Multi-purpose tool carriers
Study mode
Question of 366
1. What is the minimum allowable distance of the machine from the reach of the wedge of the collapse?
a) 0.6 [m],
b) 0.8 [m],c) 0.4 [m].2. The safe distance of the machine from the excavation is:
a) 1.6 [m],b) depth of the excavation + 0.6 [m],
c) reach of the wedge of the collapse + 0.6 [m].
3. Based on the presented table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] made in cohesive soils:
a) 1.6 [m],
b) 1 [m],c) 2.6 [m].4. Based on the presented table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] made in fractured rocks:
a) 4.6 [m],b) 2.6 [m],
c) 3.6 [m].
5. Based on the presented table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] made in slightly cohesive soils:
a) 2.6 [m],b) 3.6 [m],
c) 3.1 [m]. Multi-purpose carriers of attachments
6. What is the minimum safe distance from the UPPER edge of the embankment that a machine can approach, given the following data: Soil category - I (dry sand), height of the embankment - h = 2 [m], horizontal distance between the upper and lower edges of the embankment - a = 2.5 [m]?
a) 1.1 [m],
b) 0.6 [m],c) 3.6 [m].7. What is the minimum safe distance from the UPPER edge of the embankment that a machine can approach, given the following data: Soil category - II (slightly cohesive soils), height of the embankment - h = 4 [m], horizontal distance between the upper and lower edges of the embankment - a = 2.5 [m]?
a) 3.1 [m],
b) 0.6 [m],c) 5.6 [m].8. At what horizontal distance from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage not exceeding 1 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 5 [m],b) not less than 2 [m],
c) not less than 3 [m].
9. At what horizontal distance from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 10 [m],
b) not less than 5 [m],
c) not less than 15 [m].10. At what horizontal distance from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 10 [m],
b) not less than 15 [m],c) not less than 5 [m].11. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?
a) not less than 10 [m],
b) not less than 15 [m],
c) not less than 20 [m].12. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?
a) not less than 30 [m],
b) not less than 10 [m],c) not less than 15 [m].13. Is it possible to organize workstations in the danger zone under overhead power lines?
a) no, never,b) yes, always,
c) yes, but only after meeting additional requirements.
14. What is the safe distance X for the operation of a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [V]?
a) not less than 3 [m],
b) not less than 30 [m],c) not less than 5 [m].15. What is the safe distance X for the operation of a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV]?
a) not less than 10 [m],b) not less than 15 [m],
c) not less than 5 [m].
16. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?
a) not less than 10 [m],
b) not less than 30 [m],c) not less than 15 [m].17. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?
a) not less than 10 [m],
b) not less than 15 [m],c) not less than 5 [m].18. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV]?
a) not less than 15 [m],
b) not less than 30 [m],c) not less than 50 [m].19. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV]?
a) not less than 10 [m],
b) not less than 15 [m],c) not less than 30 [m].20. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]?
a) not less than 40 [m],b) not less than 3 [m],
c) not less than 30 [m].
21. Work in the danger zone (overhead high voltage power line):
a) may be carried out provided that the line is disconnected from the voltage, the work is performed in an area limited by groundings and at least one grounding is visible from the work site,
b) may not be carried out under any circumstances under electrical lines in the danger zone,c) may be carried out provided that permission from the site manager has been granted.22. The operator must perform work at a distance X from the active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [V]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 5 [m],
b) 2 [m],c) 1 [m].23. The operator must perform work at a distance X from the active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 3 [m],b) 5 [m],
c) 15 [m].
24. The operator must perform work at a distance X from the active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 50 [m],
b) 5 [m],c) 15 [m].25. If the injured person has a detectable pulse but is not breathing, then:
a) cardiopulmonary resuscitation should be performed,b) he should not be touched,
c) the airways should be cleared and artificial respiration should be started.
26. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, one should primarily:
a) move away from the accident scene to call a doctor,b) give the injured medication,
c) provide assistance to those in life-threatening situations.
27. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, one should primarily:
a) ensure one's own safety,
b) provide assistance to those in life-threatening situations,c) move away from the accident scene to call a doctor.28. The obligation to provide first aid to accident victims rests with:
a) everyone, as one can always perform part of the rescue tasks,
b) only those with medical training,c) everyone, but criminal liability always threatens for mistakes made.29. The accident victim regained consciousness after a few minutes and wants to go home. In such a situation, one should:
a) allow her to go home, recommending a visit to a doctor,
b) persuade her to stay and call for medical help,
c) give her something to drink and painkillers.30. First aid in a situation where a foreign body has entered the eye of the injured person consists of:
a) rinsing the eye with eye drops,
b) rinsing with clean water directing the stream from the nose outward,
c) rinsing with distilled water directing the stream inward to the eye.31. The injured person cut their leg on an unsecured sharp element. Providing first aid in this situation is:
a) using a tourniquet,b) sticking a plaster directly on the wound,
c) applying sterile gauze, wrapping the wound with a bandage.
32. Suspecting spinal injury in a person who has fallen from a height and is conscious, one should:
a) seat them in a semi-reclining position,b) lay them in the recovery position,
c) not move them and wait for medical services to arrive.
33. To move away from the place where the electric wire has been broken and the area is under voltage, one should:
a) quickly step away from the source of electric shock, lifting feet high,b) run as fast as possible to a place that we assess as safe,
c) leave the place slowly, taking small steps, trying to maintain continuous contact of feet with the ground.
34. First aid in the case of a first-degree burn is:
a) applying greasy cream to the burned area,
b) pouring cold water on the burned area,
c) applying ointment to the burned area.35. During work, a high-voltage power line was broken, resulting in a colleague being electrocuted. In this situation, the correct behavior is:
a) call other colleagues for help with the injured person,b) approach the injured person to provide first aid,
c) turn off the power source as quickly as possible.
36. We perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation until:
a) the fire brigade arrives and secures the area,
b) we have determined that the victim has started breathing and circulation has returned,
c) 10 minutes have passed.37. Immediate action in the case of severe bleeding from an injured upper limb includes:
a) disinfecting the wound with salicylic alcohol,
b) applying a dressing, directly compressing the bleeding site, and elevating the limb,
c) lowering the limb below heart level.38. In the case of a nosebleed, one should:
a) lean the bleeding person's head forward, pinch the nostrils,
b) tilt the head back and place a cold compress on the neck,c) lay the injured person on their back.39. The first step in dealing with a carbon monoxide poisoning victim in a closed room is:
a) assessing ABC,b) conducting a preliminary examination,
c) the quickest possible evacuation of the victim from that room.
40. First aid during seizures caused by an epileptic attack involves:
a) placing a wooden object in the victim's mouth to prevent biting the tongue,
b) protecting the victim's head from injuries,
c) seating the victim in a semi-sitting position and offering something to drink.41. In case of suspected spinal injury in the cervical region in a conscious person, one should:
a) place the injured person in a lateral position,b) seat the injured person on a chair with a high backrest,
c) not allow the injured person to move their head.
42. The most important thing when a person is buried under earth, sand, or gravel is:
a) locating the injured person,
b) waiting for the arrival of the ambulance,c) notifying the family.43. First aid for a person with a metal rod embedded in their lower leg involves calling for help and:
a) moving the rod to check if the artery has been damaged,b) removing the embedded rod,
c) securing the rod to prevent movement.
44. The indication for using an AED defibrillator is:
a) severe chest pain,
b) absence of detectable breath and pulse in the injured person,
c) severe dizziness.45. During the operation of a machine/technical device, the prohibited actions are:
a) making structural changes to the machine/device,
b) changing the working tool,c) performing daily technical service (DTS).46. During the operation of the machine/technical device, the prohibited activities are:
a) cleaning the machine/technical device using gasoline or solvents whose vapors can create flammable/explosive gas mixtures with air,
b) refueling the machine/technical device from a canister,c) cleaning the machine/technical device using a product in accordance with the operating and maintenance instructions.47. When performing earthworks with the machine for which you are taking the exam, it is unacceptable to:
a) use the machine's blade at a safe distance from the excavation,b) extend the machine's blade towards the excavation,
c) position the machine within the reach of the wedge of the collapse.
