Dozers class III
Study mode
Question of 352
1. What is the minimum allowable distance of the machine from the reach of the wedge of the collapse?
a) 0.6 [m],
b) 0.8 [m],c) 0.4 [m].2. The safe distance of the machine from the excavation is:
a) 1.6 [m],
b) the reach of the wedge of the collapse + 0.6 [m],
c) the depth of the excavation + 0.6 [m].
3. Based on the presented table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] made in cohesive soils:
a) 1 [m],
b) 1.6 [m],
c) 2.6 [m].4. Based on the presented table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] made in fractured rocks:
a) 3.6 [m],
b) 4.6 [m],c) 2.6 [m].5. Based on the presented table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] made in slightly cohesive soils:
a) 3.6 [m],
b) 3.1 [m],
c) 2.6 [m]. Bulldozers Class III6. What is the minimum safe distance from the UPPER edge of the embankment that a machine can approach, given the following data: Soil category - I (dry sand), height of the embankment - h = 2 [m], horizontal distance between the upper and lower edges of the embankment - a = 2.5 [m]?
a) 1.1 [m],
b) 0.6 [m],c) 3.6 [m].7. What is the minimum safe distance from the UPPER edge of the embankment that a machine can approach, given the following data: Soil category - II (slightly cohesive soils), height of the embankment - h = 4 [m], horizontal distance between the upper and lower edges of the embankment - a = 2.5 [m]?
a) 0.6 [m],b) 5.6 [m],
c) 3.1 [m].
8. At what horizontal distance from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage not exceeding 1 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 5 [m],
b) not less than 3 [m],
c) not less than 2 [m].9. At what horizontal distance from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 5 [m],
b) not less than 15 [m],c) not less than 10 [m].10. At what horizontal distance from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 10 [m],
b) not less than 15 [m],c) not less than 5 [m].11. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?
a) not less than 15 [m],
b) not less than 10 [m],c) not less than 20 [m].12. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?
a) not less than 10 [m],
b) not less than 30 [m],
c) not less than 15 [m].13. Is it possible to organize workstations in the danger zone under overhead power lines?
a) yes, but only after meeting additional requirements,
b) yes, always,c) no, never.
14. What is the safe distance X for the operation of a machine or technical device under overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [V]?
a) not less than 30 [m],
b) not less than 3 [m],
c) not less than 5 [m].15. What is the safe distance X for the operation of a machine or technical device under overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV]?
a) not less than 15 [m],
b) not less than 5 [m],
c) not less than 10 [m].16. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?
a) no less than 15 [m],b) no less than 30 [m],
c) no less than 10 [m].
17. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?
a) no less than 15 [m],
b) no less than 10 [m],
c) no less than 5 [m].18. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV]?
a) no less than 15 [m],
b) no less than 50 [m],c) no less than 30 [m].19. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV]?
a) no less than 30 [m],
b) no less than 10 [m],
c) no less than 15 [m].20. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]?
a) no less than 30 [m],
b) no less than 40 [m],c) no less than 3 [m].21. Work in the danger zone (overhead high voltage power line):
a) may be carried out provided that the line is disconnected from the voltage, the work is performed in a zone limited by groundings and at least one grounding is visible from the work site,
b) may not be carried out under any circumstances under electrical lines in the danger zone,c) may be carried out provided that permission from the work manager has been granted.22. The operator must perform work at a distance X from the active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [V]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 2 [m],b) 1 [m],
c) 5 [m].
23. The operator must perform work at a distance X from the active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 15 [m],
b) 3 [m],c) 5 [m].24. The operator must perform work at a distance X from the active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 5 [m],
b) 50 [m],
c) 15 [m].25. If the injured person has a detectable pulse but is not breathing, then:
a) do not touch him,
b) clear the airways and start artificial respiration,
c) perform chest compressions.26. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, one should primarily:
a) give the injured medication,b) move away from the accident scene to call a doctor,
c) provide assistance to those in life-threatening situations.
27. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, one should primarily:
a) take care of one's own safety,
b) move away from the accident scene to call a doctor,c) provide assistance to those in life-threatening situations.28. The obligation to provide first aid to accident victims rests with:
a) everyone, as one can always perform part of the rescue tasks,
b) everyone, but there is always a risk of criminal liability for mistakes made,c) only those who have medical training.29. The accident victim regained consciousness after a few minutes and wants to go home. In such a situation, one should:
a) persuade her to stay and call for medical help,
b) allow her to go home, recommending a visit to the doctor,c) give her something to drink and pain relief medication.30. First aid in a situation where a foreign body has entered the eye of the injured person consists of:
a) rinsing with clean water directing the stream from the nose outward from the eye,
b) rinsing with distilled water directing the stream inward to the eye,c) flushing the eye with eye drops.31. The injured person cut their leg on an unsecured sharp element. Providing first aid in this situation is:
a) sticking a plaster directly on the wound,
b) using sterile gauze, wrapping the wound with a bandage,
c) using a tourniquet.32. Suspecting spinal injury in a person who has fallen from a height and is conscious, one should:
a) seat them in a semi-reclining position,
b) not move them and wait for medical services to arrive,
c) lay them in the recovery position.33. To move away from the place where the electric wire has been broken and the area is live, one should:
a) quickly step away from the source of electric shock with large strides, lifting feet high,b) run as fast as possible to a place that we assess as safe,
c) leave the place slowly, taking small steps, trying to maintain continuous contact of feet with the ground.
34. First aid in the case of a first-degree burn is:
a) applying ointment to the burned area,b) applying greasy cream to the burned area,
c) pouring cold water on the burned area.
35. During work, a high-voltage power line was torn down, as a result of which a colleague was electrocuted. In this situation, the correct behavior is:
a) turn off the power source as quickly as possible,
b) approach the injured person to provide first aid,c) call other colleagues for help with the injured person.36. We perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation until:
a) 10 minutes have passed,
b) we have determined that the victim has started breathing and circulation has returned,
c) the fire brigade arrives and secures the area.37. Immediate action in the case of severe bleeding from an injured upper limb includes:
a) lowering the limb below heart level,
b) applying a dressing, directly compressing the bleeding site, and elevating the limb,
c) disinfecting the wound with salicylic alcohol.38. In the case of a nosebleed, one should:
a) tilt the head back and place a cold compress on the neck,b) lay the injured person on their back,
c) lean the bleeding person's head forward and pinch the nostrils.
39. The first step in dealing with a victim of carbon monoxide poisoning in a closed room is:
a) assessing ABC,b) conducting a preliminary examination,
c) the quickest possible evacuation of the victim from that room.
40. First aid during seizures caused by an epileptic attack consists of:
a) placing a wooden object in the victim's mouth to prevent biting the tongue,b) seating the victim in a semi-sitting position and giving them something to drink,
c) protecting the victim's head from injuries.
41. In case of suspected spinal injury in the cervical region in a conscious person, one should:
a) seat the injured person in a chair with a high back,
b) not allow the injured person to move their head,
c) place the injured person in a lateral position.42. The most important thing when a person is buried under earth, sand, or gravel is:
a) waiting for the arrival of the ambulance,
b) locating the injured person,
c) notifying the family.43. First aid for a person with a metal rod embedded in their lower leg involves calling for help and:
a) securing the rod to prevent movement,
b) moving the rod to check if the artery has been damaged,c) removing the embedded rod.44. The indication for using an AED defibrillator is:
a) absence of detectable breath and pulse in the injured person,
b) severe dizziness,c) severe chest pain.45. During the operation of a machine/technical device, the prohibited actions for which you are taking the exam are:
a) performing daily technical service (OTS),
b) making structural changes to the machine/technical device,
c) changing the working tool.46. During the operation of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam, the prohibited activities are:
a) refueling the machine/technical device from a canister,
b) cleaning the machine/technical device using gasoline or solvents whose vapors can create flammable/explosive gas mixtures with air,
c) cleaning the machine/technical device using a product in accordance with the operating and maintenance instructions.47. When performing earthworks with the machine for which you are taking the exam, it is unacceptable to:
a) use the machine's blade at a safe distance from the excavation,
b) position the machine within the reach of the falling wedge,
c) extend the machine's blade towards the excavation.48. When performing earthworks with the machine for which you are taking the exam, it is unacceptable to:
a) use the machine on clay soils at air temperatures above 30°C,b) use the machine on clay soils at air temperatures below -5°C,
c) use the machine on clay soils during heavy rain.
