Vibratory for driving and extracting class III
Study mode
Question of 235
1. What is the minimum allowable distance of the machine from the reach of the wedge of the collapse?
a) 0.4 [m],
b) 0.6 [m],
c) 0.8 [m].2. The safe distance of the machine from the excavation is:
a) depth of the excavation + 0.6 [m],b) 1.6 [m],
c) reach of the wedge of the collapse + 0.6 [m].
3. Based on the presented table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] made in cohesive soils:
a) 1.6 [m],
b) 1 [m],c) 2.6 [m].4. Based on the presented table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] made in fractured rocks:
a) 4.6 [m],
b) 3.6 [m],
c) 2.6 [m].5. Based on the presented table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] made in slightly cohesive soils:
a) 3.6 [m],b) 2.6 [m],
c) 3.1 [m]. Vibration devices for driving and pulling out Class III
6. What is the minimum safe distance from the UPPER edge of the embankment that a machine can approach, given the following data: Soil category - I (dry sand), height of the embankment - h = 2 [m], horizontal distance between the upper and lower edges of the embankment - a = 2.5 [m]?
a) 1.1 [m],
b) 0.6 [m],c) 3.6 [m].7. What is the minimum safe distance from the UPPER edge of the embankment that a machine can approach, given the following data: Soil category - II (slightly cohesive soils), height of the embankment - h = 4 [m], horizontal distance between the upper and lower edges of the embankment - a = 2.5 [m]?
a) 5.6 [m],
b) 3.1 [m],
c) 0.6 [m].8. At what horizontal distance from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage not exceeding 1 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 2 [m],b) not less than 5 [m],
c) not less than 3 [m].
9. At what horizontal distance from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 15 [m],b) not less than 10 [m],
c) not less than 5 [m].
10. At what horizontal distance from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 15 [m],b) not less than 5 [m],
c) not less than 10 [m].
11. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?
a) not less than 15 [m],
b) not less than 20 [m],c) not less than 10 [m].12. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?
a) not less than 10 [m],
b) not less than 30 [m],
c) not less than 15 [m].13. Is it possible to organize workstations in the danger zone under overhead power lines?
a) yes, always,
b) yes, but only after meeting additional requirements,
c) no, never.
14. What is the safe distance X for the operation of a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [V]?
a) not less than 5 [m],
b) not less than 3 [m],
c) not less than 30 [m].15. What is the safe distance X for the operation of a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV]?
a) not less than 5 [m],
b) not less than 15 [m],c) not less than 10 [m].16. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?
a) not less than 15 [m],
b) not less than 10 [m],
c) not less than 30 [m].17. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?
a) not less than 5 [m],b) not less than 15 [m],
c) not less than 10 [m].
18. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV]?
a) not less than 30 [m],b) not less than 50 [m],
c) not less than 15 [m].
19. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV]?
a) not less than 10 [m],
b) not less than 30 [m],c) not less than 15 [m].20. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]?
a) not less than 30 [m],
b) not less than 3 [m],c) not less than 40 [m].21. Work in the danger zone (overhead high voltage power line):
a) may be carried out provided that the work manager's consent has been obtained,
b) may be carried out provided that the line has been disconnected from the voltage, the work is performed in a zone limited by groundings and at least one grounding is visible from the work site,
c) under no circumstances may be carried out under electrical lines in the danger zone.22. The operator must perform work at a distance X from the active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [V]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 2 [m],
b) 5 [m],
c) 1 [m].23. The operator must perform work at a distance X from the active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 3 [m],
b) 15 [m],
c) 5 [m].24. The operator must perform work at a distance X from the active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 15 [m],
b) 50 [m],
c) 5 [m].25. If the injured person has a detectable pulse but is not breathing, then:
a) cardiopulmonary resuscitation should be performed,b) he should not be touched,
c) the airways should be cleared and artificial respiration should be started.
26. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, one should primarily:
a) move away from the accident site to call a doctor,
b) provide assistance to those in life-threatening situations,
c) give medication to the injured.27. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, one should primarily:
a) provide assistance to those in life-threatening situations,
b) take care of one's own safety,
c) move away from the accident site to call a doctor.28. The obligation to provide first aid to accident victims rests with:
a) everyone, as one can always perform part of the rescue tasks,
b) only those with medical training,c) everyone, but criminal liability always threatens for mistakes made.29. The accident victim regained consciousness after a few minutes and wants to go home. In such a situation, one should:
a) persuade her to stay and call for medical help,
b) give her something to drink and painkillers,c) allow her to go home, recommending a visit to the doctor.30. First aid in a situation where a foreign body has entered the eye of the injured person consists of:
a) rinsing the eye with eye drops,b) rinsing with distilled water directing the stream to the inside of the eye,
c) rinsing with clean water directing the stream from the nose outward from the eye.
31. The injured person cut their leg on an unsecured sharp object. Providing first aid in this situation is:
a) sticking a plaster directly on the wound,b) using a tourniquet,
c) applying sterile gauze, wrapping the wound with a bandage.
32. Suspecting spinal injury in a person who has fallen from a height and is conscious, one should:
a) seat them in a semi-reclining position,b) lay them in the recovery position,
c) not move them and wait for medical services to arrive.
33. To move away from the place where the electric wire has been broken and the area is live, one should:
a) slowly step away from this place, taking small steps, trying to maintain continuous contact of the feet with the ground,
b) run as fast as possible to a place that we assess as safe,c) quickly step away from the source of electric shock, lifting the feet high.34. First aid in the case of a first-degree burn is:
a) applying greasy cream to the burned area,b) applying ointment to the burned area,
c) pouring cold water on the burned area.