48. When performing earthworks with the machine for which you are taking the exam, it is unacceptable to:
a) use the machine on clay soils during heavy rain,
b) use the machine on clay soils at air temperatures above 30°C,c) use the machine on clay soils at air temperatures below -5°C.49. When performing earthworks with the machine for which you are taking the exam, it is unacceptable to:
a) have people within a distance greater than the sum of the maximum reach of the working tool plus 6 meters,b) have people near the machine during technical maintenance,
c) have people within the reach of the working tool of the machine.
50. When performing work, it is unacceptable to:
a) work near an active power line with a rated voltage of 20 [kV] at a distance of 15 [m],
b) work near active overhead power lines at a distance less than specified by regulations,
c) work near an active power line with a rated voltage of 10 [kV] at a distance of 10 [m].51. During the execution of narrow-space excavations with the machine you are taking the exam for, it is unacceptable to:
a) have cooperating persons in the secured part of the excavation,b) use hand tools for excavations by cooperating persons,
c) have cooperating persons in the unsecured part of the excavation, even if they have personal protective equipment.
52. During earthworks in marshy or wet areas:
a) the machine is placed as on other grounds, just not considering the distance from the failure wedge,
b) the machine is placed on stable and permanently connected pads,
c) the machine is placed in the same way as on other grounds.53. The machine/technical device you are taking the exam for can only be operated by:
a) any adult person with technical education and a driving license of the appropriate category,
b) a person who has completed training and obtained a positive result from the test conducted by the commission appointed by the Łukasiewicz Research Network – Warsaw Institute of Technology,
c) a person with written confirmation of course completion in the form of a plastic card.54. The rights to operate machines/technical devices you are taking the exam for are issued by:
a) The Office of Technical Inspection (UDT),
b) The Łukasiewicz Research Network - Warsaw Institute of Technology (SBŁ - WIT),
c) The County Starosty appropriate for the residence address of the person applying for the rights.55. The rights to operate machines/technical devices you are taking the exam for:
a) are valid for 10 years from the date of issue,b) are valid for 5 years from the date of issue,
c) are valid indefinitely.
56. A person with qualifications to operate: "Multi-purpose carriers of equipment without class" can operate based on this:
a) all multi-purpose carriers of equipment without weight restrictions, but only on a tracked chassis,b) multi-purpose carriers of equipment without weight restrictions, but only on a wheeled chassis,
c) all multi-purpose carriers of equipment - without restrictions.
57. An employee operating a machine/technical device, for which you are taking the exam, can start work provided that:
a) the machine/technical device has a valid UDT inspection,b) has a valid category D driving license,
c) has qualifications to operate this type of machine/technical device.
58. In the event of a threat to life, health, property, or the environment caused by a machine/technical device failure, the operator:
a) continues working, but at the end of the shift informs the supervisor about the situation,
b) immediately stops work and informs the supervisor about this fact,
c) continues working, but at the end of the shift makes an appropriate entry in the maintenance book.59. Lifting and transporting people using working equipment:
a) is always prohibited,
b) is possible, but only outside the public road area,c) requires the consent of the construction manager.60. An employee operating a machine/technical device, for which you are taking the exam, has the right to refuse to start work when:
a) has the required personal protective equipment,b) there is an overhead power line with a rated voltage of 110 [kV] at a distance of 35 meters,
c) this work requires special psychophysical fitness, and their psychophysical condition does not ensure its safe execution and poses a threat to others.
61. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is required to stop work when:
a) the work he is performing poses a direct threat to the health or life of others,
b) he has the required personal protective equipment,c) there is an overhead power line at a distance of 35 meters.62. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is required to:
a) always have a category B driving license,b) independently perform all current repairs of the machine/technical device,
c) comply with the instructions for operation and use of the machine/technical device.
63. The person directly responsible for the safe operation of the machine for which you are taking the exam is:
a) the owner of the machine,
b) the operator of the machine,
c) the construction manager.64. The operator's book and qualifications for the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam are issued by:
a) Łukasiewicz Research Network - Warsaw Institute of Technology,
b) Transport Technical Supervision (TDT),c) Technical Supervision Office (UDT).65. The obligation to use personal protective equipment:
a) arises from the operation and use instructions and health and safety regulations,
b) arises only from internal regulations,c) does not apply on hot days.66. An employee who witnesses an accident at work:
a) is obliged to assist the victims and then immediately leave the accident site,b) it is enough to notify the supervisor,
c) is obliged to assist the victims, notify the supervisor, and if necessary secure the accident site.
67. What elements of the machine you are taking the exam on protect the operator in case of the machine tipping over:
a) protective helmet with certification and reflective vest,
b) ROPS type machine cabin and safety belts,
c) machine seat.68. In the event of loss of stability by a machine equipped with a ROPS type cabin, the operator should:
a) quickly turn left and raise the working equipment as high as possible,b) try to leave the cabin as quickly as possible (before the machine tips over),
c) maintain a seated position while holding on tightly to the steering wheel or other stable elements in the cabin.
69. In the event of loss of stability by a machine equipped with a ROPS type cabin, the operator should:
a) turn on the warning/emergency lights,b) immediately jump out of the cabin,
c) remain in the cabin.
70. The danger zone is defined as:
a) a place where employees must only wear protective helmets,b) a place where work requiring specialized equipment is carried out, and the presence of people is only allowed at night,
c) a place where there are threats to the health and life of people.
71. The danger zone on the construction site:
a) is designated after the construction work has started,
b) is designated and/or fenced and marked in a way that prevents unauthorized access,
c) is always designated by a surveyor.72. The area that the operator should check and secure before starting work with a machine/technical device (because there are health and life hazards) is called:
a) the area of increased risk,b) the dead zone,
c) the danger zone.
73. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:
a) "raise up",
b) "turn the machine",c) "lower down".
74. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:
a) "turn the machine",
b) "lower down",
c) "raise up".
75. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:
a) "movement in the indicated direction",
b) "turn the machine",c) "raise up".
76. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "raise up",b) "rotate the machine",
c) "movement in the indicated direction".
77. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "horizontal distance",
b) "stop",c) "end of operation".
78. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "fast movement",b) "movement backward",
c) "movement forward".
79. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "movement forward",
b) "movement backward",
c) "slow movement".
80. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "stop",
b) "vertical distance",
c) "end of operation".
81. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:
a) "movement backward",b) "horizontal distance",
c) "STOP. Emergency stop".
82. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:
a) "START. Beginning of control",
b) "STOP. Emergency stop",c) "movement backward".
83. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:
a) "movement backward",b) "STOP. Emergency stop",
c) "STOP. Break - end of movement".
84. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:
a) "horizontal distance",
b) "END. Stop operation",
c) "lower down".85. During battery charging, a gas with highly explosive properties is released. This gas is:
a) ethane,b) methane,
c) hydrogen.
86. Firefighting foam can be used to extinguish fires of group:
a) only C,b) C and D,
c) A and B.
87. Improper use of a snow extinguisher can result in:
a) burns from the extinguisher elements,
b) frostbite caused by the extinguishing agent,
c) fainting.88. Water, fire blanket, powder extinguisher, carbon dioxide, sand are extinguishing agents that we will use to extinguish:
a) oils,
b) solids,
c) liquids.89. We can call sorbents:
a) materials made from natural or synthetic substances that absorb liquids,
b) fire blankets,c) petroleum-derived substances.90. Group A fires concern:
a) flammable gases,b) flammable liquids,
c) solids whose normal combustion occurs with the formation of glowing coals, e.g. wood, paper, etc..