49. When performing works, it is unacceptable to:
a) work near active overhead power lines at a distance less than specified by regulations,b) work near an active power line with a rated voltage of 10 [kV] at a distance of 10 [m],
c) work near an active power line with a rated voltage of 20 [kV] at a distance of 15 [m].
50. When performing works, it is unacceptable to:
a) allow people to be near the machine during technical servicing,
b) allow people to be at a distance greater than the sum of the maximum reach of the working tool plus 6 meters,c) allow people to be within the reach of the machine's working tool.51. The machine/technical device you are taking the exam for can only be operated by:
a) any adult person with a technical education and a driving license of the appropriate category,b) a person with written confirmation of course completion in the form of a plastic card,
c) a person who has completed training and obtained a positive result from the test conducted by the commission appointed by the Łukasiewicz Research Network – Warsaw University of Technology.
52. The qualifications to operate the machines/technical devices you are taking the exam for are issued by:
a) The Office of Technical Inspection (UDT),
b) The Łukasiewicz Research Network - Warsaw University of Technology (SBŁ - WIT),
c) The County Starosty relevant to the address of the person applying for the qualifications.53. The qualifications to operate the machines/technical devices you are taking the exam for:
a) are valid for 5 years from the date of issue,b) are valid for 10 years from the date of issue,
c) are valid indefinitely.
54. A person holding qualifications to operate: "Bulldozer class III" can operate based on them:
a) bulldozers with an engine power of up to 110 [kW],
b) bulldozers with an engine power above 110 [kW],c) all bulldozers regardless of engine power.55. An employee operating the machine/technical device you are taking the exam for can start working provided that:
a) they have a valid category D driving license,b) the machine/technical device has a valid UDT inspection,
c) they have qualifications to operate this type of machine/technical device.
56. In the event of a threat to life, health, property, or the environment caused by a machine/technical device failure, the operator:
a) continues working but informs the supervisor about the situation at the end of the shift,
b) immediately stops working and informs the supervisor about this fact,
c) continues working but makes an appropriate entry in the maintenance book at the end of the shift.57. Lifting and transporting people using working equipment:
a) is possible, but only outside the public road area,
b) is always prohibited,
c) requires the consent of the construction manager.58. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam has the right to refuse to work when:
a) this work requires special psychophysical fitness, and his psychophysical state does not ensure its safe performance and poses a threat to others,
b) he has the required personal protective equipment,c) there is an overhead power line with a rated voltage of 110 [kV] at a distance of 35 meters.59. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is obliged to stop working when:
a) the work he is performing poses an immediate threat to the health or life of others,
b) he has the required personal protective equipment,c) there is an overhead power line at a distance of 35 meters.60. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is obliged to:
a) independently perform all current repairs of the machine/technical device,
b) comply with the instructions for operation and use of the machine/technical device,
c) always have a category B driving license.61. The person directly responsible for the safe operation of the machine you are taking the exam for is:
a) machine operator,
b) machine owner,c) construction manager.62. The operator's book and qualifications for the machine/technical device you are taking the exam for are issued by:
a) Łukasiewicz Research Network - Warsaw Institute of Technology,
b) Transport Technical Supervision (TDT),c) Technical Supervision Office (UDT).63. The obligation to use personal protective equipment:
a) arises from the operating and maintenance instructions and health and safety regulations,
b) arises only from internal regulations,c) does not apply on hot days.64. An employee who witnesses an accident at work:
a) is obliged to provide assistance to the victims and then immediately leave the accident site,b) it is enough to notify the supervisor,
c) is obliged to provide assistance to the victims, notify the supervisor, and if necessary secure the accident site.
65. What elements of the machine you are taking the exam for protect the operator in case of the machine overturning:
a) certified safety helmet and reflective vest,b) machine seat,
c) ROPS type machine cabin and seat belts.
66. In the event of loss of stability of a machine equipped with a ROPS cabin, the operator should:
a) quickly turn left and raise the working equipment as high as possible,b) try to leave the cabin as quickly as possible (before the machine tips over),
c) maintain a seated position while holding on tightly to the steering wheel or other stable elements in the cabin.
67. In the event of loss of stability of a machine equipped with a ROPS cabin, the operator should:
a) stay in the cabin,
b) immediately jump out of the cabin,c) turn on the warning/emergency lights.68. The danger zone is defined as:
a) a place where work requiring specialized equipment is carried out, and the presence of people is only allowed at night,
b) a place where there are threats to the health and life of people,
c) a place where workers must only wear safety helmets.69. The area that the operator should check and secure before starting work with the machine/technical device (because there are threats to the health and life of people) is called:
a) blind spot,
b) danger zone,
c) area of increased risk.
70. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:
a) "turn the machine",b) "lower down",
c) "raise up".
71. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "raise up",b) "rotate the machine",
c) "lower down".
72. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "raise up",
b) "movement in the indicated direction",
c) "rotate the machine".
73. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "rotate the machine",
b) "movement in the indicated direction",
c) "raise up".
74. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "stop",
b) "horizontal distance",
c) "end of operation".
75. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "move backward",
b) "move forward",
c) "fast movement".
76. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "move forward",
b) "move backward",
c) "slow movement".
77. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "stop",
b) "vertical distance",
c) "end of operation".
78. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "horizontal distance",b) "move backward",
c) "STOP. Emergency stop".
79. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "move backward",
b) "START. Beginning of direction",
c) "STOP. Emergency stop".
80. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "STOP. Break - end of movement",
b) "STOP. Emergency stop",c) "move backward".
81. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "lower down",
b) "END. Stop operation",
c) "horizontal distance".82. During the charging of batteries, a gas with highly explosive properties is released. This gas is:
a) hydrogen,
b) methane,c) ethane.83. Firefighting foam can be used to extinguish fires of group:
a) A and B,
b) only C,c) C and D.84. Improper use of a snow extinguisher can result in:
a) frostbite caused by the extinguishing agent,
b) fainting,c) burns from the extinguisher components.85. Water, fire blanket, powder extinguisher, carbon dioxide, sand are extinguishing agents that we will use to extinguish:
a) solid bodies,
b) oils,c) liquids.86. Sorbents can be called:
a) petroleum substances,b) fire blankets,
c) materials made of natural or synthetic substances that absorb liquids.
87. Group A fires concern:
a) flammable liquids,
b) solid materials whose normal combustion occurs with the formation of glowing coals, e.g. wood, paper, etc.,
c) flammable gases.88. Group B fires concern:
a) flammable gases,
b) liquids and solid materials that melt, e.g. plastics, fuels, oils, etc.,
c) metals, e.g. magnesium, sodium, potassium, aluminum, titanium, etc..89. Group C fires concern:
a) flammable liquids,b) solid materials,
c) gases, e.g. methane, propane, acetylene, hydrogen.
90. Seeing such a pictogram you are informed about:
a) a larger number of people in a given area,
b) the assembly point during evacuation,
c) the danger zone.
91. During work, you noticed a sign marked "Zone 0". It informs about:
a) a space where an explosive atmosphere occurs,
b) a zone of existing fire load in the building,c) a zone of existing fire hazard category.
92. The presented pictogram informs about:
a) internal hydrant,
b) set of fire protection equipment,
c) main power switch.
93. Seeing such a pictogram, you are informed about:
a) the assembly point during evacuation,b) the location of first aid,
c) the emergency exit.
