Road rollers class II
Study mode
Question of 354
1. What is the minimum allowable distance of the machine from the reach of the wedge of the collapse?
a) 0.4 [m],b) 0.8 [m],
c) 0.6 [m].
2. The safe distance of the machine from the excavation is:
a) depth of the excavation + 0.6 [m],b) 1.6 [m],
c) the reach of the wedge of the collapse + 0.6 [m].
3. Based on the presented table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] made in cohesive soils:
a) 1 [m],
b) 1.6 [m],
c) 2.6 [m].4. Based on the presented table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] made in fractured rocks:
a) 2.6 [m],b) 4.6 [m],
c) 3.6 [m].
5. Based on the presented table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] made in slightly cohesive soils:
a) 3.1 [m],
b) 2.6 [m],c) 3.6 [m]. Road rollers Class II6. What is the minimum safe distance from the UPPER edge of the embankment that a machine can approach, given the following data: Soil category - I (dry sand), height of the embankment - h = 2 [m], horizontal distance between the upper and lower edges of the embankment - a = 2.5 [m]?
a) 0.6 [m],b) 3.6 [m],
c) 1.1 [m].
7. What is the minimum safe distance from the UPPER edge of the embankment that a machine can approach, given the following data: Soil category - II (slightly cohesive soils), height of the embankment - h = 4 [m], horizontal distance between the upper and lower edges of the embankment - a = 2.5 [m]?
a) 5.6 [m],b) 0.6 [m],
c) 3.1 [m].
8. What is the horizontal distance from the outermost wires for power lines with a rated voltage not exceeding 1 [kV] within which the operation of a machine or technical device is permitted?
a) not less than 3 [m],
b) not less than 2 [m],c) not less than 5 [m].9. What is the horizontal distance from the outermost wires for power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV] within which the operation of a machine or technical device is permitted?
a) not less than 5 [m],
b) not less than 15 [m],c) not less than 10 [m].10. What is the horizontal distance from the outermost wires for power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV] within which the operation of a machine or technical device is permitted?
a) not less than 5 [m],b) not less than 15 [m],
c) not less than 10 [m].
11. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?
a) not less than 20 [m],
b) not less than 15 [m],
c) not less than 10 [m].12. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?
a) not less than 30 [m],
b) not less than 15 [m],c) not less than 10 [m].13. Is it possible to organize workstations in the danger zone under overhead power lines?
a) yes, always,
b) yes, but only after meeting additional requirements,
c) no, never.
14. What is the safe distance X for the operation of a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [V]?
a) not less than 30 [m],
b) not less than 3 [m],
c) not less than 5 [m].15. What is the safe distance X for the operation of a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV]?
a) not less than 5 [m],
b) not less than 15 [m],c) not less than 10 [m].16. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?
a) not less than 10 [m],
b) not less than 30 [m],c) not less than 15 [m].17. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?
a) not less than 5 [m],b) not less than 15 [m],
c) not less than 10 [m].
18. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV]?
a) not less than 30 [m],
b) not less than 15 [m],
c) not less than 50 [m].19. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV]?
a) not less than 30 [m],b) not less than 15 [m],
c) not less than 10 [m].
20. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]?
a) not less than 30 [m],
b) not less than 40 [m],c) not less than 3 [m].21. Work in the danger zone (overhead high voltage power line):
a) may be carried out provided that the line is disconnected from the voltage, the work is performed in an area limited by groundings and at least one grounding is visible from the work site,
b) may be carried out provided that permission from the site manager has been granted,c) under no circumstances may be carried out under electrical lines in the danger zone.22. The operator must perform work at a distance X from the active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [V]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 2 [m],
b) 5 [m],
c) 1 [m].23. The operator must perform work at a distance X from the active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 3 [m],
b) 15 [m],
c) 5 [m].24. The operator must perform work at a distance X from the active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 50 [m],
b) 15 [m],c) 5 [m].25. If the injured person has a detectable pulse but is not breathing, then:
a) the airways should be cleared and artificial respiration started,
b) he should not be touched,c) cardiac massage should be performed.26. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, one should primarily:
a) give the injured medication,b) move away from the accident scene to call a doctor,
c) provide assistance to those in life-threatening situations.
27. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, one should primarily:
a) provide assistance to those in life-threatening situations,
b) take care of one's own safety,
c) move away from the accident scene to call a doctor.28. The obligation to provide first aid to accident victims rests with:
a) everyone, as one can always perform part of the rescue tasks,
b) only those with medical training,c) everyone, but criminal liability always threatens for mistakes made.29. The accident victim regained consciousness after a few minutes and wants to go home. In such a situation, one should:
a) allow her to go home, recommending a visit to a doctor,b) give her something to drink and painkillers,
c) persuade her to stay and call for medical help.
30. First aid in a situation where a foreign body has entered the eye of the injured person consists of:
a) rinsing with distilled water directing the stream to the center of the eye,
b) rinsing with clean water directing the stream from the nose outward from the eye,
c) rinsing the eye with eye drops.31. The injured person cut their leg on an unsecured sharp element. Providing first aid in this situation is:
a) applying sterile gauze, wrapping the wound with a bandage,
b) sticking a plaster directly on the wound,c) using a tourniquet.32. Suspecting spinal injury in a person who has fallen from a height and is conscious, one should:
a) not move them and wait for medical services to arrive,
b) place them in the recovery position,c) sit them in a semi-reclining position.33. To move away from the place where the electric wire has been broken and the area is live, one should:
a) run as quickly as possible to a place that we assess as safe,
b) leave the place slowly, taking small steps, trying to maintain continuous contact of the feet with the ground,
c) quickly, taking large steps, move away from the source of electric shock by lifting the feet high.34. First aid in the case of a first-degree burn is:
a) applying greasy cream to the burned area,b) applying ointment to the burned area,
c) pouring cold water on the burned area.
35. During work, a high voltage power line was broken, as a result of which a colleague was electrocuted. In this situation, the correct behavior is:
a) call other colleagues for help with the injured person,b) approach the injured person to provide first aid,
c) turn off the power source as quickly as possible.
36. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation is performed until:
a) we have confirmed that the victim has started breathing and circulation has returned,
b) the fire brigade arrives and secures the area,c) 10 minutes have passed.37. Immediate action in the case of severe bleeding from an injured upper limb includes:
a) disinfecting the wound with salicylic alcohol,
b) applying a dressing, directly compressing the bleeding site, and elevating the limb,
c) lowering the limb below heart level.38. In the case of a nosebleed, one should:
a) tilt the head back and place a cold compress on the neck,
b) lean the bleeding person's head forward, pinch the nostrils,
c) lay the injured person on their back.39. The first step in dealing with a carbon monoxide poisoning victim in a closed room is:
a) the quickest possible evacuation of the victim from that room,
b) conducting a preliminary examination,c) assessing ABC.40. First aid during seizures caused by an epileptic attack consists of:
a) protecting the victim's head from injuries,
b) seating the victim in a semi-sitting position and giving them something to drink,c) placing a wooden object in the victim's mouth to prevent biting the tongue.41. In case of suspected spinal injury in the cervical section in a conscious person, one should:
a) not allow the injured person to move their head,
b) seat the injured person in a chair with a high back,c) place the injured person in a lateral position.42. The most important thing when a person is buried under earth, sand, or gravel is:
a) notifying the family,
b) locating the injured person,
c) waiting for the arrival of the ambulance.43. First aid for a person with a metal rod embedded in their lower leg involves calling for help and:
a) moving the rod to check if the artery has been damaged,b) removing the embedded rod,
c) securing the rod to prevent movement.
44. The indication for using an AED defibrillator is:
a) severe chest pain,b) severe dizziness,
c) lack of detectable breath and pulse in the injured person.