91. Group B fires concern:
a) flammable gases,
b) liquids and solid materials that melt, e.g. plastics, fuels, oils, etc.,
c) metals, e.g. magnesium, sodium, potassium, aluminum, titanium, etc.92. Group C fires concern:
a) solids,
b) gases, e.g. methane, propane, acetylene, hydrogen,
c) flammable liquids.
93. Seeing such a pictogram you are informed about:
a) danger zone,b) a larger number of people in a given area,
c) a gathering place during evacuation.
94. While working you noticed a sign marked 'Zone 0'. It informs about:
a) the zone of existing fire load in the building,
b) the space where an explosive atmosphere exists,
c) the zone of existing fire hazard category.
95. The presented pictogram informs about:
a) a set of fire protection equipment,
b) internal hydrant,c) main power switch.
96. Seeing such a pictogram, you are informed about:
a) emergency exit,
b) assembly point during evacuation,c) location of first aid.
97. Seeing such a pictogram, you are informed about:
a) prohibition of using the fire extinguisher,b) high temperature affecting the fire extinguisher,
c) location of the fire extinguisher.
98. You see a person whose clothing is on fire and who is fleeing in panic. Your reaction is:
a) you tell him to wait in an upright position for the arrival of rescue services,
b) you try to stop him, lay him on the ground, and start extinguishing,
c) you wave your arms or outer covering strongly next to him to extinguish the burning clothing.99. Electrical devices and installations can be extinguished using:
a) foam extinguishers,b) water,
c) powder or snow extinguishers.
100. Burning fuel can be extinguished using:
a) powder, foam, or snow extinguishers,
b) low-octane ethylene,c) water.101. Burning clothing on a person can be extinguished using:
a) plastic material,
b) water mist extinguisher or fire blanket,
c) snow or powder extinguisher.102. What obligations does an employee have when they decide to refrain from work due to health and safety regulations?
a) They should organize work for others,
b) They must immediately notify their supervisor,
c) They have no obligations in this situation.103. How can an operator prevent hazards in the workplace?
a) By not reporting faults in machines,b) By ignoring health and safety rules,
c) By using personal protective equipment to minimize risk.
104. Which of the following situations is prohibited while operating a machine?
a) Reporting machine faults at regular intervals,b) Working near machines with appropriate signage,
c) Moving loads over people.
105. It is not permissible to position a workstation directly under active overhead power lines or at a horizontal distance from the outermost conductors of less than:
a) for lines: 1 [kV] - 1 [m], 15 [kV] - 3 [m], 30 [kV] - 5 [m], 110 [kV] - 10 [m],b) for all voltages - 1 [m] from the power line,
c) for lines: 1 [kV] - 3 [m], 15 [kV] - 5 [m], 30 [kV] - 10 [m], 110 [kV] - 15 [m], 400 [kV] - 30 [m].
106. How does the operator know what personal protective equipment is required for a given machine/technical device?
a) The choice of personal protective equipment depends on the opinion of colleagues at work,
b) Information about the necessary personal protective equipment is included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine,
c) The operator must independently choose the appropriate protective measures.107. The operator should refuse to perform a task when:
a) the work is inconsistent with the intended use of the machine/technical device,
b) the work is being performed at night,c) the work requires familiarization with the location of underground and above-ground utilities.108. The operator can prevent hazards during the operation of the machine/technical device by:
a) limiting the use of personal protective equipment,b) inattention and routine,
c) following health and safety rules and adhering to the operating instructions.
109. Which of the following situations is unacceptable during the use of the machine/technical device?
a) The presence of unauthorized persons in the danger zone caused by the operation of the machine/technical device,
b) Operating the machine without supervision,c) Reporting faults directly to the supervisor.110. An accident at work is considered to be:
a) a sudden event unrelated to the work being performed, caused by an external factor, resulting in injury or death,
b) a sudden event related to the work being performed, caused by an external factor, resulting in injury or death,
c) a prolonged event related to the work being performed, caused by an internal factor, resulting in equipment damage.111. A fatal accident at work is considered to be an accident in which death occurred:
a) only at the moment of the accident,
b) within a period not exceeding 6 months from the date of the accident,
c) after a period exceeding 6 months from the date of the accident.112. It is prohibited to:
a) allow unauthorized persons within the reach of the machine's operation and work on slopes exceeding the permissible incline,
b) report noticed defects to the supervisor before starting work,c) operate the machine after completing training and obtaining the appropriate qualifications.113. When getting on and off the machine, it is prohibited to:
a) use the control lever as support,
b) face the machine while getting on and off,c) intensively use the handrails and steps.114. Health and safety regulations require:
a) scrapping the old working machine within the time specified in its operating and maintenance manual, while observing the requirements for the disposal of hazardous materials,
b) securing the working machine during breaks in its operation against accidental activation by unauthorized persons,
c) performing a warranty inspection of the working machine before the end of the year from its purchase.115. In the event of a person being electrocuted:
a) do not touch the injured person until the power source is disconnected,
b) immediately begin resuscitation, regardless of whether the power source has been disconnected,c) it is recommended to use any tools to disconnect the power, regardless of their actual purpose.116. In the case of a person being buried under earth or sand:
a) we always calmly wait for rescue services - any attempt to help would be too dangerous,b) we should dig them out as quickly as possible regardless of our own safety - it's about their life,
c) we should dig them out as quickly as possible, provided it is safe for the person undertaking the rescue action.
117. Seeing a person whose clothes are on fire, the first thing to do is:
a) use a fire extinguisher, preferably a snow one, to extinguish the burning clothing, and then try to quickly remove the fused clothing,b) leave the victim in a standing position to facilitate air access and extinguish the flames faster,
c) cut off the air supply by rolling the victim or wrapping them in a fire blanket, wet clothing, or a wet blanket.
118. If during earthworks unidentified difficult-to-identify objects are discovered, then:
a) a danger zone with a radius of 6 [m] should be designated, outside of which normal work can continue,
b) further work is interrupted and the supervising person of the earthworks is notified,
c) earthworks can continue if we maintain a distance of at least 1 [m] from such an object.119. In the case of finding an unexploded ordnance during earthworks, one should:
a) stop work, remove other workers from the danger area, notify superiors, and secure the site,
b) try to carefully remove the unexploded ordnance from the work area and continue working,c) ignore the unexploded ordnance if it does not pose an immediate threat.120. A wedge of soil:
a) occurs when the slope of the embankment exceeds the angle of the natural slope of the soil,
b) occurs only when the soil is in a frozen state,c) is the area around the working machine extending a distance of 6 [m] beyond its farthest reach.121. The range of the soil wedge:
a) depends solely on the soil temperature,
b) depends on the depth of the excavation and the category of the soil,
c) depends on the speed of the machine's operation and the efficiency of the operator.122. The angle of natural slope is:
a) the angle at which the soil will definitely slide by itself - depends solely on the temperature of that soil,b) the angle at which it is safe to operate the machine - it depends on the parameters of the given machine,
c) the maximum slope at which the soil can remain without sliding - it depends, among other things, on the category of the soil.
123. Soil wedge:
a) is the space around the machine, dependent on the speed of the machine's operation and its weight,b) is the zone where the soil becomes unstable - its range depends solely on the depth of the excavation, the type of soil does not matter here,
c) occurs when the slope exceeds the angle of natural slope of the soil - its range depends on the type of soil and the depth of the excavation or the height of the slope.
124. The angle of natural slope is:
a) the maximum slope at which the soil can remain without sliding - it depends on the type of soil, e.g., moisture, cohesiveness, and grain size,
b) the slope at which any embankment becomes unstable, regardless of the type of soil,c) the angle at which the machine can safely move on the embankment, regardless of the category of the soil.125. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is performed:
a) only in the case of fainting and minor injuries, to improve blood circulation,
b) when the injured person is not breathing and there is no detectable pulse. For a person who is not a professional rescuer, the absence of breathing is a sufficient basis to start resuscitation,
c) when the injured person is breathing but is unconscious and unresponsive.126. An employee has the right to refrain from performing work due to health and safety regulations, notifying their supervisor immediately if:
a) the working conditions do not pose a threat, but are too difficult for them,b) the work they are performing has not been reported to the construction supervision,
c) the working conditions pose a direct threat to health or life.