94. Seeing such a pictogram, you are informed about:
a) the prohibition of using the fire extinguisher,
b) the location of the fire extinguisher,
c) the high temperature affecting the fire extinguisher.95. You see a person whose clothing is on fire and who, in panic, is running away. Your reaction is:
a) you try to stop him, lay him on the ground, and start extinguishing,
b) you tell him to wait in an upright position for the arrival of rescue services,c) you wave your arms or outer covering strongly next to him to extinguish the burning clothing.96. Electrical devices and installations can be extinguished using:
a) water,
b) powder or snow extinguishers,
c) foam extinguishers.97. Burning fuel can be extinguished using:
a) water,
b) powder, foam or snow extinguishers,
c) low-octane ethylene.98. Clothing burning on a person can be extinguished using:
a) snow or powder extinguisher,
b) water mist extinguisher or fire blanket,
c) plastic material.99. What obligations does an employee have when they decide to refrain from work due to health and safety regulations?
a) They have no obligations in this situation,
b) They must immediately notify their supervisor,
c) They should organize work for others.100. How can an operator prevent hazards in the workplace?
a) By not reporting faults in machines,b) By ignoring health and safety rules,
c) By using personal protective equipment to minimize risk.
101. It is not permissible to position the workplace directly under active overhead power lines or at a horizontal distance from the outermost wires of less than:
a) for lines: 1 [kV] - 3 [m], 15 [kV] - 5 [m], 30 [kV] - 10 [m], 110 [kV] - 15 [m], 400 [kV] - 30 [m],
b) for all voltages - 1 [m] from the power line,c) for lines: 1 [kV] - 1 [m], 15 [kV] - 3 [m], 30 [kV] - 5 [m], 110 [kV] - 10 [m].102. How does the operator know what personal protective equipment is required for a given machine/technical device?
a) The operator must independently choose the appropriate protective measures,
b) Information about the necessary personal protective equipment is included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine,
c) The choice of personal protective equipment depends on the opinion of colleagues at work.103. The operator should refuse to perform a task when:
a) the work requires familiarization with the location of underground and above-ground utilities,b) the work is being performed at night,
c) the work is inconsistent with the intended use of the machine/technical device.
104. The operator can prevent hazards during the operation of the machine/technical device by:
a) inattention and routine,b) limiting the use of personal protective equipment,
c) adhering to health and safety rules and following the operating instructions.
105. Which of the situations listed is unacceptable during the use of the machine/technical device?
a) Operating the machine without supervision,
b) Unauthorized persons being in the danger zone caused by the operation of the machine/technical device,
c) Reporting faults directly to the supervisor.106. An accident at work is considered:
a) a sudden event related to the work performed, caused by an external factor, resulting in injury or death,
b) a sudden event unrelated to the work performed, caused by an external factor, resulting in injury or death,c) a prolonged event related to the work performed, caused by an internal factor, resulting in equipment damage.107. A fatal accident at work is considered to be an accident in which death occurred:
a) within a period not exceeding 6 months from the date of the accident,
b) only at the moment of the accident,c) after a period exceeding 6 months from the date of the accident.108. It is prohibited to:
a) operate a machine after completing training and obtaining the appropriate qualifications,b) report noticed defects to the supervisor before starting work,
c) allow unauthorized persons within the reach of the machine's operation and work on slopes exceeding the permissible incline.
109. When getting on and off the machine, it is prohibited to:
a) use the control lever as support,
b) intensively use the handrails and steps,c) face the machine while getting on and off.110. Health and safety regulations require:
a) securing the working machine during breaks in its operation against accidental start-up by unauthorized persons,
b) scrapping the old working machine within the time specified in its operating and maintenance manual, while adhering to the requirements for the disposal of hazardous materials,c) performing a warranty inspection of the working machine before the end of one year from its purchase.111. In the case of a person being electrocuted:
a) do not touch the victim until the power source is disconnected,
b) it is recommended to use any tools to disconnect the power, regardless of their actual purpose,c) immediate resuscitation should be started, regardless of whether the power source has been disconnected.112. In the case of a person being buried under earth or sand:
a) they should be dug out as quickly as possible, if it is safe for the rescuer,
b) they should be dug out as quickly as possible regardless of one's own safety - it's about their life,c) we always calmly wait for rescue services - any attempt to help would be too dangerous.113. Seeing a person whose clothes are on fire, the first thing to do is:
a) cut off the air supply by rolling the victim or wrapping them in a fire blanket, wet clothing, or a wet blanket,
b) use a fire extinguisher, preferably a snow one, to extinguish the burning clothing, and then try to quickly remove the melted clothing,c) leave the victim standing to facilitate air access and extinguish the flames faster.114. If during earthworks unidentified objects are discovered, then:
a) a danger zone with a radius of 6 [m] should be designated, outside of which normal work can continue,b) earthworks can continue if a distance of at least 1 [m] is maintained from such an object,
c) further work is stopped and the supervising person for the earthworks is notified.
115. In the case of finding an unexploded ordnance during earthworks, one should:
a) try to carefully remove the unexploded ordnance from the work area and continue working,
b) stop work, remove other workers from the danger area, notify superiors, and secure the area,
c) ignore the unexploded ordnance if it does not pose an immediate threat.116. Wedge of soil collapse:
a) it is the area around the working machine extending to a distance of 6 [m] beyond its farthest reach,
b) it occurs when the slope of the embankment exceeds the angle of the natural slope of the soil,
c) it occurs only when the soil is in a frozen state.117. Range of the wedge of soil collapse:
a) depends on the depth of the excavation and the category of the soil,
b) depends solely on the temperature of the soil,c) depends on the speed of the machine's operation and the efficiency of the operator.118. The angle of the natural slope is:
a) the angle at which the machine can be safely operated - it depends on the parameters of the given machine,b) the angle at which the soil will definitely collapse by itself - it depends solely on the temperature of that soil,
c) the maximum slope at which the soil can remain without collapsing - it depends, among other things, on the category of the soil.
119. Wedge of soil collapse:
a) it is the zone where the soil becomes unstable - its range depends solely on the depth of the excavation, the type of soil does not matter here,
b) it occurs when the slope of the embankment exceeds the angle of the natural slope of the soil - its range depends on the type of soil and the depth of the excavation or the height of the embankment,
c) it is the space around the machine, dependent on the speed of the machine's operation and its weight.120. The angle of the natural slope is:
a) the angle at which the machine can safely move on the embankment, regardless of the category of the soil,b) the slope at which any embankment becomes unstable, regardless of the type of soil,
c) the maximum slope at which the soil can remain without collapsing - it depends on the type of soil, e.g., moisture, cohesion, and grain size.
121. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is performed:
a) when the injured person is breathing but unconscious and unresponsive,
b) when the injured person is not breathing and there is no detectable pulse. For a non-professional rescuer, the absence of breathing is a sufficient basis to start resuscitation,
c) only in the case of fainting and minor injuries to improve blood circulation.122. An employee has the right to refrain from performing work due to health and safety regulations, notifying their supervisor immediately if:
a) the working conditions do not pose a threat, but are too difficult for them,b) the work they are performing has not been reported to the construction supervision,
c) the working conditions pose a direct threat to health or life.
123. Physical factors generating hazards in the workplace are:
a) spilled lubricants, oils, and fuels,
b) lack of appropriate medical examinations for the employee,c) lack of or inadequate training for employees.124. Working with a machine/technical device is not allowed when:
a) its repair was carried out after dark,b) the second operator did not report an upcoming inspection,
c) it is malfunctioning.
125. Working near overhead power lines:
a) always requires the power in the line to be turned off,
b) is possible without meeting additional requirements provided that specific distances depending on the rated voltage of the line are maintained,
c) always requires double grounding of the line.126. The operator is obliged to refuse to start work if:
a) the working machine is faulty,
b) there is no construction manager or any other authorized person for supervision at the work site,c) he would have to work under power lines, and the voltage in them has been turned off and the line grounded.127. The danger zone from a machine/technical device is:
a) a place where the machine/device cannot be used,b) always the entire fenced construction site,
c) a place where there are threats to the health or life of people.