35. During work, a high voltage power line was broken, as a result of which a colleague was electrocuted. In this situation, the correct behavior is:
a) turn off the power source as quickly as possible,
b) call other colleagues for help with the injured person,c) approach the injured person to provide first aid.36. We perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation until:
a) we have confirmed that the victim has started breathing and circulation has returned,
b) 10 minutes have passed,c) the fire department arrives and secures the area.37. Immediate action in the case of severe bleeding from an injured upper limb includes:
a) disinfecting the wound with salicylic alcohol,
b) applying a dressing, directly compressing the bleeding site, and elevating the limb,
c) lowering the limb below heart level.38. In the case of a nosebleed, one should:
a) lay the victim on their back,b) tilt the head back and place a cold compress on the neck,
c) lean the bleeding person's head forward and pinch the nostrils.
39. The first step in dealing with a victim of carbon monoxide poisoning in a closed room is:
a) assessing ABC,
b) the quickest possible evacuation of the victim from that room,
c) conducting a preliminary examination.40. First aid during seizures caused by an epileptic attack consists of:
a) placing a wooden object in the victim's mouth to prevent biting the tongue,
b) protecting the victim's head from injuries,
c) seating the victim in a semi-sitting position and giving them something to drink.41. In case of suspected spinal injury in the cervical region in a conscious person, one should:
a) not allow the injured person to move their head,
b) place the injured person in a lateral position,c) seat the injured person in a chair with a high back.42. The most important thing when a person is buried under earth, sand, or gravel is:
a) notifying the family,b) waiting for the arrival of the ambulance,
c) locating the injured person.
43. First aid for a person with a metal rod embedded in their lower leg involves calling for help and:
a) moving the rod to check if the artery has been damaged,
b) securing the rod to prevent movement,
c) removing the embedded rod.44. The indication for using an AED defibrillator is:
a) lack of detectable breathing and pulse in the injured person,
b) severe chest pain,c) severe dizziness.45. During the operation of a machine/technical device, the prohibited actions are:
a) making structural changes to the machine/technical device,
b) performing daily technical service (DTS),c) changing the working tool.46. During the operation of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam, the prohibited activities are:
a) cleaning the machine/technical device using a product in accordance with the operating and maintenance instructions,
b) cleaning the machine/technical device using gasoline or solvents whose vapors can create flammable/explosive gas mixtures with air,
c) refueling the machine/technical device from a canister.47. When performing earthworks with the machine for which you are taking the exam, it is unacceptable to:
a) have people within the reach of the machine's working tool,
b) have people at a distance greater than the sum of the maximum reach of the working tool plus 6 meters,c) have people near the machine during technical maintenance.48. During the work, it is unacceptable to:
a) work near an active power line with a rated voltage of 10 [kV] at a distance of 10 [m],
b) work near active overhead power lines at a distance less than specified by regulations,
c) work near an active power line with a rated voltage of 20 [kV] at a distance of 15 [m].49. The machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam can only be operated by:
a) any adult person with technical education and a driver's license of the appropriate category,b) a person with written confirmation of completing a course in the form of a plastic card,
c) a person who has completed training and obtained a positive result on the test conducted by the commission appointed by the Łukasiewicz Research Network – Warsaw Institute of Technology.
50. The rights to operate machines/technical devices for which you are taking the exam are issued by:
a) The Office of Technical Inspection (UDT),
b) The Łukasiewicz Research Network - Warsaw Institute of Technology (SBŁ - WIT),
c) The County Office appropriate for the address of the person applying for the rights.51. Permissions to operate machines/technical devices for which you are taking the exam:
a) are valid for 5 years from the date of issue,
b) are valid indefinitely,
c) are valid for 10 years from the date of issue.52. A person holding permissions to operate: "Vibratory devices for driving and pulling class III" can operate based on them:
a) vibratory devices for driving and pulling and ,b) vibratory devices for driving and pulling and pile drivers,
c) vibratory devices for driving and pulling.
53. An employee operating a machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam can start work provided that:
a) they have permissions to operate this type of machine/technical device,
b) the machine/technical device has a valid UDT inspection,c) they have a valid category D driving license.54. In the event of a threat to life, health, property, or the environment caused by a malfunction of the machine/technical device, the operator:
a) continues working, but at the end of the shift makes the appropriate entry in the maintenance book,
b) immediately stops work and informs the supervisor of this fact,
c) continues working, but at the end of the shift informs the supervisor of the situation.55. Lifting and transporting people using working equipment:
a) requires the consent of the construction manager,b) is possible, but only outside the public road area,
c) is always prohibited.
56. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam has the right to refuse to work when:
a) this work requires special psychophysical fitness, and his psychophysical condition does not ensure its safe performance and poses a threat to others,
b) he has the required personal protective equipment,c) there is an overhead power line with a rated voltage of 110 [kV] located 35 meters away.57. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is obliged to stop work when:
a) he has the required personal protective equipment,
b) the work he is performing poses an immediate threat to the health or life of others,
c) there is an overhead power line located 35 meters away.58. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is obliged to:
a) always have a category B driving license,
b) comply with the provisions of the operating and maintenance instructions for the machine/technical device,
c) independently perform all current repairs of the machine/technical device.59. The person directly responsible for the safe operation of the machine for which you are taking the exam is:
a) the construction manager,b) the owner of the machine,
c) the operator of the machine.