127. Physical factors generating hazards in the workplace are:
a) lack of or inadequate training for employees,b) lack of appropriate medical examinations for the employee,
c) spilled lubricants, oils, and fuels.
128. Working with a machine/technical device is not allowed when:
a) it is malfunctioning,
b) the second operator has not reported an upcoming inspection,c) its repair was carried out after dark.129. Working near overhead power lines:
a) always requires double grounding of the line,b) always requires power to be turned off in the line,
c) is possible without meeting additional requirements provided that certain distances depending on the rated voltage of the line are maintained.
130. The operator is obliged to refuse to start work if:
a) they would have to work under power lines, and the voltage in them has been turned off and the line grounded,
b) the machine is malfunctioning,
c) there is no construction manager or any other person authorized to supervise at the work site.131. The danger zone of a machine/technical device is:
a) a place where there are threats to health or life of people,
b) always the entire fenced construction site,c) a place where the machine/technical device cannot be used.132. Accidents at work can result from the poor technical condition of the working machine, for example:
a) injury to a limb, torso, or head,
b) damage to the equipment,c) failure of the drive system.133. Unacceptable behaviors are:
a) operating a faulty machine and working under the influence of alcohol,
b) performing daily maintenance of the machine after dark,c) working after dark in a well-lit place, with full concentration of the operator.134. General rules for safely getting on and off the machine are:
a) a person should face the machine, remember the "three-point support" principle, and use only specially made steps and handrails,
b) it is allowed to step back from the machine, but only when the steps are slippery,c) using cables and levers as aids when getting on is permissible when the machine is turned off.135. Basic employee duties regarding OHS are:
a) not being late for work, finishing on time, confirming presence at work in the manner accepted by the employer,
b) adhering to OHS regulations and principles, taking care of the condition of machines and tools, and maintaining order in the workplace, using personal protective equipment,
c) enforcing labor code regulations regarding their rights, including payment for overtime worked.136. In the case of a person electrocuted, after disconnecting the power source, you should:
a) check the condition of the victim, and if necessary: call for help, clear the airways, perform resuscitation, and use an AED if available,
b) leave the victim alone if they have regained consciousness, without further actions,c) move the victim to another location as quickly as possible.137. When a person buried under earth or sand is partially dug out, you should:
a) clear the airways as quickly as possible,
b) quickly dig out the left arm to check for a pulse,c) focus on digging out the lower parts of the victim's body.138. After extinguishing flames on a person with burns and calling for help, you should:
a) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes, without removing the stuck clothing,
b) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes, first removing the stuck clothing,c) use a snow extinguisher to cool the burn area.139. The statement: "The operator's qualifications for the machine you are taking the exam for are sufficient to operate such a machine on public roads" is:
a) true, but only under normal air visibility conditions,
b) false,
c) true.
140. Seeing such a pictogram, you are informed about:
a) a place where a first aid kit is available,
b) a place where an external automatic defibrillator is available,
c) a place for performing AED.141. Properly performed cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) consists of:
a) connecting an external automatic defibrillator (AED) and following its instructions; without AED, CPR is not performed,b) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 30-60 times per minute to a depth of 1–3 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 15 compressions (breaths are mandatory),
c) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 100-120 times per minute to a depth of 5–6 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 30 compressions (breaths are not mandatory).
142. Materials must not be stored in the natural wedge zone of the ground collapse:
a) when the walls of the excavation are unshored,
b) always, when the soil is sandy,c) when the excavation is deeper than 1.5 [m] regardless of its support.143. The abbreviation IBWR stands for:
a) Instruction for Non-Failure Execution of Works,
b) Instruction for Safe Execution of Works,
c) Instruction for Non-Failure Execution of Works.144. Expand the abbreviation IBWR:
a) Implementation of Non-Failure Execution of Works,b) Information on Safe Execution of Works,
c) Instruction for Safe Execution of Works.
145. The Instruction for Safe Execution of Construction Works is:
a) a document containing information regarding safety on the construction site,
b) a document confirming qualifications for operating machines and technical devices in earthworks, construction, and road works,c) a plan of the road in construction works.146. The BIOZ plan means:
a) safety and health protection plan,
b) safety and resource specification plan,c) safe health protection instruction plan.147. When driving a machine for earthworks on a public road, the operator must:
a) be at least 20 years old and have operator qualifications for the specific earthworks machine,
b) have a driver's license of the appropriate category, operator qualifications for the specific machine, and liability insurance,
c) only have qualifications for the specific earthworks machine, there are no additional requirements.
148. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 1.6 [m],b) 4 [m],
c) 1 [m].
149. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 1.5 [m],
b) 1 [m],c) 1.6 [m].150. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 1.6 [m],
b) 0.5 [m],
c) 1 [m].151. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 1.6 [m],b) 2 [m],
c) 1 [m].
152. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 2 [m],
b) 1.6 [m],c) 1 [m].153. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 1 [m],b) 2 [m],
c) 3 [m].
154. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 2.6 [m],b) 3 [m],
c) 4 [m].
155. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 2.6 [m],
b) 1.6 [m],
c) 1 [m].156. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 2.1 [m],
b) 3.6 [m],c) 6.6 [m].157. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 4.6 [m],b) 2 [m],
c) 2.6 [m].
158. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 2.6 [m],b) 2 [m],
c) 1.1 [m].
159. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category III (cracked rocks) is:
a) 2.6 [m],b) 2 [m],
c) 1.6 [m].
160. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category III (cracked rocks) is:
a) 4.6 [m],
b) 2.6 [m],
c) 2 [m].161. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category III (cracked rocks) is:
a) 3 [m],b) 2.1 [m],
c) 3.6 [m].
162. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category III (cracked rocks) is:
a) 2.6 [m],
b) 4.6 [m],
c) 4 [m].163. Traffic safety devices used during work conducted in the road strip may be colored:
a) white, green, blue,b) red, yellow-red, blue,
c) white, red, yellow, and black.
164. Traffic safety devices used to secure and mark the location of work in the road strip should be visible:
a) during the day and at night,
b) only at night,c) only during the day .165. Fencing with warning tape is permissible only for trenches up to a depth of:
a) 0.5 [m],
b) 1.2 [m],c) 1.0 [m].166. In the case of providing pedestrians with a passage over excavations during work in the road lane, pedestrian walkways with a handrail height of should be used:
a) 0.9 [m],
b) at least 1.1 [m],
c) 1.0 [m].167. In the case of the necessity to provide pedestrians with a passage over excavations during work in the road lane, pedestrian walkways with a width of should be used:
a) no greater than 1 [m],b) from 0.8 [m] to 1.0 [m],
c) at least 1.0 [m].
168. During the execution of excavations in places accessible to persons not employed in these works, excavations should be secured at dusk and at night by:
a) railings equipped with red warning lights,
b) warning tapes in white and red and orange warning lights,c) warning tapes in white and red and warning cones.169. The handrails of the railings securing excavations in places of work accessible to persons not employed in these works should be located at a distance of:
a) not less than 1.0 [m] from the edge of the uncovered excavation,
b) not less than 1.0 [m] from the axis of the uncovered excavation,c) equal to at least the depth of the excavation from the edge of the uncovered excavation.170. In a situation of danger, when the cabin door cannot be opened:
a) the space after removing the floor panel can be used as an emergency exit,
b) the emergency exit provided by the manufacturer should be used,
c) the cabin must not be left until help arrives.171. In the event of mechanical damage to the FOPS/ROPS cabin (e.g. denting of a cabin element) the operator:
a) can continue working if the cabin windows are intact,b) can repair the damage on their own without wasting time on downtime,
c) should stop working and report the failure to their supervisor or the person responsible in the company for the machine.