45. During the operation of a machine/technical device, the prohibited actions for which you are taking the exam are:
a) performing daily technical service (OTS),
b) making structural changes to the machine/technical device,
c) changing the working tool.46. During the operation of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam, the prohibited activities are:
a) cleaning the machine/technical device using a product in accordance with the operating and maintenance instructions,
b) cleaning the machine/technical device using gasoline or solvents whose vapors can create flammable/explosive gas mixtures with air,
c) refueling the machine/technical device from a canister.47. During the execution of work, it is unacceptable to:
a) work near active overhead power lines at a distance less than specified by regulations,
b) work near an active power line with a rated voltage of 20 [kV] at a distance of 15 [m],c) work near an active power line with a rated voltage of 10 [kV] at a distance of 10 [m].48. The machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam can only be operated by:
a) a person who has completed training and obtained a positive result on the test conducted by the commission appointed by the Łukasiewicz Research Network – Warsaw Institute of Technology,
b) a person holding a written confirmation of course completion in the form of a plastic card,c) any adult person with technical education and a driver's license of the appropriate category.49. The rights to operate machines/technical devices for which you are taking the exam are issued by:
a) The Office of Technical Inspection (UDT),
b) The Łukasiewicz Research Network - Warsaw Institute of Technology (SBŁ - WIT),
c) The County Office appropriate for the address of the person applying for the rights.50. The rights to operate machines/technical devices for which you are taking the exam:
a) are valid for 5 years from the date of issue,
b) are valid indefinitely,
c) are valid for 10 years from the date of issue.51. A person holding a license to operate: "Road rollers class II" may operate based on it:
a) road rollers and soil stabilization machines,b) road rollers limited to 12 [t] operating mass,
c) all road rollers, but this does not grant rights to any other machines/technical devices.
52. An employee operating a machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam may start work provided that:
a) the machine/technical device has a valid UDT inspection,b) they have a valid category D driving license,
c) they have the qualifications to operate this type of machine/technical device.
53. In the event of a threat to life, health, property, or the environment caused by a malfunction of the machine/technical device, the operator:
a) continues working, but at the end of the shift makes the appropriate entry in the maintenance book,b) continues working, but at the end of the shift informs the supervisor of the situation,
c) immediately stops work and informs the supervisor of this fact.
54. An employee operating a machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam has the right to refuse to start work when:
a) they have the required personal protective equipment,b) there is an overhead power line with a rated voltage of 110 [kV] located 35 meters away,
c) this work requires special psychophysical fitness, and their psychophysical state does not ensure its safe performance and poses a threat to others.
55. An employee operating a machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is obliged to stop work when:
a) they have the required personal protective equipment,
b) the work they are performing poses an immediate threat to the health or life of others,
c) there is an overhead power line located 35 meters away.56. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is required to:
a) always have a category B driving license,b) independently perform all current repairs of the machine/technical device,
c) comply with the provisions of the operating and maintenance instructions for the machine/technical device.
57. The person directly responsible for the safe operation of the machine for which you are taking the exam is:
a) the owner of the machine,b) the construction manager,
c) the machine operator.
58. The operator's book and qualifications for the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam are issued by:
a) Transport Technical Supervision (TDT),
b) Łukasiewicz Research Network - Warsaw Institute of Technology,
c) Technical Supervision Office (UDT).59. The obligation to use personal protective equipment:
a) arises from the operating and maintenance instructions and health and safety regulations,
b) arises only from internal regulations,c) does not apply on hot days.60. An employee who witnesses an accident at work:
a) only needs to inform their supervisor,b) is obliged to provide assistance to the victims and then immediately leave the scene of the accident,
c) is obliged to provide assistance to the victims, inform their supervisor, and if necessary secure the accident site.
61. What elements of the machine, for which you are taking the exam, protect the operator in case the machine tips over:
a) machine seat,
b) ROPS type machine cabin and safety belts,
c) certified protective helmet and reflective vest.62. In case of loss of stability by a machine equipped with a ROPS type cabin, the operator should:
a) try to leave the cabin as quickly as possible (before the machine tips over),b) quickly turn left and raise the working equipment as high as possible,
c) maintain a seated position while holding tightly to the steering wheel or other stable elements in the cabin.
63. In case of loss of stability by a machine equipped with a ROPS type cabin, the operator should:
a) immediately jump out of the cabin,b) turn on the warning/hazard lights,
c) remain in the cabin.
64. The danger zone is defined as:
a) a place where work requiring specialized equipment is carried out, and the presence of people is only allowed at night,b) a place where workers must only wear protective helmets,
c) a place where there are threats to the health and life of people.
65. The danger zone on a construction site:
a) is always designated by a surveyor,b) is designated after the construction work has started,
c) is designated and/or fenced and marked in a way that prevents access to unauthorized persons.
66. The area that the operator should check and secure before starting work with the machine/technical device (because there are health and life hazards) is called:
a) high-risk zone,
b) danger zone,
c) dead zone.
67. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:
a) "move in the indicated direction",
b) "lift up",c) "rotate the machine".
68. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:
a) "rotate the machine",
b) "move in the indicated direction",
c) "lift up".
69. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:
a) "move backward",
b) "move forward",
c) "fast movement".
70. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:
a) "move backward",
b) "move forward",c) "slow movement".
71. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "STOP. Emergency stop",
b) "horizontal distance",c) "reverse movement".
72. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "STOP. Emergency stop",
b) "START. Beginning of direction",
c) "reverse movement".
73. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "STOP. Break - end of movement",
b) "STOP. Emergency stop",c) "reverse movement".
74. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "lower down",b) "horizontal distance",
c) "END. Stop operation".
75. During the charging of batteries, a gas with highly explosive properties is released. This gas is:
a) ethane,b) methane,
c) hydrogen.
76. Firefighting foam can be used to extinguish fires of group:
a) A and B,
b) C and D,c) only C.77. Improper use of a snow extinguisher can result in:
a) fainting,
b) frostbite caused by the extinguishing agent,
c) burns from the elements of the extinguisher.78. Water, fire blanket, powder extinguisher, carbon dioxide, sand are extinguishing agents that we will use to extinguish:
a) liquids,
b) solids,
c) oils.79. We can call sorbents:
a) materials made from natural or synthetic substances that absorb liquids,
b) petroleum-derived substances,c) fire blankets.80. Group A fires concern:
a) solids, whose normal combustion occurs with the formation of glowing coals, e.g. wood, paper, etc.,
b) flammable liquids,c) flammable gases.81. Group B fires concern:
a) liquids and solid materials that melt, e.g. plastics, fuels, oils, etc.,
b) metals, e.g. magnesium, sodium, potassium, aluminum, titanium, etc.,c) flammable gases.82. Group C fires concern:
a) solids,
b) gases, e.g. methane, propane, acetylene, hydrogen,
c) flammable liquids.
83. Seeing such a pictogram you are informed about:
a) danger zone,b) a larger number of people in a given area,
c) the assembly point during evacuation.
84. While working you noticed a sign marked 'Zone 0'. It informs about:
a) a zone of a certain fire hazard category,
b) a space where an explosive atmosphere exists,
c) a zone of existing fire load in the building.
85. The presented pictogram informs about:
a) internal hydrant,
b) set of fire protection equipment,
c) main power switch.
86. Seeing such a pictogram, you are informed about:
a) emergency exit,
b) assembly point during evacuation,c) first aid station.
87. Seeing such a pictogram, you are informed about:
a) location of the fire extinguisher,
b) prohibition of using the fire extinguisher,c) high temperature affecting the fire extinguisher.88. You see a person whose clothing is on fire and who is running away in panic. Your reaction is:
a) you wave your arms or outer garment strongly next to him to extinguish the burning clothing,
b) you try to stop him, lay him on the ground, and start extinguishing,
c) you tell him to wait in an upright position for the arrival of rescue services.89. Electrical devices and installations can be extinguished using:
a) powder or snow extinguishers,
b) foam extinguishers,c) water.90. Burning fuel can be extinguished using:
a) powder, foam, or snow extinguishers,
b) water,c) low-octane ethylene.91. Burning clothing on a person can be extinguished using:
a) snow or powder extinguisher,
b) water mist extinguisher or fire blanket,
c) plastic material.92. What obligations does an employee have if they decide to refrain from work due to health and safety regulations?
a) There are no obligations in this situation,
b) They must immediately notify their supervisor,
c) They should organize work for others.93. How can an operator prevent hazards in the workplace?
a) By using personal protective equipment to minimize risk,
b) By ignoring health and safety rules,c) By not reporting faults in machines.94. It is not permissible to position a workplace directly under active overhead power lines or at a horizontal distance from the outermost wires of less than:
a) for lines: 1 [kV] - 3 [m], 15 [kV] - 5 [m], 30 [kV] - 10 [m], 110 [kV] - 15 [m], 400 [kV] - 30 [m],
b) for all voltages - 1 [m] from the power line,c) for lines: 1 [kV] - 1 [m], 15 [kV] - 3 [m], 30 [kV] - 5 [m], 110 [kV] - 10 [m].95. How does the operator know what personal protective equipment is required for a given machine/technical device?
a) The operator must independently choose the appropriate protective measures,b) The choice of personal protective equipment depends on the opinions of colleagues at work,
c) Information about the necessary personal protective equipment is included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine.