60. The operator's book and qualifications for the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam are issued by:
a) Transport Technical Supervision (TDT),b) Office of Technical Inspection (UDT),
c) Łukasiewicz Research Network - Warsaw Institute of Technology.
61. The obligation to use personal protective equipment:
a) results only from internal regulations,b) does not apply on hot days,
c) results from the operating and maintenance instructions and health and safety regulations.
62. An employee who witnesses an accident at work:
a) it is enough to notify the supervisor,
b) is obliged to assist the victims, notify the supervisor, and if necessary secure the accident site,
c) is obliged to assist the victims and then immediately leave the accident site.63. What elements of the machine, for which you are taking the exam, protect the operator in case of the machine overturning:
a) ROPS type machine cabin and safety belts,
b) certified safety helmet and reflective vest,c) machine seat.64. In the event of loss of stability by a machine equipped with a ROPS type cabin, the operator should:
a) quickly turn left and raise the working equipment as high as possible,b) try to leave the cabin as quickly as possible (before the machine overturns),
c) maintain a seated position while holding firmly to the steering wheel or other stable elements in the cabin.
65. In the event of loss of stability by a machine equipped with a ROPS type cabin, the operator should:
a) stay in the cabin,
b) immediately jump out of the cabin,c) turn on the warning/emergency lights.66. The danger zone is defined as:
a) a place where work requiring specialized equipment is carried out, and the presence of people is only allowed at night,
b) a place where there are threats to the health and life of people,
c) a place where employees must only wear protective helmets.67. The danger zone on a construction site:
a) is designated after the construction work has started,
b) is designated and/or fenced and marked in a way that prevents access to unauthorized persons,
c) is always designated by a surveyor.68. The area that the operator should check and secure before starting work with a machine/technical device (because there are threats to the health and life of people) is called:
a) the danger zone,
b) the dead zone,c) the zone of increased risk.69. During the charging of batteries, a gas with highly explosive properties is released. This gas is:
a) hydrogen,
b) ethane,c) methane.70. Firefighting foam can be used to extinguish fires of group:
a) only C,
b) A and B,
c) C and D.71. Improper use of a snow extinguisher can result in:
a) burns from the extinguisher components,
b) frostbite caused by the extinguishing agent,
c) fainting.72. Water, fire blanket, powder extinguisher, carbon dioxide, sand are extinguishing agents that we will use to extinguish:
a) oils,b) liquids,
c) solids.
73. We can call sorbents:
a) petroleum-derived substances,b) fire blankets,
c) materials made from natural or synthetic substances that absorb liquids.
74. Group A fires concern:
a) flammable gases,
b) solids that normally burn with the formation of glowing coals, e.g., wood, paper, etc.,
c) flammable liquids.75. Group B fires concern:
a) flammable gases,
b) liquids and solid materials that melt, e.g., plastics, fuels, oils, etc.,
c) metals, e.g., magnesium, sodium, potassium, aluminum, titanium, etc..76. Group C fires concern:
a) gases, e.g. methane, propane, acetylene, hydrogen,
b) flammable liquids,c) solid materials.
77. Seeing such a pictogram you are informed about:
a) the assembly point during evacuation,
b) a larger number of people in a given area,c) the danger zone.
78. While working you noticed a sign marked 'Zone 0'. It informs about:
a) the zone of existing fire load in the building,b) the zone of existing fire hazard category,
c) the space where an explosive atmosphere exists.
79. The presented pictogram informs about:
a) internal hydrant,
b) set of fire protection equipment,
c) main power switch.
80. Seeing such a pictogram you are informed about:
a) the assembly point during evacuation,b) the first aid medical station,
c) the emergency exit.
81. Seeing such a pictogram, you are informed about:
a) the prohibition of using the fire extinguisher,
b) the location of the fire extinguisher,
c) the high temperature affecting the fire extinguisher.82. You see a person whose clothing is on fire and who, in panic, is running away. Your reaction is:
a) you wave your arms or outer garment strongly next to him to extinguish the burning clothing,b) you tell him to wait in an upright position for the arrival of rescue services,
c) you try to stop him, lay him on the ground, and start extinguishing.
83. Electrical devices and installations can be extinguished using:
a) water,b) foam extinguishers,
c) powder or snow extinguishers.
84. Burning fuel can be extinguished using:
a) low-octane ethylene,
b) powder, foam, or snow extinguishers,
c) water.85. Clothing on a person that is on fire can be extinguished using:
a) snow or powder extinguisher,b) plastic material,
c) water mist extinguisher or fire blanket.
86. What obligations does an employee have when they decide to refrain from performing work due to health and safety regulations?
a) Must immediately notify the supervisor,
b) Should organize work for others,c) Has no obligations in this situation.87. How can an operator prevent hazards in the workplace?
a) By using personal protective equipment to minimize risk,
b) By not reporting faults in machines,c) By ignoring health and safety rules.88. It is not permissible to position a workplace directly under active overhead power lines or at a horizontal distance from the outermost conductors of less than:
a) for lines: 1 [kV] - 1 [m], 15 [kV] - 3 [m], 30 [kV] - 5 [m], 110 [kV] - 10 [m],
b) for lines: 1 [kV] - 3 [m], 15 [kV] - 5 [m], 30 [kV] - 10 [m], 110 [kV] - 15 [m], 400 [kV] - 30 [m],
c) for all voltages - 1 [m] from the power line.89. How does the operator know what personal protective equipment is required for a given machine/technical device?
a) The operator must independently choose the appropriate protective measures,
b) Information about the necessary personal protective equipment is included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine,
c) The choice of personal protective equipment depends on the opinion of colleagues at work.90. The operator should refuse to perform a task when:
a) the work is inconsistent with the purpose of the machine/technical device,
b) the work requires familiarization with the location of underground and above-ground utilities,c) the work is being performed at night.91. The operator can prevent hazards while operating the machine/technical device by:
a) limiting the use of personal protective equipment,
b) following health and safety rules and adhering to the operating instructions,
c) inattention and routine.92. Which of the following situations is unacceptable during the use of the machine/technical device?
a) Operating the machine without supervision,b) Reporting faults directly to the supervisor,
c) The presence of unauthorized persons in the danger zone caused by the operation of the machine/technical device.