172. In the event of mechanical damage to the FOPS/ROPS cabin (e.g. denting of a cabin element) the operator:
a) cannot repair such damage on their own,
b) can repair such damage on their own, but only based on the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine,c) can always repair such damage on their own.173. If the seat belt is damaged, one should:
a) exercise special caution while working,b) continue working and report the problem after finishing work,
c) report the damage and not start working until the belt is repaired or replaced.
174. The operator must wear a safety helmet while operating the machine when:
a) they often lean out of the cabin while working,
b) they are working in a machine not equipped with a closed cabin,
c) they are working on demolition tasks using long booms.175. Entering and exiting the machine should be done:
a) sideways, being careful of the instruments in the cabin,
b) facing the machine, maintaining three points of contact,
c) backwards to the machine, using a three-step ladder.176. Prohibited activities during the operation and maintenance of a machine or technical device are:
a) operating machines by persons without appropriate qualifications,
b) using machines on rocky ground during heavy rain,c) using machines with safety or signaling devices.177. Visible underground infrastructure devices that provide preliminary insight into their course are most often:
a) hydrant boxes, water shut-off boxes, manhole covers,
b) graphic symbols marked on the road surface,c) abandoned road edges where they pass.178. A construction excavation characterized by a width S ≤ 1.5 [m] and a length L>1.5 [m] is:
a) pit excavation,b) wide-space excavation,
c) narrow-space excavation.
179. An operator can work, without the need for prior loosening, in soil:
a) category V-VIII,
b) category I,
c) all categories above IV.180. The minimum distance from the edge of an excavation with supported walls, in which spoil can be stored, is:
a) 0.3 [m] from the edge of the excavation, without additional conditions,b) directly at the edge of the excavation, if the soil is dry,
c) 0.6 [m] from the edge of the excavation, if the spoil load has been taken into account in the selection of the support.
181. A control excavation is:
a) an excavation carried out solely to check the quality of the soil,b) an excavation carried out for the purpose of measuring the parameters of a construction machine,
c) an excavation carried out to determine the actual course of underground installations.
182. Examples of work classified as preparatory work before starting earthworks may include:
a) preparing the area by removing obstacles, performing control excavations, and marking out the construction,
b) purchasing and storing materials and tools necessary for the work,c) daily operation of construction machines and technical devices.183. Humus is:
a) a mineral used for soil stabilization,
b) the outer layer of soil rich in humus,
c) a deeper layer of earth, usually reaching a thickness of up to 1 [m].184. The basic methods of dewatering excavations are:
a) mechanical dewatering, natural dewatering, surface dewatering,b) extracting water by pumping, manual drying,
c) surface dewatering, deep dewatering, perimeter drainage.
185. Soils, according to the degree of difficulty in their disintegration, are divided into:
a) 16 categories,
b) 4 categories,c) 10 categories.186. The frontal method of excavation using a machine with a bucket attachment is used:
a) when the machine is positioned along the axis of the excavation and the excavation is performed linearly,
b) when the machine works sideways along the edge of the excavation,c) when the excavation is cylindrical in shape and deeper than 1.5 [m].187. The machine operator should know the type of soil they are working on:
a) to understand the requirements for operating the machine's chassis,
b) to calculate the safe distance for positioning the machine and the reach of the spoil wedge,
c) to be able to assess the depth of the excavation.188. During the loading of spoil onto the vehicle, the operator:
a) should not move the bucket with spoil over the vehicle's cabin,
b) can move the bucket with spoil over the vehicle's cabin if it speeds up the loading,c) can drop the spoil onto the transport medium from any convenient height.189. The recommended tools for performing a control excavation near electrical installations are:
a) any mechanical tools without depth restrictions,b) only an excavator with standard equipment,
c) hand tools, preferably insulated.
190. An example of work classified as preparatory work for earthworks is:
a) performing control trenches, removing trees and shrubs, marking out buildings on site,
b) laying asphalt pavement and installing fences,c) installing lighting devices and designating locations for heavy machines.191. Removing humus is:
a) the main stage of earthworks,
b) it is one of the stages of preparatory works,
c) work performed always after the completion of construction works.192. Subsurface drainage consists of:
a) digging trenches around the excavation,b) pumping water from the bottom level of the excavation,
c) lowering the groundwater level using depression wells or filter piles.
193. The term: "performance of a machine for earthworks" defines:
a) the effect of the machine's work over a unit of time,
b) the amount of fuel consumed by the machine per hour of operation,c) the level of engine load during the machine's operation over a unit of time.194. The performance of a machine for earthworks can be expressed:
a) in units of volume or mass per unit of time e.g. [m³/h], [t/h],
b) in units of speed or revolutions per unit of time e.g. [km/h], [rpm], [rev/s],c) in pressure units [bar] or temperature [°C].195. Construction excavations are divided into:
a) small, medium, and deep,
b) narrow-spatial, wide-spatial, and cavity,
c) underground, aboveground, and intermediate.196. A trench is classified as wide-ranging when:
a) its width is 1 [m], and its length and depth are greater than 1.5 [m],
b) its width exceeds 1.5 [m], and its length is greater than 1.5 [m],
c) its depth exceeds 2 [m] regardless of length.197. The applications of a loader bucket on a multi-purpose carrier require:
a) compacting surfaces,b) transporting loads over long distances,
c) excavating and transporting material over short distances.
198. A multi-purpose carrier with a loader bucket for earthworks is most often used:
a) in tasks requiring mobility in a limited area,
b) when soil loosening is required,c) for precise leveling of large surface substrates.199. Pictograms that the operator should check before moving heavy objects refer to:
a) maximum allowable loads for different machine positions,
b) the machine's operating time on a single tank of fuel,c) the machine's maximum speed.200. Multi-purpose carriers on a tracked chassis are characterized by:
a) high speed on asphalt surfaces,
b) good maneuverability and the ability to work in difficult terrain,
c) limited maneuverability on uneven terrain.201. A major advantage of a tracked chassis in difficult terrain conditions is that:
a) it speeds up work on all surfaces,
b) it provides low pressure on the ground,
c) it provides high pressure on the ground.202. For precise linear excavations in demanding terrain conditions, it is recommended to use:
a) a bucket with a grid,b) a wide bucket to minimize excavation time,
c) a bucket that is about 40 [%] narrower than the nominal.
203. The operator during the vehicle loading cycle should:
a) avoid looking back while reversing the machine to constantly observe the material,b) fill the working container only halfway to avoid overload,
c) make smooth movements with the equipment and not move the working tool over the operator's cabin.
204. The soil obtained from the excavation is called a deposit:
a) when it is used for compacting the area,
b) when it is stored for later, e.g., to fill the excavation,
c) regardless of future use.205. If the machine is equipped with a hydraulic quick coupler to which the working equipment is connected, then it is necessary to:
a) check the quick coupler only when a leak appears at the connection,b) periodically replace the quick coupler, at least once a month,
c) check the condition of the quick coupler and its connection to the working equipment daily.
206. When excavating a high embankment with loading equipment, the operator should remember that:
a) the height of the embankment greater than the maximum cutting height of the machine may lead to the formation of overhangs,
b) the height of the embankment affects the efficiency of the loader's work,c) changing the working speed may lead to problems with overhangs.207. The operator's actions that increase the risk of overhangs during embankment excavation are:
a) working at an embankment lower than the maximum cutting height of the machine,b) using a machine with too low power,
c) incorrect sequence of passes during embankment excavation.
208. It is possible to operate the machine with the cabin doors open:
a) only when the air temperature exceeds 25 [°C],b) always,
c) only if the operating and maintenance manual of the machine provides for such a possibility.