128. Accidents at work resulting from the poor technical condition of the working machine may involve, for example:
a) injury to a limb, torso, or head,
b) failure of the drive system,c) damage to the equipment.129. Unacceptable behaviors are:
a) operating a faulty machine and working under the influence of alcohol,
b) working after dark in a well-lit place, with full concentration of the operator,c) performing daily maintenance of the machine after dark.130. General rules for safely getting on and off the machine are:
a) a person should face the machine, remember the "three-point support" principle, and use only specially made steps and handrails,
b) using cables and levers as aids when getting on is permissible when the machine is turned off,c) one can step down backward from the machine, but only when the steps are slippery.131. Basic duties of an employee in the field of OHS are:
a) not being late for work, finishing it on time, confirming presence at work in the manner accepted by the employer,
b) adhering to OHS regulations and rules, taking care of the condition of machines and tools, and maintaining order in the workplace, using personal protective equipment,
c) enforcing the provisions of the labor code regarding their rights, including payment for overtime worked.132. In the case of a person electrocuted, after disconnecting the power source, one should:
a) move the injured person to another place as quickly as possible,
b) check the condition of the injured person, and if necessary: call for help, clear the airways, perform resuscitation, and use an AED if available,
c) leave the injured person alone if they have regained consciousness, without further actions.133. When a person buried in earth or sand is partially dug out, one should:
a) quickly dig out the left hand to check for a pulse,b) focus on digging out the lower parts of the injured person's body,
c) quickly clear the airways.
134. After extinguishing flames on a person with burns and calling for help, one should:
a) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes, without tearing off the melted clothing,
b) use a snow extinguisher to cool the burn area,c) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes, first tearing off the melted clothing.
135. Seeing such a pictogram, you are informed about:
a) a place to perform AED,b) a place where a first aid kit is available,
c) a place where an external automatic defibrillator is available.
136. Properly performed cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) consists of:
a) connecting an external automatic defibrillator (AED) and following its instructions; CPR is not performed without AED,b) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 30-60 times per minute to a depth of 1–3 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 15 compressions (breaths are mandatory),
c) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 100-120 times per minute to a depth of 5–6 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 30 compressions (breaths are not mandatory).
137. The material must not be stored in the natural wedge zone of the ground collapse:
a) when the excavation is deeper than 1.5 [m] regardless of its support,
b) when the walls of the excavation are unsupported,
c) always when the soil is sandy.138. The abbreviation IBWR stands for:
a) Instruction for Non-Failure Execution of Works,b) Instruction for Non-Failure Execution of Works,
c) Instruction for Safe Execution of Works.
139. Expand the abbreviation IBWR:
a) Implementation of Non-Failure Execution of Works,
b) Instruction for Safe Execution of Works,
c) Information on Safe Execution of Works.140. The BIOZ plan means:
a) plan for Safety and Health Protection,
b) plan for Safe Health Protection Instruction,c) plan for Safety and Resource Specification.
141. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 1.6 [m],
b) 1 [m],
c) 4 [m].142. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 1.6 [m],b) 1 [m],
c) 1.5 [m].
143. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 0.5 [m],
b) 1.6 [m],c) 1 [m].144. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 2 [m],
b) 1 [m],
c) 1.6 [m].145. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 1.6 [m],
b) 2 [m],
c) 1 [m].146. The reach of the wedge of the block for an excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 3 [m],
b) 2 [m],c) 1 [m].147. The reach of the wedge of the block for an excavation with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 3 [m],
b) 4 [m],
c) 2.6 [m].148. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 1.6 [m],
b) 1 [m],c) 2.6 [m].149. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 2.1 [m],
b) 6.6 [m],c) 3.6 [m].150. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 2.6 [m],
b) 4.6 [m],c) 2 [m].151. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 1.1 [m],
b) 2 [m],c) 2.6 [m].152. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 2.6 [m],
b) 1.6 [m],
c) 2 [m].153. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 2.6 [m],
b) 2 [m],c) 4.6 [m].154. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 3 [m],b) 2.1 [m],
c) 3.6 [m].
155. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 2.6 [m],
b) 4.6 [m],
c) 4 [m].156. Traffic safety devices used during work carried out in the road strip may be colored:
a) white, red, yellow, and black,
b) white, green, blue,c) red, yellow-red, blue.157. Traffic safety devices used to secure and mark the work site in the road strip should be visible:
a) only during the day,b) only at night,
c) during the day and at night.
158. In a situation of danger, when the cabin doors cannot be opened:
a) one must not leave the cabin until help arrives,
b) one should use the emergency exit provided by the manufacturer,
c) the space after removing the floor panel can be used as an emergency exit.159. In the case of mechanical damage to the FOPS/ROPS cabin (e.g., denting of a cabin element) the operator:
a) should stop working and report the failure to the supervisor or the person responsible in the company for machines,
b) can repair the damage on their own without wasting time on downtime,c) can continue working if the cabin windows are intact.160. In the case of mechanical damage to the FOPS/ROPS cabin (e.g., denting of a cabin element) the operator:
a) cannot repair such damage on their own,
b) can always repair such damage on their own,c) can repair such damage on their own, but only based on the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine.161. If the seat belt is damaged, you should:
a) exercise special caution while working,
b) report the damage and not start work until the belt is repaired or replaced,
c) continue working and report the problem after finishing work.162. The operator must wear a safety helmet while operating the machine when:
a) working on demolition tasks using long booms,
b) working in a machine not equipped with a closed cabin,
c) frequently leaning out of the cabin while working.163. You should enter and exit the machine:
a) backwards to the machine, using a three-step ladder,
b) facing the machine, maintaining three points of contact,
c) entering sideways while being careful of the devices in the cabin.164. Prohibited activities during the operation and servicing of the machine or technical device are:
a) using machines with safety or signaling devices,b) using machines on rocky ground during heavy rain,
c) operating machines by individuals without appropriate qualifications.
165. The site for earthworks should be:
a) permanently fenced,
b) marked and designated,
c) additionally compacted.166. In the case of ongoing earthworks, the designation of the danger zone consists of:
a) securing and marking the zone 6 [m] from the machine,
b) securing and marking the entire work area,
c) conducting work pointwise while maintaining the zone 6 [m].167. Visible underground infrastructure devices that provide preliminary insight into their course are most often:
a) hydrant boxes, water shut-off boxes, manholes,
b) graphic symbols marked on the road surface,c) abandoned road edges where they pass.168. The operator can work without the need for prior loosening in soil:
a) category V-VIII,
b) category I,
c) all categories above IV.169. The minimum distance from the edge of the excavation with supported walls, in which spoil can be stored, is:
a) directly at the edge of the excavation if the soil is dry,b) 0.3 [m] from the edge of the excavation, without additional conditions,
c) 0.6 [m] from the edge of the excavation if the spoil load has been taken into account in the selection of the support.
170. Examples of work classified as preparatory work before starting earthworks may include:
a) purchasing and storing materials and tools necessary for the work,
b) preparing the area by removing obstacles, performing control trenches, and marking out the construction,
c) daily operation of construction machines and technical devices.171. Humus is:
a) the outer layer of soil rich in humus,
b) a deeper layer of earth, usually reaching a thickness of up to 1 [m],c) a mineral used for stabilizing the substrate.172. The basic methods of dewatering excavations are:
a) extracting water through pumping, manual drying,b) mechanical dewatering, natural dewatering, surface dewatering,
c) surface dewatering, deep dewatering, encircling drainage.
173. Soils, according to the degree of difficulty in their detachment, are divided into:
a) 10 categories,
b) 16 categories,
c) 4 categories.174. The operator of the machine should know the category of soil on which he works:
a) to be able to assess the depth of the excavation,
b) to calculate the safe distance for setting up the machine and the reach of the failure wedge,
c) to know the requirements for operating the machine's chassis.175. An example of work classified as preparatory work for earthworks is:
a) laying asphalt pavement and installing fences,
b) performing control trenches, removing trees and shrubs, marking buildings on the site,
c) installing lighting devices and designating places for heavy machines.176. Removing humus is:
a) work performed always after the completion of construction works,
b) it is one of the stages of preparatory works,
c) the main stage of earthworks.177. Subsurface drainage consists of:
a) pumping water from the bottom level of the excavation,
b) lowering the groundwater level using depression wells or needle filters,
c) digging trenches around the excavation.178. With a bulldozer, you can directly excavate:
a) soils of category 1 and 2, higher ones are unsuitable for bulldozers,
b) all soils up to category 3, higher ones require loosening,
c) all soils up to category 5, higher ones require a ripper.179. The bulldozer, in terms of moving the excavated material, is most characterized by:
a) finishing works related to laying bituminous materials,b) transporting material over longer distances, loading onto transport means,
c) moving material over short distances, leveling, and performing excavations.