93. An accident at work is considered to be:
a) a sudden event related to the work performed, caused by an external factor, resulting in injury or death,
b) a sudden event unrelated to the work performed, caused by an external factor, resulting in injury or death,c) a prolonged event related to the work performed, caused by an internal factor, resulting in equipment damage.94. A fatal accident at work is considered to be an accident in which death occurred:
a) within a period not exceeding 6 months from the date of the accident,
b) only at the moment of the accident,c) after a period exceeding 6 months from the date of the accident.95. Health and safety regulations require:
a) securing the working machine during breaks in its operation against accidental activation by unauthorized persons,
b) scrapping the old working machine within the time specified in its operating and maintenance instructions, while complying with the requirements for the disposal of hazardous materials,c) performing a warranty inspection of the working machine before the end of one year from its purchase.96. What environmental and surrounding hazards may occur when operating a vibration device for driving and pulling out?
a) No hazards if the device operates at low speeds,
b) Damage to existing underground infrastructure and noise nuisance for living organisms,
c) Increased safety levels due to vibrations generated by this device.97. Before starting the vibration device for driving and pulling out, one should:
a) designate a danger zone and check the elements being driven for damage,
b) check if all persons in the danger zone are wearing protective helmets and reflective vests,c) designate a danger zone and move the vibration devices for driving and pulling out outside of it.98. In the event of a person being electrocuted:
a) it is recommended to use any tools to disconnect the power, regardless of their actual purpose,b) one should immediately begin resuscitation, regardless of whether the power source has been disconnected,
c) one must not touch the injured person until the power source has been disconnected.
99. Seeing a person whose clothing is on fire, one should first:
a) use a fire extinguisher, preferably a snow extinguisher, to extinguish the burning clothing, and then try to quickly tear off the melted clothing,b) leave the injured person standing to facilitate air access and extinguish the flames faster,
c) cut off the air supply by rolling the injured person or wrapping them in a fire blanket, wet clothing, or a wet blanket.
100. A ground block:
a) occurs when the slope of the embankment exceeds the angle of the natural ground slope,
b) is the area around the working machine extending a distance of 6 [m] beyond its farthest reach,c) occurs only when the ground is in a frozen state.101. The range of the soil wedge:
a) depends on the speed of the machine's operation and the efficiency of the operator,b) depends solely on the soil temperature,
c) depends on the depth of the excavation and the category of the soil.
102. The angle of natural slope is:
a) the maximum slope at which the soil can remain stable without sliding - it depends, among other things, on the category of the soil,
b) the angle at which the soil will definitely slide on its own - it depends solely on the temperature of that soil,c) the angle at which the machine can be safely operated - it depends on the parameters of the given machine.103. The soil wedge:
a) is the space around the machine, dependent on the speed of the machine's operation and its weight,
b) occurs when the slope exceeds the angle of natural slope of the soil - its range depends on the type of soil and the depth of the excavation or the height of the slope,
c) is the zone where the soil becomes unstable - its range depends solely on the depth of the excavation, the type of soil does not matter here.104. The angle of natural slope is:
a) the slope at which any embankment becomes unstable, regardless of the type of soil,
b) the maximum slope at which the soil can remain stable without sliding - it depends on the type of soil, e.g., moisture, cohesion, and grain size,
c) the angle at which the machine can safely move on the embankment, regardless of the category of the soil.105. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is performed:
a) when the victim is not breathing and there is no detectable pulse. For a person who is not a professional rescuer, the absence of breathing is a sufficient basis to start resuscitation,
b) when the victim is breathing but is unconscious, there is no contact with them,c) only in the case of fainting and minor injuries, to improve blood circulation.106. An employee has the right to refrain from performing work due to health and safety regulations, notifying their supervisor immediately in case when:
a) working conditions pose a direct threat to health or life,
b) working conditions do not pose a threat, but are too difficult for them,c) the work they are performing has not been reported to the construction supervision.107. Physical factors generating hazards in the workplace are:
a) lack of or inadequate training for employees,
b) spilled lubricants, oils, and fuels,
c) lack of appropriate medical examinations for the employee.108. Working with a machine/technical device is not allowed when:
a) its repair was carried out after dark,b) the second operator did not report an upcoming inspection,
c) it is malfunctioning.
109. Working near overhead power lines:
a) is possible without meeting additional requirements provided that certain distances depending on the rated voltage of the line are maintained,
b) always requires the power in the line to be turned off,c) always requires double grounding of the line.110. The operator is obliged to refuse to start work if:
a) the machine is malfunctioning,
b) they would have to work under power lines, and the voltage in them has been turned off and the line grounded,c) there is no construction manager or any other person authorized to supervise at the work site.111. The danger zone of a machine/technical device is:
a) a place where the machine/technical device cannot be used,
b) a place where there are hazards to health or life of people,
c) always the entire fenced construction site.112. Accidents at work resulting from the poor technical condition of the working machine may involve, for example:
a) damage to the equipment,
b) injury to a limb, torso, or head,
c) failure of the drive system.113. Unacceptable behaviors are:
a) working after dark in a well-lit place, with full concentration of the operator,b) performing daily maintenance of the machine after dark,
c) operating a faulty machine and working under the influence of alcohol.