209. The operator can determine the maximum load values that can be lifted using the machine:
a) based on the information on the welded hook,
b) based on the operating and maintenance manual,
c) through trial lifting.210. Disconnecting the hydraulic-powered working equipment from the quick coupler is associated with:
a) relieving pressure from the central lubrication system,
b) zeroing the hydraulic system,
c) bleeding the hydraulic system.211. The type of interchangeable working equipment used depends on whether:
a) the equipment is approved for use by the machine manufacturer,
b) the equipment has a CE certificate,c) the machine has undergone a periodic inspection.212. Before starting work with the pallet unloading equipment (forks), it is necessary to familiarize yourself with:
a) the performance parameters of the hydraulic system,b) the Technical Material Analysis (TMA) of the equipment,
c) the lifting diagram.
213. The course of the underground infrastructure must be marked before starting work to:
a) save time and reduce earthwork costs,b) enable quick movement of machines in any direction,
c) avoid the risk of damaging the network during work.
214. Which of the listed elements are not part of the hydraulic system:
a) hydraulic lock, hydraulic oil tank,b) pump, distributor, actuator,
c) starter, alternator.
215. The hydraulic lock in the machine is:
a) a valve that protects against uncontrolled movement of the element in a given line,
b) a valve responsible for controlling the entire hydraulic system,c) the closure of the hydraulic oil inlet at its tank.216. The change of hydraulic oil pressure into mechanical movement is the responsibility of:
a) hydraulic distributor,
b) hydraulic actuator and hydraulic motor,
c) hydraulic pump system.217. The pressure in the hydraulic system is generated by:
a) hydraulic actuator,
b) hydraulic pump,
c) hydraulic motor.218. Directing the flow of hydraulic oil to individual systems is carried out by:
a) relief valve,b) hydraulic lock,
c) hydraulic distributor.
219. The safety valve protects the hydraulic system from:
a) excessive pressure increase,
b) air in the hydraulic system,c) overheating of the hydraulic oil.220. The relief valve in the hydraulic system is responsible for:
a) limiting the maximum working pressure in a given circuit,
b) venting the system,c) maintaining a constant position of the working tool.221. If the pressure in the hydraulic system rises excessively, the excess oil will be directed to:
a) hydraulic oil filter,b) distributor,
c) hydraulic oil tank.
222. The basic parameters that characterize an electric accumulator are:
a) rated voltage [V], resistance [Ω], power [W],
b) rated voltage [V], capacity [Ah], starting current [A],
c) rated voltage [V], power [W], weight [kg].223. Lead-acid batteries can be charged:
a) only in an air-conditioned room,
b) in a place specifically designated for this purpose,
c) in any room.224. The pressure in the tires should be adjusted to:
a) values given in the operating and maintenance manual,
b) the operator's preferences,c) the landowner's requirements.225. Uneven pressure in the tires:
a) reduces the stability of the machine,
b) does not affect the operation of the machine,c) improves the driving properties of the machine.226. In a working machine, the differential is most often located:
a) in the drive system near the driving wheels,
b) in the hydraulic system, close to the main pump,c) in the operator's cabin, near the driving controller.227. The hydraulic distributor:
a) directs the flow of hydraulic oil to the appropriate sections,
b) increases the torque in the side transmission,c) converts mechanical energy into hydraulic energy.228. The hydraulic distributor is a device that:
a) distributes oil between the small and large circuits,b) distributes oil between the engine and the hydraulic system,
c) allows control of individual hydraulic sections of the machine.
229. The ROPS cabin in construction machines protects the operator from:
a) dust in the operator's cabin,b) being hit by falling objects from above,
c) crushing in the event of the machine overturning.
230. The FOPS cabin in construction machines protects the operator from:
a) crushing in the event of the machine overturning,b) excessive noise in the operator's cabin,
c) being hit by falling objects from above.
231. The ROPS cabin in construction machines protects against:
a) the machine overturning,
b) crushing the operator in case of the machine overturning,
c) the machine falling from a slope and rolling over.232. The difference between a ROPS cabin and a FOPS cabin is that:
a) the ROPS cabin protects against crushing, while the FOPS protects against falling objects from above,
b) the ROPS cabin protects against falling objects from above, while the FOPS protects against crushing,c) the ROPS cabin protects against noise, while the FOPS protects against the machine overturning.233. The basic condition for ROPS and FOPS cabins to provide effective protection to the operator is:
a) lubricating the cabin joints at least once a week,
b) fastening the seat belts by the operator,
c) regular maintenance of the cabin.234. The element of the hydrostatic drive system that converts the mechanical energy of the engine into hydraulic energy is:
a) the rotation column,
b) the hydraulic oil pump,
c) the hydraulic motor or hydraulic actuator.235. The term superstructure in earthmoving machines refers to:
a) the upper part of the machine,
b) the upper part of the machine with the drive system,c) the base of the machine.236. Reducing speed while simultaneously increasing the torque transmitted to the drive wheels is achieved by:
a) planetary gears,
b) hydraulic distributor,c) wet brakes.237. Damage to the ROPS frame resulting in the need for replacement includes:
a) cracking or bending of the structure,
b) minor surface scratches,c) discoloration of the paint caused by weather conditions and the passage of time.238. Drilling additional holes in the ROPS cabin structure is prohibited because:
a) it causes a decrease in the strength of the structure,
b) it reduces the weight of the machine,c) it lowers the comfort of the operator's work.239. A multi-arm grab is used for:
a) transporting logs,
b) mixing concrete,c) leveling paving stones.240. The flow and direction of hydraulic fluid in the system are regulated by:
a) hydraulic motors,
b) hydraulic valves,
c) hydraulic pumps.241. System elements, such as actuators and hydraulic motors, convert hydraulic energy into:
a) electrical energy,
b) mechanical energy,
c) pressure in the tank.242. A too tightly tensioned track can cause:
a) immediate problems with the movement of the machine,b) preventing the machine from turning,
c) excessive wear of the chain, drive wheels, and rollers.
243. A too loose track can result in:
a) greater load on the hydraulic system,
b) falling off the undercarriage and accelerated wear of pins and drive wheels,
c) improved traction when working in muddy terrain.244. The function of the FOPS protective structure is:
a) to protect the operator from the effects of the machine overturning,
b) to protect the operator from falling objects,
c) to protect the operator from the effects of exhaust gases and noise.245. The FOPS protective structure must be used when:
a) performing underwater work,b) all earthworks,
c) performing work where heavy elements may fall on the cabin (e.g., demolition work, in quarries, etc.).
246. In a machine equipped with a ROPS or FOPS protective structure, there must be an additional safety system used by the operator, which includes:
a) protective helmet, protective footwear,b) protective footwear, hearing protectors, respiratory protection,
c) seat belts.
247. The ROPS protective structure in a machine:
a) is always required,
b) is not required when it is not technically possible, and there is a low risk of the machine overturning (possibility of support with a boom),c) is not required when only qualified machine operators are employed.248. Optimal shock and vibration damping of the operator's seat is achieved by:
a) as flexible seat adjustment as possible,b) setting the seat rigidly,
c) adjusting the seat to the weight of the operator.
249. The control panel for locking the working tool, when the machine is equipped with a quick-change device with hydraulic locking, is equipped with:
a) protection against excessive engine speed,
b) protection against unintentional activation of the control panel,
c) 16-amp overload protection.250. Protective equipment that a machine must have during demolition work includes:
a) protective canopy – FOPS cabin,
b) device warning against overload and protection against cable breakage on the boom,c) signal lamp and white-red-white safety stickers.251. The mandatory equipment used for the operator to observe the area directly behind the machine is:
a) audible signal when reversing,
b) external mirror,
c) rearview camera.252. Together with the operator, other people may ride in the machine's cabin if:
a) the machine is moving at a low speed,
b) the manufacturer has installed an additional seat,
c) they have undergone health and safety training with the operator and there are a maximum of 2 people.253. The most important element of the operator's cabin equipment from the perspective of his safety is:
a) seat belt,
b) mirror or camera,c) emergency STOP button.254. Mirrors and rearview cameras in the machine are used for:
a) checking the technical condition of the machine,
b) improving the operator's visibility and increasing safety,
c) facilitating the maneuvering of working equipment.255. In ROPS-type cabins, additional equipment such as phone holders can be installed independently:
a) but this equipment must be permanently screwed to the cabin structure,
b) provided that there is no interference with the cabin structure,
c) remembering that installation is only possible on the cabin posts.256. In machines that do not have closed cabins, ROPS protection can be implemented using:
a) additional barriers mounted on the machine's body,
b) rollover protection bars,
c) machine stabilization or ballasting system.257. A green flashing light placed on the machine's cabin signals, among other things:
a) no operator in the cabin,b) the machine's eco mode is activated,
c) correct fastening of the seat belts.