180. Resistance during cutting with bulldozer equipment:
a) increases when the cutting angle is larger,
b) remains the same regardless of the cutting angle,c) decreases with a larger cutting angle.181. When the ground is more difficult to detach and requires breaks at the "zero" level between subsequent stages, detachment should be applied:
a) combing,b) flat,
c) stepped.
182. Moving the excavated material with a bulldozer will be more effective over greater distances by reducing material loss if we apply the method:
a) bearing,
b) lateral shift,c) terrain.183. Creating a leveled surface of a given shape or profile is:
a) ground compaction,b) land leveling,
c) terrain profiling.
184. For effective backfilling of shallow narrow-space excavations, when the excavated material is small and the blade is not fully filled, the following should be applied:
a) backfilling with the blade at an angle of 90 [°] to the excavation,
b) approach at an angle of 45 [°] with the blade positioned head-on,
c) parallel approach with the blade positioned head-on.185. Flat detachment is used:
a) in soils of category I and II,
b) in all soil categories,c) only in soils of category IV.186. Stepwise soil detachment should be applied:
a) only when detaching sand and gravel,
b) when detaching soil at shallow depths, cyclically reducing the depth until the tool is fully filled,
c) when detaching soil at great depth without changing the level.187. The basic assumption of the wedge detachment method is that:
a) the plow remains at a constant depth throughout the working section,
b) the plow is gradually raised from a depth of 15-30 [cm] to the "zero" level over a distance of 5-8 [m],
c) the plow is raised every 1 [m] to different depths, without reaching the "zero" level.188. The field method of moving the excavated material is based on:
a) the excavated material moves across the terrain, and after several cycles, piles form on the sides of the blade, which reduces material loss,
b) the excavated material is transported over greater distances to avoid spilling on the sides of the blade,c) the excavated material is mainly moved using additional safeguards on the blade to prevent spilling.189. The bearing method of moving the excavated material involves:
a) moving the excavated material over a hardened surface to reduce the resistance of the blade,b) evenly distributing the excavated material using the swinging motion of the blade,
c) creating a flat trench about 0.8 [m] deep, in which the excavated material is moved, which limits material loss on the sides.
190. Working with a ripper requiring passes at an angle of 45 [˚] is called:
a) diamond method,
b) parallel method,c) perpendicular method.191. During leveling of the terrain with varying soil types, the operator of the bulldozer should:
a) direct the blade upwards and increase the speed in the case of compacted soil,b) work constantly with the same blade angle and at full movement speed,
c) change the blade angle and reduce the movement speed when encountering more compacted soil.
192. To reduce cutting resistance, the operator should set a smaller cutting angle for soils:
a) more cohesive,
b) permeable,c) less cohesive.193. A one-time lowering of the blade and returning to level '0' only at the end of the cycle is characteristic of:
a) flat stripping,b) stepped stripping,
c) wedge stripping.
194. The formation of prisms on the sides increasing the efficiency of movement during the transport of material by the bulldozer is characteristic of:
a) bearing method,b) gear method,
c) field method.
195. The main goal of leveling the terrain is:
a) giving the surface a specific shape,
b) creating a flat, usually horizontal surface,
c) compacting the soil surface.196. Shallow excavations can be effectively backfilled in one pass with a bulldozer:
a) with very shallow excavations and the blade set at an angle,
b) with narrow space excavations backfilled at an angle of 90 [°],c) with deep excavations and a front blade.197. The bulldozer's plow, during flat excavation, is usually lowered:
a) to a depth of about 10-15 [cm], depending on the type of soil,
b) to the maximum depth of the plow,c) to a depth of about 20-25 [cm], regardless of the type of soil.198. The combing excavation method involves:
a) fully retracting the blade after each immersion,b) excavating the soil only to a depth of 5 [cm] with each pass,
c) initially immersing the blade of the scraper, and then gradually raising it without full retraction, in cycles until the tool is fully filled.
199. The stepped excavation method involves:
a) maintaining the plow at one depth throughout the working section,
b) cyclically raising the plow to the zero level after each immersion of 10-20 [cm], until the working tool is fully filled,
c) filling the blade by deep digging without raising the tool.200. The wedge excavation method is used:
a) on hard soils, without the need to change the working depth,b) when excavating sand, without varying the depth of the plow's work,
c) on soils where it is necessary to gradually raise the plow to the zero level as it moves along the working section.
201. The efficiency of the field method during the movement of excavated material can be increased by:
a) by making passes with a shift relative to the previous one, so that the piles on the sides do not reduce the material spilling,
b) by repeating passes in the same place, creating piles on the sides of the blade, which reduce the spilling of material,
c) by reducing the cutting depth, which prevents the spilling of excavated material on the sides of the blade.202. The maximum effective distance for moving excavated material using the bearing method is about:
a) 100 meters,
b) 500 meters,c) 20 meters.203. The main application of a ripper in bulldozers is:
a) loosening the ground and tearing thin layers of asphalt or concrete,
b) transporting materials to the storage site,c) digging deep trenches.204. The term: "efficiency of a machine for earthworks" refers to:
a) the amount of fuel consumed by the machine per hour of operation,
b) the effect of the machine's work over a unit of time,
c) the level of engine load during the machine's operation over a unit of time.205. The efficiency of a machine for earthworks can be expressed:
a) in units of speed or revolutions per unit of time e.g. [km/h], [rpm], [rev/s],
b) in units of volume or mass per unit of time e.g. [m³/h], [t/h],
c) in pressure units [bar] or temperature [°C].206. The basic functions (tasks) of a bulldozer are:
a) loosening and moving soil to level the terrain,
b) moving bulk materials over large distances on the ground,c) crushing construction materials for finishing purposes.207. Soil obtained from excavation is called a spoil:
a) regardless of future use,b) when it is used for compacting the terrain,
c) when it is stored for later, e.g., to fill the excavation.
208. You can operate a machine with the cabin doors open:
a) only if the operating and maintenance manual of the machine provides for such a possibility,
b) only if the air temperature exceeds 25 [°C],c) always.209. Disconnecting the working equipment with hydraulic drive from the quick coupler is related to:
a) relieving pressure from the central lubrication system,
b) zeroing the hydraulic system,
c) bleeding the hydraulic system.210. Changing the position of the height of the rippers in the working system is possible thanks to:
a) hydraulic cylinders,
b) the inertia force of the rippers,c) a manual gear transmission.211. The "floating" spoon/blade system:
a) allows the machine to move smoothly on slopes,
b) works on the principle of automatically adapting to the terrain, which is possible thanks to a special hydraulic system,
c) protects the equipment from loss during drainage works.212. The bulldozer working system allows each bulldozer to work:
a) in at least two working planes,b) in at least three working planes,
c) in at least one working plane.
213. The type of interchangeable working equipment used depends on whether:
a) the equipment is approved for use by the machine manufacturer,
b) the machine has undergone a periodic inspection,c) the equipment has a CE certificate.214. The course of underground land development must be marked before starting work in order to:
a) save time and reduce earthwork costs,
b) avoid the risk of damaging networks during work,
c) allow for quick movement of machines in any direction.215. Which of the listed elements are not part of the hydraulic system:
a) hydraulic lock, hydraulic oil tank,b) pump, distributor, actuator,
c) starter, alternator.
216. The hydraulic lock in a machine is:
a) a valve protecting against uncontrolled movement of the element located in a given line,
b) a valve responsible for controlling the entire hydraulic system,c) the closure of the hydraulic oil inlet at its reservoir.217. The change of hydraulic oil pressure into mechanical movement is caused by:
a) hydraulic distributor,
b) hydraulic actuator and hydraulic motor,
c) hydraulic pump system.218. Pressure in the hydraulic system is generated by:
a) hydraulic actuator,b) hydraulic motor,
c) hydraulic pump.
219. Directing the flow of hydraulic oil to individual systems is carried out by:
a) hydraulic lock,
b) hydraulic distributor,
c) relief valve.220. The safety valve protects the hydraulic system from:
a) overheating of hydraulic oil,
b) excessive pressure increase,
c) air in the hydraulic system.221. The relief valve in a hydraulic system is responsible for:
a) maintaining a constant position of the working tool,b) venting the system,
c) limiting the maximum working pressure in a given circuit.