96. The operator should refuse to perform the task when:
a) the work is being done at night,
b) the work is inconsistent with the intended use of the machine/technical device,
c) the work requires familiarization with the location of underground and overhead utilities.97. The operator can prevent hazards while operating the machine/technical device by:
a) inattention and routine,
b) following health and safety rules and adhering to the operating instructions,
c) limiting the use of personal protective equipment.98. Which of the following situations is unacceptable during the use of the machine/technical device?
a) The presence of unauthorized persons in the danger zone caused by the operation of the machine/technical device,
b) Operating the machine without supervision,c) Reporting faults directly to the supervisor.99. An accident at work is considered to be:
a) a sudden event related to the work being performed, caused by an external factor, resulting in injury or death,
b) a prolonged event related to the work being performed, caused by an internal factor, resulting in equipment damage,c) a sudden event unrelated to the work being performed, caused by an external factor, resulting in injury or death.100. A fatal accident at work is considered to be an accident in which death occurred:
a) more than 6 months after the date of the accident,b) only at the moment of the accident,
c) within a period not exceeding 6 months from the date of the accident.
101. How should one behave when driving a road roller on slopes?
a) One should always stop at the edge of the slope,b) One should drive across the slope,
c) One should drive straight up or straight down, avoiding driving across the slope.
102. It is prohibited to:
a) operate a machine after completing training and obtaining the appropriate qualifications,b) report noticed defects to a supervisor before starting work,
c) allow unauthorized persons within the reach of the machine's operation and work on slopes exceeding the permissible incline.
103. When getting on and off the machine, it is prohibited to:
a) use the control lever as support,
b) face the machine when getting on and off,c) intensively use the handrails and steps.104. Health and safety regulations require:
a) conducting a warranty inspection of the working machine before one year from its purchase,b) scrapping the old working machine within the time specified in its operating and maintenance manual, while adhering to the requirements for the disposal of hazardous materials,
c) securing the working machine during breaks in its operation against accidental activation by unauthorized persons.
105. In the event of a person being electrocuted:
a) one must not touch the victim until the power source is disconnected,
b) it is recommended to use any tools to disconnect the power, regardless of their actual purpose,c) one should immediately begin resuscitation, regardless of whether the power source has been disconnected.106. In the case of a person being buried under earth or sand:
a) you should dig them out as quickly as possible, if it is safe for the person undertaking the rescue action,
b) we always calmly wait for the rescue services - any attempt to help would be too dangerous,c) you should dig them out as quickly as possible regardless of your own safety - it's about their life.107. Seeing a person whose clothes are on fire, you should first:
a) leave the victim standing to facilitate air access and extinguish the flames faster,
b) cut off the air supply by rolling the victim or wrapping them in a fire blanket, wet clothing, or a wet blanket,
c) use a fire extinguisher, preferably a snow extinguisher, to extinguish the burning clothing, and then try to quickly remove the melted clothing.108. The wedge of ground collapse:
a) occurs only when the ground is in a frozen state,b) is the area around the working machine extending a distance of 6 [m] beyond its farthest reach,
c) occurs when the slope of the embankment exceeds the angle of the natural ground slope.
109. The reach of the wedge of ground collapse:
a) depends on the speed of the machine's operation and the efficiency of the operator,
b) depends on the depth of the excavation and the category of the ground,
c) depends solely on the temperature of the ground.110. The angle of the natural slope is:
a) the angle at which the ground will definitely slide by itself - depends solely on the temperature of that ground,b) the angle at which the machine can be safely operated - it depends on the parameters of the given machine,
c) the maximum slope at which the ground can remain without sliding - it depends, among other things, on the category of the ground.
111. Rules and methods of marking works carried out on public roads 'under traffic':
a) define the regulations regarding permanent road marking, which do not take into account temporary changes in traffic,
b) defines the Temporary Traffic Organization Project, which presents the types and methods of placing road signs, traffic lights, sound signals, and traffic safety devices,
c) is determined solely by the construction manager's decision, without the need to prepare an additional project.112. When carrying out works in the road lane:
a) workers can work without personal protective equipment, as long as the work is short-term,b) vehicles used in the works can be unmarked if they are visible up close,
c) one must familiarize themselves with the Safe Work Execution Instruction (IBWR) and use personal protective measures such as safety helmets, work shoes, and high-visibility protective clothing.
113. Soil wedge:
a) occurs when the slope of the embankment exceeds the angle of the natural soil slope - its extent depends on the type of soil and the depth of the excavation or the height of the embankment,
b) is the space around the machine, dependent on the working speed of the machine and its weight,c) is the zone where the soil becomes unstable - its extent depends solely on the depth of the excavation, the type of soil does not matter here.114. The angle of the natural slope is:
a) the maximum slope at which the soil can remain without sliding - it depends on the type of soil, e.g., moisture, cohesion, and grain size,
b) the angle at which the machine can safely move on the embankment, regardless of the soil category,c) the slope at which any embankment becomes unstable, regardless of the type of soil.115. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is performed:
a) only in the case of fainting and minor injuries, to improve blood circulation,
b) when the injured person is not breathing and there is no detectable pulse. For a non-professional rescuer, the absence of breathing is a sufficient basis to start resuscitation,
c) when the injured person is breathing but is unconscious and unresponsive.116. An employee has the right to refrain from performing work due to health and safety regulations, notifying their supervisor immediately if:
a) the working conditions do not pose a threat, but are too difficult for them,
b) the working conditions pose a direct threat to health or life,
c) the work they are performing has not been reported to the construction supervision.117. Physical factors generating hazards in the workplace are:
a) spilled lubricants, oils, and fuels,
b) lack of or inadequate training for employees,c) lack of appropriate medical examinations for the employee.118. Working with a machine/technical device is unacceptable when:
a) its repair was carried out after dark,
b) it is malfunctioning,
c) the second operator did not report an upcoming inspection.119. Working near overhead power lines:
a) always requires double grounding of the line,b) always requires power to be turned off in the line,
c) is possible without meeting additional requirements provided that certain distances depending on the rated voltage of the line are maintained.
120. The operator is obliged to refuse to undertake work if:
a) they would have to work under power lines, and the voltage in them has been turned off and the line grounded,
b) the machine is malfunctioning,
c) there is no construction manager or any other person authorized to supervise at the work site.121. The danger zone of a machine/technical device is:
a) a place where the machine/technical device cannot be used,b) always the entire fenced construction site,
c) a place where there are hazards to health or life of people.
122. What rules should be followed when getting on and off a road roller:
a) you can only get on and off the roller when it is stationary, using the handles and three points of support,
b) you can get off the roller backwards to the machine, but always using the handles and three points of support,c) you can get on the roller when it is moving slowly on a cold surface, always using the handles and three points of support.123. Accidents at work resulting from the poor technical condition of the working machine may involve, for example:
a) failure of the drive system,
b) injury to a limb, torso, or head,
c) damage to the equipment.124. Unacceptable behaviors are:
a) performing daily maintenance of the machine after dark,b) working after dark in a well-lit area, with full concentration of the operator,
c) operating a faulty machine and working under the influence of alcohol.
125. General rules for safely getting on and off a machine are:
a) a person should face the machine, remember the "three-point support" rule, and use only specially made steps and handrails,
b) using cables and levers as aids when getting on is permissible when the machine is turned off,c) you can descend backwards to the machine, but only when the steps are slippery.126. The basic duties of an employee in the field of OHS are:
a) adhering to OHS regulations and principles, taking care of the condition of machines and tools, and maintaining order in the workplace, using personal protective equipment,
b) enforcing labor code regulations regarding their rights, including payment for overtime worked,c) not being late for work, finishing on time, confirming presence at work in the manner accepted by the employer.127. In the case of a person electrocuted, after disconnecting the power source, one should:
a) move the injured person to another place as quickly as possible,
b) check the condition of the injured person, and if necessary: call for help, clear the airways, perform resuscitation, and use an AED if available,
c) leave the injured person if they have regained consciousness, without further actions.128. When a person buried in earth or sand is partially dug out, one should:
a) focus on digging out the lower parts of the injured person's body,b) quickly dig out the left arm to check for a pulse,
c) quickly clear the airways.