114. The basic duties of an employee in terms of OHS are:
a) adhering to OHS regulations and principles, taking care of the condition of machines and tools, and maintaining order in the workplace, using personal protective equipment,
b) enforcing labor code regulations regarding their rights, including payment for overtime worked,c) not being late for work, finishing on time, confirming presence at work in a manner accepted by the employer.115. The basic hazards associated with working with a vibrating device for driving and pulling out are:
a) reduced work efficiency due to low temperature,
b) injuries to the persons operating the machine,
c) risks associated solely with improper power connection.116. Basic health and safety rules when working with a vibrating device for driving and pulling are:
a) site training is not required if the operator taking up work has experience working with similar machines,b) personal protective equipment is optional if the work area is well marked,
c) the operator and staff must be properly trained and use personal protective equipment.
117. In the case of a person electrocuted, after disconnecting the power source, one should:
a) check the condition of the injured person, and if necessary: call for help, clear the airways, perform resuscitation, and use an AED if available,
b) move the injured person to another location as quickly as possible,c) leave the injured person alone if they have regained consciousness, without further action.118. After extinguishing flames on a person with burns and calling for help, one should:
a) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes, without removing the fused clothing,
b) use a snow extinguisher to cool the burn area,c) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes, first removing the fused clothing.119. If the operator notices faults that may prevent the proper operation of the machine, then:
a) they should continue working and repair the machine after completing the task,b) ignore the faults if the machine is currently operating correctly,
c) is obliged to refuse to start the machine and report this fact to their supervisor.
120. Seeing such a pictogram, you are informed about:
a) a place to perform AED,
b) a place where an external automatic defibrillator is available,
c) a place where a first aid kit is available.121. Properly performed cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) consists of:
a) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 30-60 times per minute to a depth of 1–3 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 15 compressions (breaths are mandatory),
b) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 100-120 times per minute to a depth of 5–6 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 30 compressions (breaths are not mandatory),
c) connecting an automatic external defibrillator (AED) and following its instructions; CPR is not performed without an AED.122. The abbreviation IBWR stands for:
a) Instruction for Failure-Free Execution of Works,
b) Instruction for Safe Execution of Works,
c) Instruction for Failure-Free Execution of Works.123. Expand the abbreviation IBWR:
a) Implementation of Failure-Free Execution of Works,b) Information on Safe Execution of Works,
c) Instruction for Safe Execution of Works.
124. The Instruction for Safe Execution of Construction Works is:
a) a document confirming qualifications for operating machines and technical devices in earthworks, construction, and road works,b) a plan of the road in construction works,
c) a document containing information regarding safety on the construction site.
125. The BIOZ plan means:
a) plan for Safe Health Protection Instruction,b) plan for Safety and Resource Specification,
c) plan for Safety and Health Protection.
126. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 1 [m],
b) 4 [m],c) 1.6 [m].127. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 1.6 [m],b) 1 [m],
c) 1.5 [m].
128. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 1 [m],b) 1.6 [m],
c) 0.5 [m].
129. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 1 [m],
b) 2 [m],c) 1.6 [m].130. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 1.6 [m],b) 1 [m],
c) 2 [m].
131. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 3 [m],
b) 2 [m],c) 1 [m].132. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 4 [m],
b) 2.6 [m],c) 3 [m].133. The safe distance that the machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 1.6 [m],
b) 1 [m],c) 2.6 [m].134. The safe distance that the machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 3.6 [m],b) 6.6 [m],
c) 2.1 [m].
135. The safe distance that the machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 2.6 [m],
b) 4.6 [m],c) 2 [m].136. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 1.1 [m],
b) 2 [m],c) 2.6 [m].137. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 2 [m],
b) 1.6 [m],
c) 2.6 [m].138. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 2.6 [m],
b) 2 [m],c) 4.6 [m].139. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 3.6 [m],
b) 2.1 [m],c) 3 [m].140. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 2.6 [m],b) 4 [m],
c) 4.6 [m].
141. In a dangerous situation, when the cabin door cannot be opened:
a) as an emergency exit, the space can be used after removing the floor panel,
b) the emergency exit provided by the manufacturer should be used,
c) the cabin must not be left until help arrives.142. If the seat belt is damaged, one should:
a) exercise special caution while working,
b) report the damage and not start working until the belt is repaired or replaced,
c) continue working and report the problem after finishing the work.143. The operator must wear a safety helmet while working with the machine when:
a) working in a machine not equipped with a closed cabin,
b) working on demolition tasks using long booms,c) frequently leaning out of the cabin while working.144. Entering and exiting the machine should be done:
a) entering sideways, being careful of the devices in the cabin,
b) facing the machine, maintaining three points of contact,
c) facing away from the machine, using a three-step ladder.145. Vibratory hammers are used when extracting piles and steel pipes to:
a) gently mix the soil around the pile before extraction,b) increase the soil compaction around the extracted element,
c) effectively break the soil resistance through vibrations and inertia.