258. In a parallel connection of two identical batteries, the voltage of such a system is:
a) the product of the voltages of the individual batteries,
b) equal to the voltage of a single battery,
c) the sum of the voltages of the individual batteries.259. In a series connection of two identical batteries, the voltage of such a system is:
a) the sum of the voltages of the individual batteries,
b) the product of the voltages of the individual batteries,c) equal to the voltage of a single battery.260. Fuses in the machine's electrical installation protect it from the effects of:
a) short circuits and overloads,
b) low voltage,c) high temperature.261. One of the elements of the electrical system protecting the engine from seizing is:
a) speed controller,
b) engine oil pressure sensor,
c) main fuse.262. Gel batteries, which are elements of the electrical system, do not require:
a) charging with a rectifier,
b) electrolyte replenishment,
c) replacement in case of housing damage.263. Electrical systems of machines and devices should be equipped with a device that causes emergency stop in at least the quantity of:
a) three devices causing emergency stop, according to the European machinery directive,
b) one device causing emergency stop, according to the European machinery directive,
c) two devices causing emergency stop placed on both sides of the machine, according to the European machinery directive.264. The emergency stop device of a machine is an element of:
a) fuel system,b) drive system,
c) electrical system.
265. The main parameters of an internal combustion engine affecting work efficiency are:
a) compression ratio, displacement,b) type of carburetor, type of ignition system,
c) torque, rotational speed.
266. The crankshaft-piston system of the internal combustion engine is designed to:
a) convert mechanical energy into hydraulic energy,
b) convert the reciprocating motion of the piston into the rotational motion of the crankshaft,
c) ensure the effective operation of the clutch.267. The lubrication system in the internal combustion engine:
a) provides regulation of the rotational speed and reduces engine vibrations during operation,b) is responsible for removing hazardous substances generated in the combustion process of the mixture,
c) is responsible for the proper lubrication of the moving elements of the engine that work together.
268. The engine timing system is used for:
a) damping noise and minimizing engine vibrations during operation,b) ensuring the optimal composition of the fuel-oil-air mixture for combustion,
c) controlling the filling of the combustion chamber with air or the fuel-air mixture and controlling the emptying of this chamber of exhaust gases.
269. Systems present in internal combustion engines include, among others:
a) hydraulic system, intake system,
b) crankshaft-piston system, fuel system, cooling system,
c) exhaust system, pneumatic system, closed system.270. The low-pressure part of the fuel system of a diesel engine is:
a) fuel lines, high-pressure pump, common rail,b) fuel tank and injectors,
c) fuel tank, supply pump, filters, fuel lines.
271. The element controlling the flow of coolant in the so-called "large circuit" is:
a) thermocouple,b) hot water bottle,
c) thermostat.
272. An intercooler is:
a) a device for burning solid particles in exhaust gases,
b) an air cooler for turbocharged engines,
c) another name for the engine coolant radiator.273. DPF filter:
a) is used to reduce NOx (nitrogen oxides) emissions,b) is a precise cabin filter protecting the operator during work in high dust conditions,
c) is a dry particulate filter responsible, among other things, for capturing soot from exhaust gases.
274. The frequency and scope of periodic maintenance of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam:
a) is determined by the owner of the machine/technical device,
b) is included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine,
c) is included in the IBWR documentation.275. The operating and maintenance manual for the machine/technical device is:
a) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by the health and safety services on the construction site,b) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device, which includes, among other things, IBWR,
c) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device.
276. The operator of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam must not:
a) use the machine/technical device contrary to its intended purpose,
b) make any repairs or maintenance,c) check the technical condition of the machine/technical device during operation.277. When operating a machine with interchangeable attachments/working tools, the operator should:
a) follow the instructions for the operation and use of the machine and the mounted attachment/working tool,
b) follow only the instructions for the operation and use of the mounted attachment/working tool,c) follow only the instructions for the operation and use of the machine.278. A symptom of too low a level of hydraulic oil may be:
a) "jerky" intermittent movement of hydraulic cylinders,
b) uneven operation of the diesel engine,c) loud operation of the starter.279. In the event of detecting damage to the tires that may pose a threat, the operator should:
a) stop work,
b) notify the supervisor and cautiously continue working,c) continue working while reducing the speed and load of the machine.280. If the warning light for too low engine oil pressure comes on, the operator:
a) should stop work and turn off the engine,
b) may continue working if the hydraulic system is functioning properly,c) does not have to take any action.281. The cause of the machine's instability may be:
a) driving on a hardened surface,b) the machine operating in its proper place,
c) too low tire pressure.
282. The cause of the machine's instability may be:
a) driving with the working tool lowered to the transport height,b) driving on a hardened surface,
c) driving with the working tool raised high.
283. The operating and maintenance manual for the machine/technical device:
a) is used to record information about faults,b) is established by the owner or user of the machine,
c) includes, among other things, information about hazards when operating the machine/technical device.
284. The CE Declaration of Conformity is a document:
a) issued by institutions that test machines for resistance to weather conditions,b) confirming that the product was manufactured in the European Union countries,
c) in which the manufacturer confirms that its product meets all applicable EU requirements regarding safety, health protection, and environmental protection.
285. Information regarding the use of personal protective equipment and ways to reduce occupational risk can be found by the operator:
a) in the operating and maintenance manual for the machine/technical device,
b) in the service book,c) in the CE Declaration of Conformity.286. The operating and maintenance manual for the machine/technical device:
a) is developed by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device or the entity that introduces the machine/technical device to the market,
b) is created by the construction manager based on information from the manufacturer,c) is created by institutions that conduct testing and accreditation of machine/technical device prototypes before allowing them for serial production.287. The operating and maintenance manual for the machine/technical device:
a) should be kept in the office along with the company's documentation and be available in case of inspection,b) does not matter where it is located, the most important thing is that the owner of the machine has it in case of resale of the machine,
c) should be located in the machine or near the device, treated as part of the machine/technical device and be available at any time.
288. Identification data of the machine/technical device:
a) should be recorded on the inner side of the protective helmet assigned to the given machine/technical device,b) due to their importance, they are always printed in red,
c) are located on the nameplate of the machine/technical device, and may additionally be in the marking places described in the manual.
289. To minimize the risk of machine/technical device failure, the operator should:
a) use the machine/technical device until the failure becomes serious,b) perform maintenance activities only when the machine/technical device stops working,
c) regularly visually assess the condition of the machine/technical device and report any noticed irregularities.