129. After extinguishing flames on a person with burns and calling for help, one should:
a) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes, without tearing off the embedded clothing,
b) use a snow extinguisher to cool the burn area,c) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes, first tearing off the embedded clothing.130. For optical marking of works carried out in the road lane, the following are used:
a) only traffic lights, flashing,b) traffic cones in any well-visible color and uniform red obstacles placed at the work site,
c) traffic cones in red or orange, and after dark, cones with white reflective stripes and separators.
131. What markings should vehicles and machines used for work in the road strip have?
a) Vehicles and machines should be marked only when working after dark. The method of marking is specified in the operating and maintenance instructions of the given machine,
b) Vehicles should be equipped with yellow light signals visible from at least 150 m, and machines on the roadway should be marked with road barriers with reflective elements and warning lights,
c) Vehicles should use light signals of any color visible from a distance. Other machines do not need to be additionally marked.
132. Seeing such a pictogram, you are informed about:
a) the location where a first aid kit is available,
b) the location where an external automatic defibrillator is available,
c) the location for performing AED.133. Properly performed cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) consists of:
a) connecting an external automatic defibrillator (AED) and following its instructions; without AED, CPR is not performed,b) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 30-60 times per minute to a depth of 1–3 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 15 compressions (breaths are mandatory),
c) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 100-120 times per minute to a depth of 5–6 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 30 compressions (breaths are not mandatory).
134. The abbreviation IBWR stands for:
a) Instruction for Safe Execution of Work,
b) Instruction for Failure-Free Execution of Work,c) Instruction for Failure-Free Execution of Work.135. Expand the abbreviation IBWR:
a) Implementation of Failure-Free Execution of Work,
b) Instruction for Safe Execution of Work,
c) Information on Safe Execution of Work.136. The Safe Execution of Construction Works Instruction is:
a) a document confirming the qualifications for operating machines and technical devices in earthworks, construction, and road works,b) a road plan in construction works,
c) a document containing information regarding safety on the construction site.
137. The BIOZ Plan means:
a) Health and Safety Plan,
b) Safety and Resource Specification Plan,c) Safe Health Protection Instruction Plan.138. A vehicle performing cleaning, repair, or modernization work on the road should send:
a) red flashing signals,
b) yellow flashing signals,
c) orange flashing signals.139. To be able to direct traffic during work in the road lane, it is required to:
a) have qualifications to operate all machines working on the section to which traffic direction applies,
b) have a valid certificate of completion of a traffic directing course and be visible from a sufficient distance,
c) have qualifications to operate at least one of the machines and appropriate personal protective equipment.
140. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 1 [m],
b) 1.6 [m],c) 4 [m].141. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 1 [m],b) 1.6 [m],
c) 1.5 [m].
142. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 0.5 [m],
b) 1.6 [m],c) 1 [m].143. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 2 [m],
b) 1 [m],
c) 1.6 [m].144. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 1.6 [m],
b) 2 [m],
c) 1 [m].145. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 1 [m],b) 2 [m],
c) 3 [m].
146. The reach of the wedge of the block for an excavation with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 3 [m],
b) 4 [m],
c) 2.6 [m].147. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 2.6 [m],b) 1 [m],
c) 1.6 [m].
148. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 6.6 [m],b) 3.6 [m],
c) 2.1 [m].
149. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 2 [m],
b) 2.6 [m],
c) 4.6 [m].150. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 2.6 [m],b) 2 [m],
c) 1.1 [m].
151. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category III (cracked rocks) is:
a) 2.6 [m],
b) 1.6 [m],
c) 2 [m].152. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category III (cracked rocks) is:
a) 4.6 [m],b) 2 [m],
c) 2.6 [m].
153. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category III (cracked rocks) is:
a) 3 [m],b) 2.1 [m],
c) 3.6 [m].
154. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category III (cracked rocks) is:
a) 2.6 [m],b) 4 [m],
c) 4.6 [m].
155. Traffic safety devices used in road works conducted in the road strip may be colored:
a) white, green, blue,b) red, yellow-red, blue,
c) white, red, yellow, and black.
156. Traffic safety devices used to secure and mark the work site in the road lane should be visible:
a) only during the day,b) only at night,
c) both day and night.
157. Persons performing work in the area of 2-lane roads and highways should have:
a) orange flashing lights,
b) class III high-visibility clothing,
c) red warning clothing.158. In a situation of danger, when the cabin doors cannot be opened:
a) one must not leave the cabin until help arrives,
b) the emergency exit provided by the manufacturer should be used,
c) the space can be used as an emergency exit after removing the floor panel.159. In the case of mechanical damage to the FOPS/ROPS cabin (e.g., denting of a cabin element) the operator:
a) can repair the damage on their own without wasting time on downtime,b) can continue working if the cabin windows are intact,
c) should stop working and report the failure to the supervisor or the person responsible for machines in the company.
160. In the case of mechanical damage to the FOPS/ROPS cabin (e.g., denting of a cabin element) the operator:
a) can always repair such damage on their own,b) can repair such damage on their own, but only based on the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine,
c) cannot repair such damage on their own.
161. If the seat belt is damaged, you should:
a) exercise special caution while working,
b) report the damage and not start work until the belt is repaired or replaced,
c) continue working and report the problem after finishing work.162. The operator must wear a safety helmet while working with the machine when:
a) working in a machine not equipped with a closed cabin,
b) frequently leaning out of the cabin while working,c) working on demolition tasks using long booms.163. You should enter and exit the machine:
a) sideways, being careful of the devices in the cabin,b) backwards to the machine, using a three-step ladder,
c) facing the machine, maintaining three points of contact.
164. The required number of passes of the roller during compaction of the surface can be influenced by:
a) high susceptibility of the bituminous mass to compaction,
b) low stability of the road substructure,c) ambient temperature below 15 [°C].165. The optimal temperature range for compacting the mineral-asphalt mixture using vibration and oscillation is:
a) between 160 [°C] and 140 [°C],b) between 90 [°C] and 70 [°C],
c) between 140 [°C] and 100 [°C].
166. Compacting the mineral-asphalt mixture on a curve or bend should begin:
a) from the center of the curve,b) from the higher outer edge of the road,
c) from the lower inner edge of the road.
167. Changing the pressure in the tires of a rubber-tired roller aims to:
a) reduce the noise generated by the roller during operation,
b) adjust the contact surface of the tire and its pressure on the compacted layer,
c) increase the speed of the roller during compaction.168. Compacting the longitudinal joint using the "hot to cold" method should begin:
a) from the center of the joint,b) from the hot side, entering the cold mass with part of the drum for about 10-20 [cm],
c) from the cold side, entering the hot mass with part of the drum for about 10-20 [cm].
169. The fact that the compacted mixture is too hot may be indicated by:
a) slight pressure of the material on the drum,b) peeling of the bituminous mass,
c) bulging next to the drum.
170. When rolling mineral-asphalt mixtures laid hot, it is essential to:
a) frequently stop the roller on the hot mixture for full compaction,
b) roll as close as possible to the machine spreading the mixture,
c) move the roller across the rolling lane.171. Which principle regarding the operation of a vibrating roller is correct?
a) "Compacting wearing layers is done using high amplitude and low frequency",b) "Vibration should only be turned on when going downhill on slopes",
c) "Before changing the direction of travel, vibration should be turned off".
172. During road works, smooth static rollers are used for:
a) crushing large clods of earth in the lower layers of embankments,
b) achieving a flat and smooth surface with a small depth of compaction,
c) deep compaction of cohesive soils.173. Vibrating rollers most effectively compact:
a) non-cohesive soils,
b) soils with a high clay content,c) organic soils.174. If a rubber-tired roller leaves wheel marks on the compacted surface, the operator should:
a) check the air pressure in the tires and adjust it to the condition of the surface,
b) reduce the speed of the roller,c) turn on the roller's vibration.175. The reason for the bituminous mass sticking to the roller drum may be:
a) incorrect roller speed setting,
b) too weak spraying of the drum,
c) too low ambient temperature.176. The operator of the machine should know the category of the soil on which he works:
a) to know the requirements for operating the machine's chassis,
b) to calculate the safe distance for setting up the machine and the reach of the wedge of the collapse,
c) to be able to assess the depth of the excavation.177. Conditions under which the number of passes of the roller should be increased are:
a) thick layer to be compacted and stable subgrade,
b) thin layer to be compacted and high temperature of the bituminous mass,c) low temperature of the bituminous mass and limited preliminary compaction by the machine for spreading the mixture.178. Dynamic compaction of asphalt at temperatures higher than 140 [°C] requires caution because:
a) there is a risk of material displacement and delamination,
b) asphalt hardens and may crumble,c) the temperature promotes cracking of the subgrade.179. The first compacted strip on the curve is important for the process of compacting the mineral-asphalt mixture because:
a) it creates a "resistor" that stabilizes subsequent passes of the roller,
b) it allows for faster hardening of the asphalt,c) it facilitates even distribution of bitumen in the mixture.180. The final stage of compacting the surface with a mineral-asphalt mixture without side framing is:
a) re-compacting the first rolling strip,b) compacting the middle strip of the surface,
c) compacting the narrow strips remaining on both sides of the surface.