222. If the pressure in the hydraulic system rises excessively, the excess oil will be directed to:
a) the hydraulic oil filter,b) the distributor,
c) the hydraulic oil tank.
223. The basic parameters that characterize an electric accumulator are:
a) rated voltage [V], power [W], weight [kg],
b) rated voltage [V], capacity [Ah], starting current [A],
c) rated voltage [V], resistance [Ω], power [W].224. Lead-acid batteries can be charged:
a) in any room,b) only in an air-conditioned room,
c) in a place specifically designated for this purpose.
225. In a working machine, the reduction gear is most often located:
a) in the hydraulic system, near the main pump,b) in the operator's cabin, next to the drive controller,
c) in the drive system near the driving wheels.
226. Hydraulic distributor:
a) increases the torque in the side transmission,b) converts mechanical energy into hydraulic energy,
c) directs the flow of hydraulic oil to the appropriate sections.
227. A hydraulic distributor is a technical device that:
a) distributes oil between the engine and the hydraulic system,
b) allows control of individual hydraulic sections of the machine,
c) distributes oil between the small and large circuits.228. A ROPS cabin in construction machines protects the operator from:
a) dust in the operator's cabin,
b) crushing in the event of the machine overturning,
c) being hit by falling objects from above.229. A ROPS cabin in construction machines protects against:
a) crushing the operator in the event of the machine overturning,
b) the machine overturning,c) the machine falling from a slope and rolling over.230. The element of the hydrostatic drive system that converts the mechanical energy of the engine into hydraulic energy is:
a) the rotation column,b) hydraulic motor or hydraulic actuator,
c) hydraulic oil pump.
231. The term body in earthmoving machines refers to:
a) the upper part of the machine with the drive system,b) the base of the machine,
c) the upper part of the machine.
232. The hydrokinetic transmission (torque converter) in the drive system of the machine:
a) smoothly reduces the torque as the load increases,
b) smoothly increases the torque as the load increases,
c) allows manual control of the torque transmitted to the drive wheels.233. The smooth increase of torque, depending on the load, is provided by:
a) hydrokinetic transmission,
b) drive shaft with joints,c) mechanical gearbox.234. Reducing speed while simultaneously increasing the torque transmitted to the drive wheels is achieved by:
a) wet brakes,b) hydraulic distributor,
c) planetary gears.
235. Equipping a bulldozer with a ripper:
a) increases its traction when working on uneven terrain,b) allows for crushing large rubble and stones,
c) allows for loosening hard ground.
236. The lifting system and the blade position changing system are crucial for the effective operation of the bulldozer because:
a) they allow precise positioning of the blade, enabling effective loosening and leveling of the terrain,
b) they provide drive to the blade, increasing the loosening force,c) they provide additional load, which increases the pressure on the ground.237. In front bulldozers, the blade is set:
a) parallel to the direction of travel,b) at an angle of 45 [°] to the direction of travel,
c) perpendicular to the direction of travel.
238. The lifting system in bulldozer working attachments:
a) allows for the adjustment of the blade height,
b) changes the position of the main frame relative to the ground,c) controls the flow of hydraulic oil in bulldozers with additional attachments.239. Damage to the ROPS frame resulting in the need for its replacement includes:
a) minor surface scratches,b) discoloration of the paint caused by weather conditions and the passage of time,
c) cracking or bending of the structure.
240. Drilling additional holes in the ROPS type cabin structure is prohibited because:
a) it reduces the operator's comfort,
b) it causes a decrease in the strength of the structure,
c) it reduces the weight of the machine.241. The flow and direction of hydraulic fluid in the system are regulated by:
a) hydraulic pumps,
b) hydraulic valves,
c) hydraulic motors.242. Elements of the system, such as actuators and hydraulic motors, convert hydraulic energy into:
a) mechanical energy,
b) pressure in the tank,c) electrical energy.243. A too tightly tensioned track can cause:
a) preventing the machine from turning,
b) excessive wear of the chain, drive wheels, and rollers,
c) immediate problems with the machine's movement.244. A too loose track can result in:
a) greater load on the hydraulic system,b) improved traction when working in muddy terrain,
c) falling off the undercarriage and accelerated wear of pins and drive wheels.
245. The function of the FOPS protective structure is:
a) to protect the operator from falling objects,
b) to protect the operator from the effects of exhaust fumes and noise,c) to protect the operator from the consequences of the machine overturning.246. The FOPS protective structure must be used when:
a) working where heavy elements may fall on the cabin (e.g., demolition work, in quarries, etc.),
b) underwater work,c) all earthworks.247. In a machine equipped with a ROPS or FOPS protective structure, there must be an additional safety system used by the operator, which is:
a) seat belts,
b) protective footwear, hearing protectors, respiratory protection,c) safety helmet, protective footwear.248. The ROPS protective structure in a machine:
a) is not required when it is not technically possible, and there is a low risk of the machine overturning (possibility of support with a boom),
b) is always required,
c) is not required when only qualified machine operators are employed.249. Optimal shock and vibration damping of the operator's seat is achieved by:
a) setting the seat rigidly,b) as flexible a seat adjustment as possible,
c) adjusting the seat to the weight of the operator.
250. The protective equipment that a machine must have for demolition work is:
a) protective canopy – FOPS cabin,
b) signal lamp and white-red-white safety stickers,c) device warning against overload and protection against cable breakage on the boom.251. The mandatory equipment used for observation by the operator of the area directly behind the machine is:
a) external mirror,
b) rear camera,c) sound signal when reversing.252. Together with the operator, other people can ride in the machine's cabin if:
a) they have undergone health and safety training with the operator and there are a maximum of 2 people,b) the machine is moving at a low speed,
c) the manufacturer has installed an additional seat.
253. The most important element of the operator's cabin equipment from the perspective of his safety is:
a) mirror or camera,
b) seat belt,
c) emergency STOP button.254. Mirrors and the reversing camera in the machine are used for:
a) checking the technical condition of the machine,
b) improving the operator's visibility and increasing safety,
c) facilitating the maneuvering of working equipment.255. In ROPS-type cabins, additional equipment such as phone holders can be installed independently:
a) but this equipment must be permanently screwed to the cabin structure,b) remembering that installation is only possible on the cabin posts,
c) provided that there is no interference with the cabin structure.
256. In machines that do not have closed cabins, ROPS protection can be implemented using:
a) additional barriers mounted on the machine's body,
b) rollover protection bars,
c) machine stabilization or ballasting system.257. A green flashing light placed on the machine's cabin signals, among other things:
a) correct fastening of the seat belts,
b) absence of the operator in the cabin,c) the machine's eco mode is activated.258. In a parallel connection of two identical batteries, the voltage of such a system is:
a) equal to the voltage of a single battery,
b) the product of the voltages of the individual batteries,c) the sum of the voltages of the individual batteries.259. In a series connection of two identical batteries, the voltage of such a system is:
a) the product of the voltages of the individual batteries,
b) the sum of the voltages of the individual batteries,
c) equal to the voltage of a single battery.260. Fuses in the machine's electrical installation protect it against the effects of:
a) low voltage,b) high temperature,
c) short circuits and overloads.
261. One of the elements of the electrical system protecting the engine from seizing is:
a) engine oil pressure sensor,
b) speed controller,c) main fuse.262. Gel batteries, which are elements of the electrical system, do not require:
a) electrolyte replenishment,
b) charging with a rectifier,c) replacement in case of housing damage.263. Electrical systems of machines and devices should be equipped with a device that causes emergency stop in at least the amount of:
a) two emergency stop devices placed on both sides of the machine, in accordance with the European machinery directive,
b) one emergency stop device, in accordance with the European machinery directive,
c) three emergency stop devices, in accordance with the European machinery directive.264. The emergency stop device of the machine is an element of:
a) electrical system,
b) fuel system,c) drive system.265. The main parameters of the internal combustion engine affecting work efficiency are:
a) torque, rotational speed,
b) type of carburetor, type of ignition system,c) compression ratio, displacement.266. The crankshaft-piston system of the internal combustion engine is designed to:
a) ensure the efficient operation of the clutch,
b) convert the reciprocating motion of the piston into the rotational motion of the crankshaft,
c) convert mechanical energy into hydraulic energy.267. The lubrication system in the internal combustion engine:
a) provides regulation of the rotational speed and reduces engine vibrations during operation,b) is responsible for removing hazardous substances generated in the combustion process of the mixture,
c) is responsible for the proper lubrication of the moving elements of the engine that work together.