146. A slight indentation of the element under its own weight before introducing it into the clamp is intended to:
a) completely eliminate vibrations before fastening,
b) facilitate the alignment of the element by the operators,
c) reduce the weight of the element during installation.147. The moment of inertia in the operation of the vibratory hammer affects:
a) the efficiency of driving in different types of soils,
b) its external dimensions,c) the reduction of hydraulic oil consumption.148. The parameter of the power supply device that is crucial for cooperation with the vibratory hammer is:
a) the engine torque,
b) the hydraulic output,
c) the engine speed.149. The vibratory gearbox in the vibratory hammer is responsible for:
a) powering the hydraulic system,
b) generating the vibrations needed for driving or pulling elements,
c) damping the vibrations transmitted to the carrier.150. To release the driven element from the hydraulic clamp, one must:
a) stop the operation of the hydraulic engine,b) reduce the flow of hydraulic fluid in the system,
c) apply pressure from the power supply device in the opposite direction.
151. Hydraulic pressure and the output of the power supply device must be adapted to the vibrohammer:
a) to ensure its proper operation and vibration efficiency,
b) to reduce fuel consumption by the power supply device,c) to enable the vibrohammer to operate in difficult terrain conditions.152. The main function of the damping casing in a vibratory hammer is:
a) to increase the vibration force during operation,b) to limit the transmission of vibrations to the ground,
c) to limit the transmission of vibrations to the carrier.
153. It is possible to operate the machine with the cabin doors open:
a) always,b) only when the air temperature exceeds 25 [°C],
c) only if the operating and maintenance manual of the machine allows such possibility.
154. The type of interchangeable working equipment used depends on whether:
a) the machine has undergone a periodic inspection,b) the equipment has a CE certificate,
c) the equipment is approved for use by the machine manufacturer.
155. The hydraulic drive system of the vibrohammer is powered by:
a) an external device, such as a generator, excavator, or pile driver,
b) from a built-in combustion engine in the vibrohammer,c) from its own power source, independent of other machines.156. When checking the technical condition of clamping pliers, one should:
a) proceed to check the level of hydraulic oil and measure the clamping force,
b) conduct visual inspections, remove contaminants, check the condition of the hydraulic power supply, and control the operation,
c) open and close the pliers to the maximum range to ensure they are functional.157. The course of underground site equipment should be marked before starting work to:
a) allow for quick movement of machines in any direction,
b) avoid the risk of damaging networks during work,
c) save time and reduce earthwork costs.158. In the process of driving an element into the ground, the key stage is:
a) positioning the driven element,
b) controlling the temperature of the vibrator,c) adjusting the pressure in the hydraulic system of the feeder.159. A vibrohammer is a machine that:
a) reduces soil resistance through vibration,
b) allows for pulsating driving,c) enables silent operation of work.160. A hydraulic power unit is a device:
a) supplying the vibrohammer with cooling liquid,
b) ensuring efficient and smooth control of the vibrohammer,
c) allowing the delivery of drilling fluid to the vibrohammer head.161. Vibration is transmitted to the element being driven or pulled out:
a) through the "baba" vibrohammer,b) through the vibration actuator,
c) through hydraulic clamps.
162. The main influence on the ability to drive or pull out long elements is:
a) the proper selection of the carrier for the vibrohammer,
b) the length of hydraulic hoses,c) the number of operators and the number of lifts.163. When using side clamps of the vibrohammer effectively:
a) vibrations transmitted to the ground are limited,b) we save fuel for the power supply,
c) limitations regarding the length of driven elements and their driving location are eliminated.
164. Which of the listed elements is not part of the hydraulic system:
a) pump, distributor, actuator,b) hydraulic lock, hydraulic oil tank,
c) starter, alternator.
165. The hydraulic lock in the machine is:
a) a valve responsible for controlling the entire hydraulic system,b) the closure of the hydraulic oil inlet at its tank,
c) a valve protecting against uncontrolled movement of the element located in a given line.
166. The change of hydraulic oil pressure into mechanical motion is the responsibility of:
a) hydraulic actuator and hydraulic motor,
b) hydraulic pump system,c) hydraulic distributor.167. Pressure in the hydraulic system is generated by:
a) hydraulic motor,b) hydraulic actuator,
c) hydraulic pump.
168. Directing the flow of hydraulic oil to individual systems is carried out by:
a) hydraulic distributor,
b) relief valve,c) hydraulic lock.169. The safety valve protects the hydraulic system from:
a) overheating of hydraulic oil,
b) excessive pressure increase,
c) air in the hydraulic system.170. The relief valve in the hydraulic system is responsible for:
a) limiting the maximum working pressure in a given circuit,
b) maintaining a constant position of the working tool,c) venting the system.171. If the pressure in a hydraulic system rises excessively, the excess oil will be directed to:
a) hydraulic oil filter,b) distributor,
c) hydraulic oil tank.
172. The basic parameters that characterize an electric accumulator are:
a) rated voltage [V], resistance [Ω], power [W],b) rated voltage [V], power [W], mass [kg],
c) rated voltage [V], capacity [Ah], starting current [A].
173. Lead-acid batteries can be charged:
a) in any room,b) only in an air-conditioned room,
c) in a place specifically designated for this purpose.
174. The hydraulic distributor:
a) directs the flow of hydraulic oil to the appropriate sections,
b) converts mechanical energy into hydraulic energy,c) increases the torque in the side transmission.175. The hydraulic distributor is a device that:
a) allows control of individual hydraulic sections of the machine,
b) distributes oil between the small and large circuits,c) distributes oil between the engine and the hydraulic system.176. The flow and direction of hydraulic fluid in the system are regulated by:
a) hydraulic pumps,b) hydraulic motors,
c) hydraulic valves.