181. Increasing the pressure in the wheels of a rubber-tired roller:
a) reduces the contact area of the tire with the ground, increasing the pressure on the layer,
b) increases the contact area of the tire with the ground, reducing the pressure on the layer,c) does not affect compaction, only improves the stability of the roller.182. Decreasing the pressure in the wheels of a rubber-tired roller:
a) reduces the contact area of the tire with the ground, increasing the pressure on the layer,b) does not affect compaction, only improves the stability of the roller,
c) increases the contact area of the tire with the ground, reducing the pressure on the layer.
183. In the "hot to cold" method, it is recommended to use only oscillation or static compaction to:
a) avoid damaging the cold asphalt,
b) increase the temperature of the cold asphalt,c) accelerate the compaction process of the hot mix.184. A too high temperature of the compacted mixture may be indicated by:
a) the mass sticking to the drum despite spraying,
b) the absence of any bulges around the drum,c) the hardening of the mixture in front of the roller drum.185. The correct order of compacting the hot mineral-asphalt mixture is:
a) compaction should start from the center of the rolling strips,b) the rolling strips should be changed in random order for an even effect,
c) first, the joints (connections) should be compacted, and then the subsequent strips.
186. The most suitable for compacting cohesive soils in embankments are:
a) padded or ribbed (grid) rollers,
b) smooth static rollers,c) vibrating rollers.187. When compacting the mixture, the operator should adjust the tire pressure of the rubber roller to the prevailing conditions in order to:
a) reduce the fuel consumption of the roller,b) increase the speed of the roller,
c) minimize leaving tire tracks on the surface.
188. When the rolled mixture starts to stick to the roller drum, the operator should:
a) stop work and reduce the temperature of the mass,b) change the direction of the roller to limit sticking,
c) increase the amount of water on the drum or clean the clogged nozzles.
189. The maximum displacement of drums in a tandem roller with a torsion beam:
a) allows for the distribution of the machine's mass over a larger area,
b) increases the compaction speed on thick layers of the surface,c) improves the roller's grip on steep slopes.190. The type of static roller most commonly used for compacting cohesive soils, such as clays and silts, is:
a) rubber roller,b) padded roller,
c) roller with a smooth steel drum.
191. The type of road roller most suitable for compaction at great depths is:
a) oscillating roller,b) static roller,
c) impact roller.
192. Pneumatic rollers are designed for:
a) smoothing asphalt surfaces,b) finishing work on concrete surfaces,
c) compacting sandy and cohesive soils with low moisture content.
193. Static rollers affect the ground in such a way that:
a) they compact the ground under the influence of the static linear pressure of the drum,
b) they use dynamic impacts of the drum for deeper compaction,c) they apply horizontal shear forces to compact the surface layer.194. For ballasting the roller, the following can be used:
a) water, sand, concrete or steel,
b) only concrete or sand,c) gravel, clay, asphalt.195. Oscillating rollers generate longitudinal force:
a) through vertical vibrations, which simultaneously enhance traction,
b) through rapid changes in the direction of the roller's rotation back and forth,
c) due to additional ballasting.196. Oscillating rollers are more effective in compacting difficult-to-compact masses because:
a) they operate with greater power, which increases the depth of compaction,
b) they do not transfer impacts to the material, which prevents grain destruction and secondary loosening,
c) their vertical impact force is stronger than that of vibratory rollers.197. The use of petroleum-derived substances on metal elements of machines transporting mineral-asphalt mass is prohibited because:
a) they can excessively shorten the binding time of the asphalt mass,
b) they can negatively affect the properties of the mixture,
c) they cause rapid wear of metal components.198. The surface and thickness of the laid mineral-asphalt mixture layer affect:
a) the number and type of road rollers necessary for its proper compaction,
b) the type of substructure made,c) the need to use drum sprinkling.199. Chips spreaders as additional equipment for rollers are used:
a) to fill gaps in mineral-asphalt surfaces,
b) to roughen the new surface by rolling chips into it,
c) to evenly distribute aggregate under the asphalt layer.200. Sets of spiked plates on rollers for earthworks are used:
a) to level sandy soil surfaces,b) during work on mineral-bituminous surfaces requiring roughening,
c) when compacting cohesive soils.
201. Working with a machine with open cabin doors is allowed:
a) only if the operating and maintenance manual of the machine provides for such a possibility,
b) only when the air temperature exceeds 25 [°C],c) always.202. The key importance for determining the required number of roller passes when compacting bituminous mass is:
a) the time of starting rolling,
b) the stability of the substructure,
c) the size of the construction site area.203. The speed of rolling affects the number of roller passes because:
a) higher speed increases the degree of compaction of the mass,
b) high speed can lead to insufficient compaction of the mass,
c) lower speed of the roller pass causes a faster drop in the temperature of the mass.204. The first rolling pass in the method of compacting MMA surfaces without framing starts at a distance of about 20 [cm] from the edge to:
a) allow better control of the compaction process at the beginning,b) roll over the pre-compacted layer of bituminous mass,
c) prevent the roller from falling to the outside of the surface.
205. When a rubber-tired or combined roller leaves wheel marks on the surface, it is necessary to:
a) change the roller to a steel roller,
b) check the air pressure in the tires and adjust it to the current compaction conditions,
c) increase the number of roller passes to level the surface.206. The properly selected combination of frequency and amplitude of the roller vibrations:
a) positively affects the composition of the mixture,b) has no significance for the efficiency of compaction,
c) positively affects the effectiveness of vibratory compaction.
207. The amplitude of the roller vibrations is:
a) the number of impacts of the roller on the ground per second,
b) the maximum displacement from the equilibrium position, expressed in units of length,
c) the number of cycles performed in a unit of time.208. The frequency of vibrations can be defined as:
a) the time an object takes to complete ten full vibrations,b) the maximum speed an object reaches during its vibrations,
c) the number of complete cycles of vibrations in one second.
209. Static linear pressure is:
a) the force of the roller's pressure referred to the unit length of the drum, expressed in [kN/m],
b) the maximum load applied to the drum during dynamic compaction,c) the depth to which vibrations penetrate into the ground.210. Soil compaction is a process aimed at:
a) changing the physical composition of the soil,b) increasing the permeability of water in the compacted soil,
c) increasing the density and load-bearing capacity of the soil by removing air and water from the pore spaces.
211. Mineral-asphalt mixture is:
a) a mixture of fine and coarse aggregate, asphalt binder, filler, and additives in appropriate proportions,
b) a material created by mixing cement, aggregate, water, and possible admixtures and additives, which is still in a state allowing compaction,c) a mixture of soil category 3 or 4, water, asphalt binder, and additives in appropriate proportions.212. Which of the listed elements are not part of the hydraulic system:
a) pump, distributor, actuator,b) hydraulic lock, hydraulic oil tank,
c) starter, alternator.
213. The hydraulic lock in a machine is:
a) a valve responsible for controlling the entire hydraulic system,b) the closure of the hydraulic oil inlet at its tank,
c) a valve protecting against uncontrolled movement of an element located in a given line.
214. The change in hydraulic oil pressure into mechanical motion is caused by:
a) hydraulic distributor,b) hydraulic pump system,
c) hydraulic actuator and hydraulic motor.
215. Pressure in the hydraulic system is generated by:
a) hydraulic pump,
b) hydraulic actuator,c) hydraulic motor.216. The control of hydraulic oil flow to individual systems is carried out by:
a) hydraulic lock,b) relief valve,
c) hydraulic distributor.
217. The safety valve protects the hydraulic system from:
a) air in the hydraulic system,b) overheating of hydraulic oil,
c) excessive pressure increase.