268. Systems present in internal combustion engines include, among others:
a) hydraulic system, intake system,b) exhaust system, pneumatic system, closed system,
c) crankshaft-piston system, fuel system, cooling system.
269. The low-pressure part of the fuel system of a diesel engine is:
a) fuel tank, supply pump, filters, fuel lines,
b) fuel lines, high-pressure pump, common rail,c) fuel tank and injectors.270. The element controlling the flow of coolant in the so-called "large circuit" is:
a) thermosiphon,
b) thermostat,
c) thermocouple.271. Intercooler is:
a) another name for the engine coolant radiator,b) a device for burning solid particles in exhaust gases,
c) an air cooler for turbocharged engines.
272. DPF filter:
a) is a dry particulate filter responsible, among other things, for capturing soot from exhaust gases,
b) is a precise cabin filter protecting the operator during work in high dust conditions,c) is used to reduce NOx (nitrogen oxides) emissions.273. The frequency and scope of periodic maintenance of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam:
a) is determined by the owner of the machine/technical device,
b) is included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine,
c) is included in the IBWR documentation.274. The operating and maintenance manual for the machine/technical device is:
a) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by the health and safety services on the construction site,
b) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device,
c) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device, which includes, among other things, IBWR.275. The operator of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is not allowed to:
a) use the machine/technical device contrary to its intended purpose,
b) make any repairs or maintenance,c) during operation, check the technical condition of the machine/technical device.276. A symptom of too low hydraulic oil level may be:
a) uneven operation of the diesel engine,b) loud operation of the starter,
c) "jerky" intermittent movement of hydraulic actuators.
277. If the low engine oil pressure warning light comes on, the operator:
a) does not need to take any action,
b) should stop working and turn off the engine,
c) can continue working if the hydraulic system is functioning properly.278. The operating and maintenance manual for the machine/technical device:
a) is used to record information about faults,
b) includes information about hazards during the operation of the machine/technical device,
c) is provided by the owner or user of the machine.279. The CE Declaration of Conformity is a document:
a) confirming that the product was manufactured in the countries of the European Union,
b) in which the manufacturer confirms that their product meets all applicable EU requirements regarding safety, health protection, and environmental protection,
c) issued by institutions that test machines for resistance to weather conditions.280. Information regarding the use of personal protective equipment and ways to reduce occupational risk can be found by the operator:
a) in the service book,b) in the CE Declaration of Conformity,
c) in the operating and maintenance manual for the machine/technical device.
281. The operating and maintenance manual for the machine/technical device:
a) is developed by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device or the entity that introduces the machine/technical device to the market,
b) is created by institutions that conduct testing and accreditation of machine/technical device prototypes before allowing them for serial production,c) is created by the construction manager based on information from the manufacturer.282. The operating and maintenance manual for the machine/technical device:
a) should be located in the machine or with the device, treated as part of the machine/technical device, and be available at all times,
b) should be located in the office along with the company's documentation and be available in case of inspection,c) does not matter where it is located, the most important thing is that the owner of the machine has it in case of resale of the machine.283. Identification data of the machine/technical device:
a) are located on the nameplate of the machine/technical device, additionally they may be in the marking places described in the manual,
b) due to their importance are always printed in red,c) should be noted on the inner side of the protective helmet assigned to the given machine/technical device.284. To minimize the risk of malfunction of the machine/technical device, the operator should:
a) regularly visually assess the condition of the machine/technical device and report any noticed irregularities,
b) use the machine/technical device until the failure becomes serious,c) perform maintenance activities only when the machine/technical device stops working.285. Key activities for the safe technical operation of the machine are:
a) performing technical service without securing the working equipment to save time,
b) securing the equipment, covers, and doors against accidental closure and using personal protective equipment,
c) using latex gloves, without the need to use other personal protective equipment.286. The rules for safely performing technical service on machines are:
a) the machine can be left on a sloped surface, as long as the operator plans a short technical service,b) the engine can remain on to conduct the service faster, especially if the machine is running idle,
c) the machine should be positioned on a level surface, with working attachments lowered to the ground, the engine turned off, and the key removed from the ignition.
287. Breaking in the machine during the initial period of operation is:
a) an intensive full load test of the machine,b) a stage of the machine's operation without load,
c) the process of achieving optimal clearances and even wear of parts.
288. The operator uses the operating and maintenance manual of the machine or technical device to:
a) learn the technical specifications, safety rules, and methods for repairing faults,
b) record all faults of the machine or technical device noticed during operation,c) log the hours worked and fuel consumption by the machine.289. The maintenance section of the operating and maintenance manual of the machine or technical device includes:
a) instructions regarding, among others, controlling the machine/device,
b) a catalog of spare parts,c) a detailed description of the construction and operation of all elements of the machine/device.290. The operating and maintenance manual must always be present with the machine/device because:
a) its absence may be a reason for the health and safety inspector to disallow the machine from operating,
b) it minimizes the risk of it being lost,c) it is essential for periodic technical inspections.291. When operating a machine equipped with a hydrokinetic transmission, long slippages should be avoided because:
a) they cause excessive heating of the converter, which can lead to its damage,
b) they can cause leakage and oil spillage from the hydraulic system,c) they reduce the overall power transmitted to the drive system.292. The SAE designation on oil refers to:
a) engine oil pressure,b) multi-season qualification of the oil,
c) engine oil viscosity, that is, its ability to flow and lubricate.
293. Oil with the symbol SAE 15W-40 means that:
a) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40,
b) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 15W, and at positive temperatures of summer oil class SAE 40,
c) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 15W.294. Oil with the symbol SAE 10W-30 means that:
a) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W,b) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 30,
c) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W, and at positive temperatures of summer oil class SAE 30.
295. The symbol SAE 10W-30 means:
a) hydraulic oil with specified parameters,b) a mixture of engine oil and hydraulic oil,
c) multi-season engine oil with specified parameters.
296. Engine oil with the symbol SAE 5W-40 means that:
a) at negative temperature it has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40,b) at positive temperature it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 5W,
c) at negative temperature it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 5W, and at positive temperature of summer oil class SAE 40.
297. The symbol of the warning light shown in the graphic means:
a) low engine oil level,
b) low engine oil pressure,c) low coolant level.
298. The symbol of the warning light shown in the graphic means:
a) low engine oil pressure,
b) low coolant level,c) low fuel level.
299. The symbol of the light shown means:
a) hydraulic oil,
b) engine oil,
c) engine oil filter.
300. The symbol of the light shown means:
a) engine coolant level,b) hydraulic oil level,
c) engine oil level.
301. Oils with designations 70W, 85W, 80W-90 are:
a) engine oils,b) brake oils,
c) gear oils.
302. In the case of the need to dismantle the cover/protection for maintenance, it is not allowed to:
a) reassemble the cover/protection,b) record such a fact in the documentation,
c) start working with the device without the cover/protection installed.
303. The lighting of the battery charging indicator signals to the operator of the construction machine a failure of:
a) the starter,b) the battery switch,
c) the V-belt and/or alternator.
304. The operator's seat cannot be adjusted when:
a) the machine is in motion,
b) the seat is turned backwards,c) the engine is not started.305. If during daily technical maintenance before work the operator notices that one of the windows in the cabin is cracked, then:
a) he should not start working,
b) he may start working provided that the window is only cracked and has not "fallen out",c) he may start working if it is not the front window.306. Before starting work, the operator should:
a) open windows for better communication,
b) clean the windows by removing snow, ice, and other contaminants,
c) install window sun shields.307. When changing hydraulic oils, one should:
a) always use only biodegradable oils,
b) use only types of oils recommended by the machine manufacturer,
c) use any type of oil.308. To ensure the technical efficiency of the working machine, one should:
a) use the machine/technical device only under full load,b) use the machine/technical device not exceeding 50% of the permissible load,
c) follow technical service and maintenance according to the operating and maintenance instructions.