177. Elements of the system, such as actuators and hydraulic motors, convert hydraulic energy into:
a) pressure in the tank,
b) mechanical energy,
c) electrical energy.178. Energy from the power supply device to the vibrating device is transmitted via:
a) hydraulic bus,
b) high voltage electrical wires,c) mechanical transmission.179. The hydraulic bus in the power supply system for vibrating devices serves the function of:
a) transmitting hydraulic pressure to drive the vibrating device,
b) directly supporting the device during operation,c) dissipating excess thermal energy from the device.180. Hydraulic flow in the vibro hammer system sets the vibrating transmission in motion via:
a) direct pressure exerted on the transmission,
b) hydraulic motor,
c) control valve.181. The most important element of the operator's cabin equipment from the perspective of his safety is:
a) emergency STOP button,
b) seat belt,
c) mirror or camera.182. Mirrors and reversing camera in the machine are used for:
a) improving the operator's visibility and increasing safety,
b) monitoring the technical condition of the machine,c) facilitating the maneuvering of working equipment.183. The green flashing light placed on the machine's cabin signals, among other things:
a) correct fastening of the seat belts,
b) absence of the operator in the cabin,c) activated eco mode of the machine.184. Electrical systems of machines and technical devices should be equipped with a device that causes emergency stop in at least the following quantity:
a) three devices causing emergency stop, in accordance with the European machinery directive,b) two devices causing emergency stop placed on both sides of the machine, in accordance with the European machinery directive,
c) one device causing emergency stop, in accordance with the European machinery directive.
185. The emergency stop device of the machine is a component of:
a) fuel system,b) drive system,
c) electrical system.
186. The frequency and scope of periodic maintenance of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam:
a) are included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine,
b) are included in the IBWR documentation,c) is determined by the owner of the machine/technical device.187. The operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device is:
a) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device,
b) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by the health and safety services on the construction site,c) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device, which includes among others the IBWR.188. The operator of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is not allowed to:
a) check the technical condition of the machine/technical device during operation,
b) use the machine/technical device for purposes other than intended,
c) make any repairs or maintenance.189. A symptom of too low a level of hydraulic oil may be:
a) loud operation of the starter,
b) "jerky" intermittent movement of hydraulic actuators,
c) uneven operation of the diesel engine.190. If the warning light for too low engine oil pressure comes on, the operator:
a) does not have to take any action,b) can continue working if the hydraulic system is functioning properly,
c) should stop working and turn off the engine.
191. Operating and maintenance instructions for the machine/technical device:
a) is established by the owner or user of the machine,b) is used to record information about faults,
c) includes, among other things, information about hazards during the operation of the machine/technical device.
192. The CE Declaration of Conformity is a document:
a) in which the manufacturer confirms that their product meets all applicable EU requirements regarding safety, health protection, and the environment,
b) confirming that the product was manufactured in the countries of the European Union,c) issued by institutions that test machines for resistance to weather conditions.193. Information regarding the use of personal protective equipment and ways to limit the occupational risk the operator can find:
a) in the service book,
b) in the operating and maintenance instructions for the machine/technical device,
c) in the CE Declaration of Conformity.194. The operating and maintenance instructions for the machine/technical device:
a) are created by institutions that conduct testing and accreditation of machine/technical device prototypes before allowing them for serial production,b) is created by the construction manager based on information from the manufacturer,
c) is developed by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device or the entity that introduces the machine/technical device to the market.
195. The operating and maintenance instructions for the machine/technical device:
a) do not matter where they are located, the most important thing is that the owner of the machine has them in case of resale of the machine,b) should be kept in the office along with the company's documentation and be available in case of inspection,
c) should be located in the machine or with the device, treated as part of the machine/technical device and be available at any time.
196. Identification data of the machine/technical device:
a) due to their importance, they are always printed in red,
b) they are located on the nameplate of the machine/technical device, and may additionally be in the marking locations described in the manual,
c) they should be noted on the inner side of the protective helmet assigned to the given machine/technical device.197. To minimize the risk of machine/technical device failure, the operator should:
a) perform maintenance activities only when the machine/technical device stops working,b) use the machine/technical device until the failure becomes serious,
c) regularly visually assess the condition of the machine/technical device and report any noticed irregularities.
198. The operator uses the operating and maintenance manual of the machine or device to:
a) record the hours worked and fuel consumption by the machine,b) record all faults of the machine or device noticed during operation,
c) learn the technical specifications, health and safety rules, and methods of repairing faults.
199. The SAE designation on the oil refers to:
a) the multi-season qualification of the oil,b) the pressure of the engine oil,
c) the viscosity of the engine oil, that is, its ability to flow and lubricate.
200. Oil with the SAE 15W-40 symbol means that:
a) at negative temperatures, it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 15W, and at positive temperatures, those of summer oil class SAE 40,
b) at positive temperatures, it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 15W,c) at positive temperatures, it has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40.201. Oil with the symbol SAE 10W-30 means that:
a) at positive temperature it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W,
b) at negative temperature it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W, and at positive temperature of summer oil class SAE 30,
c) at negative temperature it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 30.202. The symbol SAE 10W-30 means:
a) hydraulic oil with specified parameters,
b) multi-season engine oil with specified parameters,
c) a mixture of engine oil and hydraulic oil.203. Engine oil with the symbol SAE 5W-40 means that:
a) at negative temperature it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 5W, and at positive temperature of summer oil class SAE 40,
b) at negative temperature it has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40,c) at positive temperature it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 5W.