218. The relief valve in the hydraulic system is responsible for:
a) venting the system,
b) limiting the maximum working pressure in a given circuit,
c) maintaining a constant position of the working tool.219. If the pressure in the hydraulic system increases excessively, the excess oil will be directed to:
a) hydraulic oil filter,b) distributor,
c) hydraulic oil tank.
220. The basic parameters that characterize an electric accumulator are:
a) rated voltage [V], resistance [Ω], power [W],b) rated voltage [V], power [W], mass [kg],
c) rated voltage [V], capacity [Ah], starting current [A].
221. Lead-acid batteries can be charged:
a) in a place specifically designated for this purpose,
b) only in an air-conditioned room,c) in any room.222. The pressure in the tires should be adjusted to:
a) the values given in the operating and maintenance manual,
b) the preferences of the operator,c) the requirements of the landowner.223. The hydraulic distributor:
a) increases the torque in the side transmission,b) converts mechanical energy into hydraulic energy,
c) directs the flow of hydraulic oil to the appropriate sections.
224. The hydraulic distributor is a device that:
a) distributes oil between the engine and the hydraulic system,b) distributes oil between the small circuit and the large circuit,
c) allows control of individual hydraulic sections of the machine.
225. The ROPS cabin in construction machines protects the operator from:
a) crushing in the event of the machine overturning,
b) being hit by falling objects from above,c) dust in the operator's cabin.226. ROPS cabin in construction machines protects against:
a) crushing the operator in case of the machine overturning,
b) the machine falling from a slope and rolling over,c) the machine overturning.227. The element of the hydrostatic drive system that converts the mechanical energy of the engine into hydraulic energy is:
a) rotation column,
b) hydraulic oil pump,
c) hydraulic motor or hydraulic actuator.228. The hydrostatic drive system of a roller with drive on both shafts affects its traction properties because:
a) it reduces fuel consumption during the operation of the roller,b) it eliminates the need for any additional cooling systems,
c) it reduces the tendency to push the compacted layers of material regardless of the direction of the roller's movement.
229. The type of scraper commonly used in rubber rollers is:
a) flexible plastic plates,b) steel teeth,
c) brushes.
230. A characteristic element of the hydraulic steering system in a jointed roller is:
a) mechanical clutch that assists in transferring the steering wheel movement,b) steering rod between the steering wheel and the actuators,
c) lack of mechanical connection between the steering wheel and the drums or wheels of the roller.
231. The smooth pressure roller in rubberized rollers is used for:
a) increasing the roller's grip on slippery surfaces,b) smoothing the asphalt surface across its entire width,
c) preventing water and dirt from penetrating the laid mixture.
232. Ballasting the roller is used to:
a) increase the roller's grip on slippery surfaces,b) adjust the angle of the roller drum to the working surface,
c) adjust the weight of the roller to the properties of the compacted substrate.
233. Rubber dampers prevent the transmission of vibrations to the machine:
a) only in vibratory drums,
b) in both vibratory and oscillatory drums,
c) only in oscillatory drums.234. The main advantage of the hydrostatic drive system in rollers is that:
a) it allows simultaneous powering of the roller with additional electrical functions,
b) it enables easy control of the driving direction,
c) it increases the maximum speed of the roller on asphalt roads.235. The role of scrapers in road rollers is:
a) preventing dust and asphalt from sticking to the drum and tires,
b) regulating the rotation speed of the roller drum,c) increasing the roller's grip on slippery surfaces.236. The steering mode in a tandem roller with a swivel bench that allows for "crab" driving is:
a) front steering mode only,b) synchronous mode,
c) diagonal mode.
237. The proportional control of oil flow to the steering actuators is the responsibility of:
a) orbitrol type distributor,
b) hydraulic pump,c) hydraulic safety lock.238. To achieve a smooth edge on the asphalt surface in rollers, the following is used:
a) cone-shaped drum,b) smooth pressure roller,
c) edge cutter.
239. The main reason for the transmission of vibrations from the vibration system to the entire machine during the operation of the roller is:
a) too much ballast mass of the roller,b) insufficient lubrication of the roller drum,
c) damage to the rubber dampers.
240. Damage to the ROPS frame that necessitates its replacement includes:
a) discoloration of the paint caused by weather conditions and the passage of time,b) minor surface scratches,
c) cracking or bending of the structure.
241. Drilling additional holes in the ROPS cabin structure is prohibited because:
a) it reduces the operator's comfort,
b) it causes a decrease in the strength of the structure,
c) it reduces the weight of the machine.242. The flow and direction of hydraulic fluid in the system are regulated by:
a) hydraulic pumps,
b) hydraulic valves,
c) hydraulic motors.243. Components of the system, such as actuators and hydraulic motors, convert hydraulic energy into:
a) mechanical energy,
b) electrical energy,c) pressure in the tank.244. The primary task of the hydraulic accumulator in the hydrostatic system is:
a) to regulate the temperature of the working fluid,b) to evenly distribute oil to the system receivers,
c) to store energy in the form of pressure of the working fluid.
245. In the hydrostatic system, the energy of the fluid pressure is transmitted to:
a) thermostatic, overflow, and check valves,b) oil coolers and pressure gauges,
c) hydraulic motors or hydraulic actuators.
246. The function of the FOPS protective structure is:
a) protection of the operator from the effects of exhaust fumes and noise,b) protection of the operator from the consequences of the machine overturning,
c) protection of the operator from falling objects.
247. The FOPS protective structure must necessarily be used when:
a) working where heavy elements may fall on the cabin (e.g. demolition work, in quarries, etc.),
b) underwater work,c) all earthworks.248. In a machine equipped with a ROPS or FOPS protective structure, there must exist and be used by the operator an additional safety system, which is:
a) safety helmet, safety footwear,b) safety footwear, hearing protectors, respiratory protection,
c) seat belts.
249. The ROPS protective structure in a machine:
a) is always required,
b) is not required when it is not technically possible, and there is a low risk of the machine overturning (possibility of support with a boom),c) is not required when only qualified machine operators are employed.250. Optimal damping of shocks and vibrations of the operator's seat is ensured by:
a) adjusting the seat to the weight of the operator,
b) setting the seat rigidly,c) as flexible adjustment of the seat as possible.251. The mandatory equipment used for the operator to observe the area directly behind the machine is:
a) sound signal when reversing,
b) external mirror,
c) rear camera.252. Together with the operator in the machine's cabin, other people can ride if:
a) they have undergone health and safety training with the operator and there are a maximum of 2 people,b) the machine is moving at a low speed,
c) the manufacturer has installed an additional seat.
253. The most important element of the operator's cabin equipment from the perspective of his safety is:
a) emergency STOP button,
b) seat belt,
c) mirror or camera.254. Mirrors and rear cameras in the machine are used for:
a) improving the operator's visibility and increasing safety,
b) facilitating the maneuvering of working equipment,c) checking the technical condition of the machine.255. In ROPS-type cabins, additional equipment such as phone holders can be installed independently:
a) remembering that installation is only possible on the cabin pillars,
b) provided that there is no interference with the cabin structure,
c) but this equipment must be permanently screwed to the cabin structure.256. In machines that do not have closed cabins, ROPS protection can be implemented using:
a) additional barriers mounted on the machine's body,b) machine stabilization or ballasting system,
c) rollover protection bars.
257. A green flashing light placed on the machine's cabin signals, among other things:
a) correct fastening of the seat belts,
b) absence of the operator in the cabin,c) the machine's eco mode is activated.258. In a parallel connection of two identical batteries, the voltage of such a system is:
a) the sum of the voltages of the individual batteries,
b) equal to the voltage of a single battery,
c) the product of the voltages of the individual batteries.259. In a series connection of two identical batteries, the voltage of such a system is:
a) equal to the voltage of a single battery,
b) the sum of the voltages of the individual batteries,
c) the product of the voltages of the individual batteries.260. Fuses in the machine's electrical installation protect it against the effects of:
a) high temperature,b) low voltage,
c) short circuits and overloads.
261. One of the elements of the electrical system protecting the motor from seizing is:
a) main fuse,b) speed controller,
c) engine oil pressure sensor.
262. Gel batteries, which are elements of the electrical system, do not require:
a) charging with a rectifier,
b) electrolyte replenishment,
c) replacement in case of housing damage.263. Electrical systems of machines and devices should be equipped with a device that causes emergency stop in at least the quantity of:
a) three devices causing emergency stop, according to the European machinery directive,
b) one device causing emergency stop, according to the European machinery directive,
c) two devices causing emergency stop placed on both sides of the machine, according to the European machinery directive.264. The emergency stop device of a machine is an element of:
a) drive system,b) fuel system,
c) electrical system.
