start the engine and gently increase the RPM to reach the operating temperature faster.339. When charging the battery, a flammable gas is released, which is:
a) sulfur dioxide,b) carbon dioxide,
c) hydrogen.
340. Information regarding faults, their codes, and methods of removal can be found in the document titled:
a) operating and maintenance manual,
b) daily report,c) construction machine book.341. The correct order of connecting the auxiliary battery to the discharged battery in the machine is as follows:
a) machine frame, positive terminal of the battery in the machine, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery,b) negative terminal of the battery in the machine, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, machine frame,
c) positive terminal of the battery in the machine, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, machine frame.
342. In case of electrolyte loss in the battery, one should:
a) refill it with water other than distilled,
b) refill it with distilled or demineralized water,
c) refill it with DOT-3 fluid.343. Checking the charge state of the starting battery 12 [V] by "sparking" poses a risk of:
a) seizing the alternator,
b) explosion of hydrogen escaping from the battery,
c) electric shock from high voltage.344. The scope of daily technical service of the machine does not include:
a) checking and adjusting valve clearances,
b) checking the condition of tires and tire pressure,c) checking the oil level in the engine.345. When cleaning the radiator, to avoid damaging it, one should:
a) keep the compressed air nozzle at an appropriate distance from the radiator,
b) use a strong stream of water under high pressure,c) use sharp tools for cleaning.346. The purpose of lubrication in working machines is:
a) to increase the engine's rotational speed,
b) to reduce friction,
c) to raise the temperature of cooperating elements.347. The most commonly used type of fuses in electrical installations of working machines is:
a) residual current devices,
b) cartridge fuses,
c) automatic fuses.348. The phenomenon of electrostatic discharge during refueling a machine can lead to:
a) fire,
b) poisoning,c) short circuit of the electrical installation.349. In the case of connecting two batteries in parallel with different rated voltages:
a) it may lead to the explosion of the battery with the lower rated voltage,
b) it may lead to the discharge of both batteries,c) thicker cables should be used than with batteries of the same rated voltages.350. The correct way to connect a battery to a charger during charging is:
a) positive terminal of the battery to the negative terminal of the charger, negative terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger,b) positive terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger, negative terminal of the charger to the "ground" of the machine,
c) positive terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger, negative terminal of the battery to the negative terminal of the charger.
351. After connecting the battery, the terminals are lubricated with:
a) graphite grease,
b) technical vaseline,
c) grease containing molybdenum disulfide.352. One of the goals of warehouse management is:
a) repairing damaged machine parts before the next season,
b) protecting the machine from corrosion and other harmful factors during long-term storage,
c) preparing the machine for transport for the future user.353. If during daily technical service the operator notices a leak in the cooling system, they should:
a) top up the coolant and continue working,b) organize fluid and top up to the minimum level if the leak is small,
c) report the leak and not use the machine until it is repaired.
354. The level of coolant in the expansion tank should be checked:
a) only during periodic technical service,b) only in case of engine overheating,
c) during every daily technical service.
355. If the operator notices a hydraulic fluid leak during daily technical service, they should:
a) reduce the RPM and continue working,
b) report the leak and not use the machine until it is repaired,
c) top up the oil and continue working.356. The frequency of performing periodic technical service depends on:
a) the number of hours worked (engine hours),
b) the production date of the machine,c) the number of completed working cycles.357. If during daily technical service the operator notices a low level of engine oil, he should:
a) top up the oil to the appropriate level,
b) continue working if the level is not very low and the warning light is not on,c) top up the level with any available oil, even if it is of a different type.358. A characteristic activity for seasonal technical service is:
a) checking the working pressure value of the hydraulic system,b) checking the charging voltage value,
c) replacing the coolant with one appropriate for the season.
359. The basic service activities that should be performed before starting a diesel engine are:
a) checking the oil level in the gearbox, checking the operation of the working system, checking the operation of the brakes,
b) checking the oil level in the engine, checking the coolant level, checking the condition of the air filter,
c) bleeding the fuel system, checking the level of transmission oil, checking the starter.360. Activities performed as part of daily technical service (OTC) carried out during the operation of the machine include:
a) observing only the control and measurement indicators such as: oil pressure, engine temperature, hydraulic oil temperature,
b) observing control and measurement instruments and monitoring the proper operation of the machine using sight, hearing, and smell,
c) primarily conducting a sensory check of the proper functioning of the machine's working system.361. We distinguish, among others, the following types of technical services:
a) reaching, daily, periodic, seasonal, storage, emergency, night,b) transport, reaching, storage, service-repair (ON), catalog,