204. The symbol of the warning light shown in the graphic means:
a) low engine oil pressure,b) low coolant level,
c) low engine oil level.
205. The symbol of the warning light shown in the graphic means:
a) low coolant level,
b) low engine oil pressure,
c) low fuel level.
206. The presented symbol of the indicator means:
a) engine oil,
b) hydraulic oil,c) engine oil filter.
207. The presented symbol of the indicator means:
a) level of hydraulic oil,
b) level of engine oil,
c) level of engine coolant.208. In case of the need to dismantle the cover/protection for maintenance, it is not allowed to:
a) start working with the device without installing the cover/protection,
b) reinstall the cover/protection,c) record such a fact in the documentation.209. The operator's seat cannot be adjusted when:
a) the engine is not started,
b) the machine is in motion,
c) the seat is turned backwards.210. If during daily technical maintenance before work the operator notices that one of the windows in the cabin is cracked, then:
a) he can start working provided that the window is only cracked and has not "fallen out",b) he can start working if it is not the front window,
c) he should not start working.
211. Before starting work, the operator should:
a) open windows for better communication,b) install window sun shields,
c) clean the windows by removing snow, ice, and other contaminants.
212. When changing hydraulic oils, it is necessary to:
a) use only types of oils recommended by the machine manufacturer,
b) always use only biodegradable oils,c) use any type of oil.213. To ensure the technical efficiency of the working machine, it is necessary to:
a) follow technical service and maintenance according to the operating and maintenance instructions,
b) operate the machine/device only under full load,c) operate the machine/device not exceeding 50% of the permissible load.214. On the construction site, empty containers of lubricants, oil filters, and used oils should be:
a) thrown into any waste container,
b) placed in a properly marked hazardous waste container,
c) thrown into a mixed waste container.215. Stickers (pictograms) located on the machine/device are used to:
a) indicate places where one can stay without any risk,b) inform about the prohibition of approaching the machine/device,
c) convey important information about safety and the use of the machine/device.
216. Grease points in the machine should be serviced:
a) according to the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine,
b) during all breaks in work,c) always after 10 hours of operation.217. Engine oil with parameters 5W-50 is:
a) a multi-season oil,
b) an oil only for summer,c) an oil only for winter.218. Before starting work on a new type of machine/technical device, the operator should:
a) perform a test run,
b) familiarize themselves with the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine/technical device,
c) perform a periodic inspection.219. OTC service is:
a) daily technical service,
b) round-the-clock technical service,c) temporary technical service.220. The basic types of service are:
a) visual service, active, passive,b) round-the-clock service, multi-seasonal, annual, technological,
c) daily service, periodic, warehouse, transport.
221. The activities performed by the operator as part of daily maintenance during work are:
a) cleaning the machine,
b) auditory control of the machine's operation and observation of indicators,
c) replenishing operating fluids and daily lubrication.222. If the manufacturer has provided for operational run-in, it should be carried out:
a) without load,
b) with the load recommended in the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine/technical device,
c) with the maximum load.223. The responsibility for the placement and securing of the machine on the transport vehicle lies with:
a) the machine operator,
b) the carrier (e.g. driver),
c) the owner or the person responsible for machines in the company.224. When storing the machine, one should ensure that:
a) there are no leaks of operating fluids,
b) the machine is facing the exit,c) no documents of the machine are left in the cabin.225. Securing the machine during storage downtime involves:
a) filling the hydraulic oil tank to the top,b) disassembling all filters and protecting them from moisture,
c) cleaning the machine of dirt and corrosion.
226. The rods of hydraulic cylinders, during the technical service of the warehouse machine, should be:
a) disassembled and the seals replaced,
b) protected against corrosion,
c) dismantled and cleaned.227. During the daily operation of the machine, the condition of should be checked:
a) the working pressure values in the hydraulic system,
b) the connections and tightness of the hydraulic system,
c) the tools and equipment.228. Information regarding faults, their codes, and methods of removal can be found in a document called:
a) construction machine book,b) daily report,
c) operating and maintenance manual.
229. The purpose of lubrication in working machines is:
a) to reduce friction,
b) to increase the engine speed,c) to raise the temperature of cooperating elements.230. One of the goals of warehouse service is:
a) to prepare the machine for transport for the future user,
b) to protect the machine from corrosion and other harmful factors during long-term storage,
c) to repair damaged machine elements before the next season.231. The frequency of performing periodic technical service depends on:
a) the number of hours worked (engine hours),
b) the number of completed working cycles,c) the production date of the machine.232. Activities performed as part of daily technical service (OTC) carried out during the operation of the machine include:
a) observation of control and measurement instruments and monitoring the proper operation of the machine using sight, hearing, and smell,
b) primarily the sensory inspection of the proper functioning of the machine's working system,c) observation only of control and measurement indicators such as: oil pressure, engine temperature, hydraulic oil temperature.233. We distinguish, among others, the following types of technical services:
a) transport, arrival, storage, service-repair (ON), catalog,
b) transport, arrival, daily, periodic, seasonal, storage,
c) arrival, daily, periodic, seasonal, storage, emergency, night.234. We perform technical services in order to:
a) extend the lifespan and ensure the safe operation of the machine or technical device,
b) maintain the value of the machine or technical device at a constant, unchanged level,c) ensure quiet operation of the machine or technical device.235. When checking the technical condition of clamping pliers:
a) the level of hydraulic oil should be checked and the clamping force should be measured,