265. The main parameters of a combustion engine affecting work efficiency are:
a) type of carburetor, type of ignition system,b) compression ratio, displacement,
c) torque, rotational speed.
266. The crankshaft-piston system of the internal combustion engine is designed to:
a) convert mechanical energy into hydraulic energy,
b) convert the reciprocating motion of the piston into the rotational motion of the crankshaft,
c) ensure the effective operation of the clutch.267. The lubrication system in the internal combustion engine:
a) provides regulation of the rotational speed and reduces engine vibrations during operation,b) is responsible for removing hazardous substances generated in the combustion process of the mixture,
c) is responsible for the proper lubrication of the moving elements of the engine that work together.
268. The engine timing system is used for:
a) ensuring the optimal composition of the fuel-oil-air mixture for combustion,b) damping noise and minimizing engine vibrations during operation,
c) controlling the filling of the combustion chamber with air or fuel-air mixture and controlling the emptying of this chamber of exhaust gases.
269. Systems present in internal combustion engines include, among others:
a) exhaust system, pneumatic system, closed system,
b) crankshaft-piston system, fuel supply system, cooling system,
c) hydraulic system, intake system.270. The low-pressure part of the fuel supply system of a diesel engine is:
a) fuel lines, high-pressure pump, common rail,
b) fuel tank, supply pump, filters, fuel lines,
c) fuel tank and injectors.271. The element controlling the flow of coolant in the so-called "large circuit" is:
a) thermocouple,b) hot water bottle,
c) thermostat.
272. An intercooler is:
a) another name for the engine coolant radiator,b) a device for burning solid particles in exhaust gases,
c) an air cooler for turbocharged engines.
273. DPF filter:
a) is used to reduce NOx (nitrogen oxides) emissions,
b) is a dry particulate filter responsible for capturing soot from exhaust gases,
c) is a precise cabin filter protecting the operator while working in high dust conditions.274. The frequency and scope of periodic maintenance of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam:
a) are included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine,
b) are included in the IBWR documentation,c) is determined by the owner of the machine/technical device.275. The operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device is:
a) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device,
b) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by health and safety services on the construction site,c) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device, which includes among others IBWR.276. The operator of the machine/technical device you are taking the exam for is not allowed to:
a) check the technical condition of the machine/technical device during operation,b) make any repairs or maintenance,
c) use the machine/technical device for purposes other than intended.
277. In the event of detecting tire damage that may pose a threat, the operator should:
a) notify the supervisor and cautiously continue working,b) continue working while reducing the speed and load of the machine,
c) stop working.
278. If the engine oil pressure warning light comes on, the operator:
a) does not have to take any action,b) may continue working if the hydraulic system is functioning properly,
c) should stop working and turn off the engine.
279. The cause of the machine's loss of stability may be:
a) the machine operating in a location suitable for it,
b) too low tire pressure,
c) driving on a hardened surface.280. The operating and maintenance manual for the machine/technical device:
a) is established by the owner or user of the machine,b) is used to record information about faults,
c) includes, among other things, information about hazards during the operation of the machine/technical device.
281. The CE Declaration of Conformity is a document:
a) issued by institutions dealing with testing machines for resistance to weather conditions,b) confirming that the product was manufactured in the countries of the European Union,
c) in which the manufacturer confirms that their product meets all applicable EU requirements regarding safety, health protection, and the environment.
282. The operator can find information on the use of personal protective equipment and ways to limit occupational risk:
a) in the service book,
b) in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device,
c) in the CE Declaration of Conformity.283. The operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device:
a) is created by the construction manager based on information from the manufacturer,b) is created by institutions that conduct testing and accreditation of machine/technical device prototypes before allowing them for serial production,
c) is developed by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device or the entity that places the machine/technical device on the market.
284. The operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device:
a) does not matter where it is located, the most important thing is that the owner of the machine has it in case of resale of the machine,b) should be kept in the office along with the company's documentation and be available in case of inspection,
c) should be located in the machine or with the technical device, treated as part of the machine/technical device and be available at any time.
285. Identification data of the machine/technical device:
a) should be noted on the inside of the protective helmet assigned to the given machine/technical device,
b) are located on the nameplate of the machine/technical device, additionally they may be in the marking places described in the manual,
c) due to their importance are always printed in red.286. To minimize the risk of machine/technical device failure, the operator should:
a) perform maintenance activities only when the machine/technical device stops working,b) use the machine/technical device until the failure becomes serious,
c) regularly visually assess the condition of the machine/technical device and report any irregularities.
287. Breaking in the machine during the initial period of operation is:
a) the process of achieving optimal clearances and even wear of parts,
b) the stage of the machine's operation without load,c) an intensive full load test of the machine.288. The operator uses the operating and maintenance manual of the machine or technical device to:
a) record all faults of the machine or technical device noticed during operation,
b) learn the technical specifications, health and safety rules, and methods of repairing faults,
c) record the hours worked and fuel consumption by the machine.289. The operational part of the operating and maintenance manual of the machine or technical device includes:
a) a detailed description of the construction and operation of all elements of the machine/technical device,
b) instructions regarding, among others, controlling the machine/technical device,
c) a catalog of spare parts.290. The operating and maintenance manual must always be present with the machine/technical device because:
a) its absence may be the reason for the inspector not allowing the machine to operate,
b) it is necessary for periodic technical inspections,c) it minimizes the risk of it being lost.291. The SAE designation on oil refers to:
a) the viscosity of engine oil, that is, its ability to flow and lubricate,
b) the pressure of engine oil,c) the multi-season qualification of the oil.292. Oil with the symbol SAE 15W-40 means that:
a) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40,
b) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 15W, and at positive temperatures of summer oil class SAE 40,
c) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 15W.293. Oil with the symbol SAE 10W-30 means that:
a) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W,b) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 30,
c) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W, and at positive temperatures of summer oil class SAE 30.
294. The symbol SAE 10W-30 means:
a) hydraulic oil with specified parameters,b) a mixture of engine oil and hydraulic oil,
c) multi-season engine oil with specified parameters.
295. Engine oil with the symbol SAE 5W-40 means that:
a) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 5W, and at positive temperatures of summer oil class SAE 40,
b) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40,c) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 5W.
296. The symbol of the warning light shown in the graphic means:
a) low engine oil level,
b) low engine oil pressure,c) low coolant level.
297. The symbol of the warning light shown in the graphic means:
a) low engine oil pressure,
b) low fuel level,c) low coolant level.
298. The symbol shown means:
a) engine oil,
b) engine oil filter,c) hydraulic oil.
299. The symbol shown means:
a) hydraulic oil level,b) engine coolant level,
c) engine oil level.
300. Oils with designations 70W, 85W, 80W-90 are:
a) engine oils,b) brake oils,
c) gear oils.
301. In the case of the need to dismantle the cover/protection for maintenance, one must not:
a) reassemble the cover/protection,
b) start working with the machine without the cover/protection installed,
c) record such a fact in the documentation.302. The lighting of the battery charging indicator signals to the operator of the construction machine a malfunction of:
a) the starter,b) the battery switch,
c) the V-belt and/or alternator.
303. The operator's seat cannot be adjusted when:
a) the engine is not running,b) the seat is turned backwards,
c) the machine is in motion.
304. If during daily technical maintenance before work the operator notices that one of the windows in the cabin is cracked, then:
a) he may start work if it is not the front window,
b) he should not start work,
c) he may start work provided that the window is only cracked and has not "fallen out".305. Before starting work, the operator should:
a) install sun visors on the windows,b) open the windows for better communication,
c) clean the windows by removing snow, ice, and other contaminants.
306. When changing hydraulic oils, one should:
a) use any type of oil,
b) use only types of oils recommended by the machine manufacturer,
c) always use only biodegradable oils.307. To ensure the technical efficiency of the working machine, one should:
a) operate the machine/device only under full load,b) operate the machine/device not exceeding 50% of the permissible load,
c) follow technical service and maintenance according to the operating and maintenance instructions.
308. On the construction site, empty containers of lubricants, oil filters, and used oils should be:
a) thrown into any waste container,b) thrown into the mixed waste container,
c) placed in a properly marked hazardous waste container.