309. On the construction site, empty containers of lubricants, oil filters, and used oils should be:
a) placed in a properly marked container for hazardous waste,
b) thrown into the mixed waste container,c) thrown into any waste container.310. Stickers (pictograms) located on the machine/technical device serve to:
a) inform about the prohibition of approaching the machine/technical device,
b) convey important information about safety and the use of the machine/technical device,
c) indicate places where one can stay without any risk.311. Grease points in the machine should be serviced:
a) during all breaks in work,
b) according to the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine,
c) always after 10 hours of work.312. Engine oil with parameters 5W-50 is:
a) a multi-season oil,
b) an oil only for winter,c) an oil only for summer.313. Before starting work on a new type of machine/technical device, the operator should:
a) perform a test run,b) perform a periodic inspection,
c) familiarize themselves with the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine/technical device.
314. OTC service is:
a) temporary technical service,
b) daily technical service,
c) round-the-clock technical service.315. The basic types of service are:
a) visual, active, passive service,b) round-the-clock, multi-season, annual, technological service,
c) daily, periodic, warehouse, transport service.
316. Batteries, when starting a machine using a supporting battery, should be connected:
a) crosswise,b) in series,
c) in parallel.
317. In the case of electrolyte loss caused by spillage through a cracked battery case, one should:
a) add electrolyte to the proper level and charge the battery,b) add demineralized water to a level 10 mm above the top edges of the plates,
c) secure the leakage area in terms of environmental protection, and then replace the battery.
318. The activities performed by the operator as part of daily maintenance during operation are:
a) cleaning the machine,b) replenishing operating fluids and daily lubrication,
c) auditory control of the machine's operation and observation of indicators.
319. If the manufacturer has provided for operational run-in, it should be carried out:
a) without load,
b) with the load recommended in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device,
c) with the maximum load.320. When loading the machine onto the transport vehicle, the operator should:
a) approach at a speed of at least 5 [km/h],b) know the maximum speed allowed for the given transport vehicle,
c) know the permissible angle of inclination of the loading ramps for the given machine.
321. The person responsible for the placement and securing of the machine on the transport vehicle is:
a) machine operator,b) owner or person responsible for machines in the company,
c) carrier (e.g. driver).
322. When storing the machine, one should ensure that:
a) the machine is facing the exit,b) no documents of the machine are left in the cabin,
c) there are no leaks of operating fluids.
323. Securing the machine during storage downtime involves:
a) cleaning the machine of dirt and corrosion,
b) filling the hydraulic oil tank to the top,c) disassembling all filters and protecting them from moisture.324. The rods of hydraulic cylinders, during technical service of the stored machine, should be:
a) disassembled and their seals replaced,
b) protected against corrosion,
c) disassembled and cleaned.325. During the loading of the machine onto the transport vehicle:
a) assistance from a second person is recommended only when loading onto a low-loader trailer,
b) assistance from a second person is recommended,
c) the operator should drive onto the transport vehicle independently.326. The recommended way to load heavy working machines onto low-loader trailers is:
a) loading on ropes,b) loading using other machines,
c) mechanized loading from the front ramp.
327. During longer storage of the machine, the fuel tank should be:
a) filled to 1/3 of its capacity and left open,
b) filled to the top to prevent condensation of water vapor inside the tank,
c) empty to avoid fire hazards.328. During daily operation of the machine, the condition of should be checked:
a) the value of working pressure in the hydraulic system,
b) connections and tightness of the hydraulic system,
c) tools and equipment.329. If the machine's engine has not been running for a long time during daily operation, you should:
a) start the engine and gently increase the RPM to reach the operating temperature faster,b) replace the fuel pre-filter,
c) check the oil level and other operating fluids.
330. Information regarding faults, their codes, and methods of removal can be found in the document named:
a) operating and maintenance manual,
b) daily report,c) construction machine book.331. The correct order of connecting the auxiliary battery to the discharged battery in the machine is as follows:
a) positive terminal of the battery in the machine, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, machine frame,
b) negative terminal of the battery in the machine, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, machine frame,c) machine frame, positive terminal of the battery in the machine, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery.332. In case of electrolyte loss in the battery, one should:
a) refill it with DOT-3 fluid,b) refill it with water other than distilled,
c) refill it with distilled or demineralized water.
333. Checking the charge state of the starting battery 12 [V] by "sparking" poses a risk of:
a) electric shock from high voltage,
b) explosion of hydrogen escaping from the battery,
c) seizure of the alternator.334. The scope of daily technical service of the machine does not include:
a) checking and adjusting valve clearances,
b) checking the oil level in the engine,c) checking the condition of the tires and tire pressure.335. When cleaning the radiator, to avoid damaging it, one should:
a) use sharp tools for cleaning,b) use a strong stream of water under high pressure,
c) keep the compressed air nozzle at an appropriate distance from the radiator.
336. The purpose of lubrication in working machines is:
a) to reduce friction,
b) to raise the temperature of cooperating elements,c) to increase the engine's rotational speed.337. The most commonly used type of fuses in electrical installations of working machines is:
a) differential fuses,b) automatic fuses,
c) cartridge fuses.
338. The phenomenon of electrostatic discharge during the refueling of a machine can lead to:
a) poisoning,b) short circuit of the electrical installation,
c) fire.
339. In the case of parallel connection of two batteries with different rated voltages:
a) thicker cables should be used than with batteries of the same rated voltages,
b) there may be an explosion of the battery with the lower rated voltage,
c) both batteries may discharge.340. The correct way to connect a battery to a charger during charging is:
a) the positive terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger, the negative terminal of the charger to the "ground" of the machine,
b) the positive terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger, the negative terminal of the battery to the negative terminal of the charger,
c) the positive terminal of the battery to the negative terminal of the charger, the negative terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger.341. After connecting the battery, the terminals are lubricated with:
a) technical vaseline,
b) grease containing molybdenum disulfide,c) graphite grease.342. One of the goals of warehouse management is:
a) repairing damaged machine parts before the next season,b) preparing the machine for transport for the future user,
c) protecting the machine from corrosion and other harmful factors during long-term storage.
343. If during daily technical service the operator notices a leak in the cooling system, he should:
a) organize fluid and refill to the minimum level if the leak is small,b) refill the coolant and continue working,
c) report the leak and not use the machine until it is repaired.
344. The level of coolant in the expansion tank should be checked:
a) only during periodic technical service,
b) during every daily technical service,
c) only in case of engine overheating.345. If the operator notices a hydraulic fluid leak during daily technical service, he should:
a) report the leak and not use the machine until it is repaired,
b) refill the oil and continue working,c) reduce the RPM and continue working.346. The frequency of performing periodic technical service depends on:
a) the number of completed working cycles,b) the production date of the machine,
c) the number of hours worked (engine hours).
347. If during daily technical service the operator notices a low level of engine oil, he should:
a) start work if the level is not very low and the warning light is not on,b) top up the level with any available oil, even if it is of a different type,
c) top up the oil to the appropriate level.
348. A characteristic activity for seasonal technical service is:
a) replacing the coolant with one suitable for the season,
b) checking the working pressure values of the hydraulic system,c) checking the charging voltage values.349. The basic service activities that must be performed before starting a diesel engine are:
a) bleeding the fuel system, checking the level of transmission oil, checking the starter,b) checking the oil level in the gearbox, checking the operation of the working system, checking the operation of the brakes,
c) checking the oil level in the engine, checking the coolant level, checking the condition of the air filter.
350. Activities performed as part of daily technical service (OTC) carried out during the operation of the machine include:
a) primarily the organoleptic control of the proper operation of the machine's working system,
b) observing control and measuring instruments and checking the proper operation of the machine using sight, hearing, and smell,
c) observing only control and measuring indicators such as: oil pressure, engine temperature, hydraulic oil temperature.351. We distinguish, among others, the following types of technical services:
a) transport, delivery, daily, periodic, seasonal, storage,
b) delivery, daily, periodic, seasonal, storage, emergency, night,c) transport, delivery, storage, maintenance-repair (MR), catalog.352. We perform technical services for the purpose of:
a) ensuring quiet operation of the machine or technical device,