309. Stickers (pictograms) located on the machine/device serve to:
a) convey essential information about safety and the use of the machine/device,
b) indicate places where one can stay without any risk,c) inform about the prohibition of approaching the machine/device.310. Lubrication points in the machine should be serviced:
a) according to the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine,
b) during all breaks in work,c) always after 10 hours of operation.311. Engine oil with parameters 5W-50 is:
a) a multi-season oil,
b) a summer-only oil,c) a winter-only oil.312. Before starting work on a new type of machine/technical device, the operator should:
a) perform a periodic inspection,
b) familiarize themselves with the operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device,
c) perform a trial work.313. OTC service is:
a) round-the-clock technical service,b) temporary technical service,
c) daily technical service.
314. The basic types of services are:
a) visual, active, passive service,
b) daily, periodic, warehouse, transport service,
c) round-the-clock, multi-season, annual, technological service.315. Batteries, when starting the machine using a supporting battery, should be connected:
a) in series,b) crosswise,
c) in parallel.
316. In the case of electrolyte loss caused by spillage through a cracked battery casing, one should:
a) add electrolyte to the proper level and charge the battery,
b) secure the leak area in terms of environmental protection, and then replace the battery,
c) add demineralized water to a level of 10 mm above the top edges of the plates.317. The activities performed by the operator as part of daily maintenance during operation include:
a) auditory control of the machine's operation and observation of indicators,
b) cleaning the machine,c) replenishing operating fluids and daily lubrication.318. If the manufacturer has provided for operational run-in, it should be carried out:
a) with maximum load,
b) with the recommended load in the operating and maintenance instructions for the machine/technical device,
c) without load.319. During the storage of the machine on a wheeled chassis, the machine's wheels should be:
a) removed from the machine,b) secured with wedges,
c) unloaded.
320. When loading the machine onto the transport vehicle, the operator should:
a) know the maximum speed allowed for the given transport vehicle,b) approach at a speed of at least 5 [km/h],
c) know the permissible angle of inclination of the loading ramps for the given machine.
321. The person responsible for the placement and securing of the machine on the transport vehicle is:
a) the owner or the person responsible for machines in the company,
b) the carrier (e.g. driver),
c) the machine operator.322. When storing the machine, one must ensure that:
a) the machine is facing the exit,
b) there are no leaks of operating fluids,
c) no documents of the machine are left in the cabin.323. Securing the machine during storage downtime involves:
a) cleaning the machine of dirt and corrosion,
b) filling the hydraulic oil tank to the top,c) disassembling all filters and protecting them from moisture.324. The rods of hydraulic cylinders, during technical maintenance of the stored machine, should be:
a) disassembled and their seals replaced,b) disassembled and cleaned,
c) protected against corrosion.
325. During the loading of the machine onto the transport vehicle:
a) the operator should drive onto the transport vehicle independently,b) assistance from a second person is recommended only when loading onto a low-loader trailer,
c) assistance from a second person is recommended.
326. The recommended way to load heavy working machines onto low-loader trailers is:
a) loading on ropes,b) loading using other machines,
c) mechanized loading from the front ramp.
327. During longer storage of the machine, the fuel tank should be:
a) filled to 1/3 of its capacity and left open,
b) filled to the top to prevent condensation of water vapor inside the tank,
c) empty to avoid fire hazards.328. During daily operation of the machine, the condition of should be checked:
a) the value of working pressure in the hydraulic system,b) tools and equipment,
c) connections and tightness of the hydraulic system.
329. If the machine's engine has not been running for a longer time during daily operation, you should:
a) check the oil level and other operating fluids,
b) replace the fuel pre-filter,c) start the engine and gently increase the RPM to reach operating temperature faster.330. Information regarding faults, their codes, and methods of removal can be found in the document named:
a) operating and maintenance manual,
b) construction machine book,c) daily report.331. The correct order of connecting the auxiliary battery to the discharged battery in the machine is as follows:
a) positive terminal of the battery in the machine, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, machine frame,
b) machine frame, positive terminal of the battery in the machine, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery,c) negative terminal of the battery in the machine, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, machine frame.332. In case of electrolyte loss in the battery, one should:
a) replenish it with distilled or demineralized water,
b) replenish it with water other than distilled,c) replenish it with DOT-3 fluid.333. Checking the charge state of the starting battery 12 [V] by "sparking" poses a risk of:
a) electric shock from high voltage,
b) explosion of hydrogen escaping from the battery,
c) seizure of the alternator.334. The scope of daily technical service of the machine does not include:
a) checking the oil level in the engine,b) checking the condition of the tires and tire pressure,
c) control and adjustment of valve clearances.
335. When cleaning the radiator, to avoid damaging it, one should:
a) use a strong stream of water under high pressure,b) use sharp tools for cleaning,
c) keep the compressed air nozzle at an appropriate distance from the radiator.
336. The purpose of lubrication in working machines is:
a) to increase the engine's rotational speed,b) to raise the temperature of cooperating elements,
c) to reduce friction.
337. The most commonly used type of fuses in electrical installations of working machines is:
a) fuse links,
b) automatic fuses,c) residual current devices.338. The phenomenon of electrostatic discharge during refueling a machine can lead to:
a) fire,
b) poisoning,c) short circuit of the electrical installation.339. In the case of connecting two batteries in parallel with different rated voltages:
a) both batteries may discharge,b) thicker cables should be used than with batteries of the same rated voltages,
c) there may be an explosion of the battery with the lower rated voltage.
340. When checking the pressure in a tire, the machine should be:
a) running and warmed up,
b) unloaded, and the tire should be cold,
c) loaded to make the measurement more accurate.341. The correct way to connect a battery to a charger during charging is:
a) positive terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger, negative terminal of the charger to the "ground" of the machine,
b) positive terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger, negative terminal of the battery to the negative terminal of the charger,
c) positive terminal of the battery to the negative terminal of the charger, negative terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger.342. After connecting the battery, the terminals are lubricated with:
a) technical vaseline,
b) graphite grease,c) grease containing molybdenum disulfide.343. To safely inflate a tire, one should:
a) use a short pneumatic hose with a manometer,
b) stand to the side of the tire tread and use a long pneumatic hose,
c) stand opposite the tire valve while inflating.344. One of the goals of warehouse management is:
a) to protect the machine from corrosion and other harmful factors during long-term storage,
b) to repair damaged machine components before the next season,c) to prepare the machine for transport for the future user.345. If during daily technical service the operator notices a leak in the cooling system, they should:
a) report the leak and not use the machine until it is repaired,
b) organize fluid and refill to the minimum level if the leak is small,c) refill the coolant and continue working.346. The level of coolant in the expansion tank should be checked:
a) only during periodic technical service,
b) during every daily technical service,
c) only in case of engine overheating.347. If the operator notices a hydraulic fluid leak during daily technical service, he should:
a) top up the oil and continue working,b) reduce the RPM and continue working,
c) report the leak and not use the machine until it is repaired.
348. The frequency of performing periodic technical service depends on:
a) the number of hours worked (engine hours),
b) the number of completed working cycles,c) the production date of the machine.349. If during daily technical service the operator notices a low level of engine oil, he should:
a) top up the level with any available oil, even if it is of a different type,
b) top up the oil to the appropriate level,
c) start working if the level is not very low and the warning light is not on.350. A characteristic activity for seasonal technical service is:
a) checking the charging voltage value,b) checking the working pressure value of the hydraulic system,
c) replacing the coolant with one suitable for the season.
351. Basic service activities that must be performed before starting a diesel engine are:
a) checking the oil level in the gearbox, checking the operation of the working system, checking the operation of the brakes,
b) checking the oil level in the engine, checking the coolant level, checking the condition of the air filter,
c) bleeding the fuel system, checking the oil level in the transmission, checking the starter.352. Activities performed as part of daily technical service (OTC) carried out during the operation of the machine are:
a) observing only the control and measurement indicators such as: oil pressure, engine temperature, hydraulic oil temperature,b) primarily sensory control of the proper operation of the machine's working system,
c) observing control and measurement instruments and checking the proper operation of the machine using sight, hearing, and smell.
353. We distinguish, among others, the following types of technical services:
a) transport, commissioning, daily, periodic, seasonal, storage,
b) commissioning, daily, periodic, seasonal, storage, emergency, night,c) transport, commissioning, storage, service-repair (ON), catalog.354. We perform technical services in order to:
a) ensure quiet operation of the machine or technical device,