290. Key activities for the safe technical operation of the machine are:
a) securing equipment, covers, and doors against accidental closure and using personal protective equipment,
b) using latex gloves, without the need for other personal protective equipment,c) performing technical maintenance without securing working equipment to save time.291. When starting a combustion engine in small, closed rooms:
a) ventilation is not necessary as long as the engine runs only for a short time,
b) appropriate ventilation should be ensured before starting the engine or connect the exhaust pipe to the suction channel,
c) the engine can be started without ventilation if the windows are slightly ajar.292. The rules for safely performing technical service on machines are:
a) the machine should be positioned on level ground, working equipment lowered to the ground, engine turned off, and the key removed from the ignition,
b) the engine can remain on to perform service faster, especially if the machine is running idle,c) the machine can be left on sloped terrain as long as the operator plans a short technical service.293. Breaking in a machine during the initial period of operation is:
a) the process of achieving optimal clearances and even wear of parts,
b) the stage of the machine's operation without load,c) an intensive test of the machine under full load.294. The operator uses the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine or technical device to:
a) learn the technical specifications, safety rules, and methods for repairing faults,
b) record all faults of the machine or technical device noticed during operation,c) record the hours worked and fuel consumption by the machine.295. The service part of the operating and maintenance instructions for the machine or technical device includes:
a) instructions regarding, among others, controlling the machine/device,
b) a detailed description of the construction and operation of all elements of the machine/device,c) a catalog of spare parts.296. The operating and maintenance manual must always be present with the machine/technical device because:
a) it minimizes the risk of it being lost,
b) its absence may be the reason for the machine being deemed unfit for work by the OHS inspector,
c) it is essential for periodic technical inspections.297. The elements of the working system that require regular lubrication are:
a) flexible hydraulic hoses,
b) pins connecting individual parts of the equipment,
c) side surfaces of hydraulic cylinders.298. The SAE designation on oil refers to:
a) the multi-season qualification of the oil,b) the pressure of the engine oil,
c) the viscosity of the engine oil, that is, its ability to flow and lubricate.
299. Oil with the symbol SAE 15W-40 means that:
a) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 15W,
b) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 15W, and at positive temperatures of summer oil class SAE 40,
c) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40.300. Oil with the symbol SAE 10W-30 means that:
a) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W,b) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 30,
c) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W, and at positive temperatures of summer oil class SAE 30.
301. The SAE 10W-30 symbol means:
a) multi-season engine oil with specified parameters,
b) a mixture of engine oil and hydraulic oil,c) hydraulic oil with specified parameters.302. Engine oil with the SAE 5W-40 symbol means that:
a) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 5W, and at positive temperatures of summer oil class SAE 40,
b) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 5W,c) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40.
303. The symbol of the warning light shown in the graphic means:
a) low coolant level,b) low engine oil pressure,
c) low engine oil level.
304. The symbol of the warning light shown in the graphic means:
a) low coolant level,b) low fuel level,
c) low engine oil pressure.
305. The symbol of the warning light shown means:
a) hydraulic oil,
b) engine oil,
c) engine oil filter.
306. The presented symbol of the indicator means:
a) engine coolant level,
b) engine oil level,
c) hydraulic oil level.307. Oils with designations 70W, 85W, 80W-90 are:
a) brake oils,b) engine oils,
c) transmission oils.
308. In case of the need to dismantle the cover/protection for maintenance, it is not allowed to:
a) start working with the technical device without installing the cover/protection,
b) record such a fact in the documentation,c) reinstall the cover/protection.309. The lighting of the battery charging indicator signals to the operator of the construction machine a failure of:
a) the V-belt and/or alternator,
b) the battery switch,c) the starter.310. The operator's seat cannot be adjusted when:
a) the engine is not started,b) the seat is turned backwards,
c) the machine is in motion.
311. If during daily technical service before work the operator notices that one of the windows in the cabin is cracked, then:
a) may start work provided that the glass is only cracked and has not "fallen out",
b) should not start work,
c) may start work if it is not the front window.312. Before starting work, the operator should:
a) install sunshade covers on the windows,
b) clean the windows by removing snow, ice, and other contaminants,
c) open the windows for better communication.313. When changing hydraulic oils, one should:
a) use only types of oils recommended by the machine manufacturer,
b) use any type of oil,c) always use only biodegradable oils.314. To ensure the technical efficiency of the working machine, one should:
a) operate the machine/technical device without exceeding 50% of the permissible load,b) operate the machine/technical device only under full load,
c) adhere to technical service and maintenance according to the operating and maintenance instructions.
315. At the construction site, empty containers of lubricants, oil filters, and used oils should be:
a) thrown into any waste container,
b) placed in a properly marked hazardous waste container,
c) thrown into a mixed waste container.316. Stickers (pictograms) located on the machine/technical device serve to:
a) convey important information about safety and the use of the machine/technical device,
b) inform about the prohibition of approaching the machine/technical device,c) indicate places where one can stay without any risk.317. Lubrication points in the machine should be serviced:
a) during all breaks in work,b) always after 10 hours of work,
c) according to the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine.
318. Engine oil with parameters 5W-50 is:
a) a multi-season oil,
b) an oil only for summer,c) an oil only for winter.319. Before starting work on a new type of machine/technical device, the operator should:
a) perform a periodic inspection,
b) familiarize themselves with the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine/technical device,
c) perform a trial work.320. OTC service is:
a) temporary technical service,
b) daily technical service,
c) round-the-clock technical service.321. The basic types of service are:
a) daily service, periodic, warehouse, transport,
b) round-the-clock service, multi-seasonal, annual, technological,c) visual service, active, passive.322. Batteries, when starting the machine using a supporting battery, should be connected:
a) in parallel,
b) crosswise,c) in series.323. In the case of electrolyte loss caused by spillage through a cracked battery case, one should:
a) secure the leak area in terms of environmental protection, and then replace the battery,
b) add electrolyte to the proper level and charge the battery,c) add demineralized water to a level of 10 mm above the upper edges of the plates.324. The activities performed by the operator as part of daily service during work are:
a) cleaning the machine,
b) auditory control of the machine's operation and observation of indicators,
c) replenishing operating fluids and daily lubrication.325. When inflating the tire of the machine's wheel, one should:
a) stand by the inflated wheel provided that a safety helmet is used,b) check the condition of the inflated wheel by bending the side of the tire,
c) not stand directly by the inflated wheel.
326. If the manufacturer has provided for operational reaching, it should be carried out:
a) with the load recommended in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device,
b) without load,c) with the maximum load.327. During the storage of the machine on a wheeled chassis, the wheels of the machine should be:
a) unloaded,
b) secured with wedges,c) removed from the machine.328. Driving the machine on public roads should be done in the position:
a) transfer,
b) transport,
c) working.329. During the loading of the machine onto the transport vehicle, the operator should:
a) approach at a speed of at least 5 [km/h],
b) know the permissible angle of inclination of the loading plates for the given machine,
c) know the maximum speed allowed for the given transport vehicle.330. The responsibility for the placement and securing of the machine on the transport vehicle lies with:
a) the machine operator,b) the owner or the person responsible for the machines in the company,
c) the carrier (e.g. driver).
331. When storing the machine, one must ensure that:
a) the machine is facing the exit,b) no machine documents are left in the cabin,
c) there are no leaks of operating fluids.
332. Securing the machine during storage downtime involves:
a) filling the hydraulic oil tank to the top,b) disassembling all filters and protecting them from moisture,
c) cleaning the machine of dirt and corrosion.
333. The rods of hydraulic cylinders, during technical service of the stored machine, should be:
a) disassembled and the seals replaced,
b) protected against corrosion,
c) disassembled and cleaned.334. During the transport of the machine:
a) tools and other items can be transported in the bucket if it is free,b) for short distances, tools and other items can be transported in the working tool,
c) tools and other items cannot be transported in the working tool.
335. When loading the machine onto the transport vehicle:
a) the operator should drive onto the transport vehicle independently,
b) assistance from a second person is recommended,
c) assistance from a second person is recommended only when loading onto a low-loader trailer.336. The recommended way to load heavy working machines onto low-loader trailers is:
a) mechanized loading from the front ramp,
b) loading with ropes,c) loading using other machines.337. During longer storage of the machine, the fuel tank should be:
a) empty, to avoid fire hazards,
b) filled to the top, to prevent condensation of water vapor inside the tank,
c) filled to 1/3 of its capacity and left open.338. During daily operation of the machine, the condition of should be checked:
a) the value of working pressure in the hydraulic system,b) tools and equipment,
c) connections and tightness of the hydraulic system.
339. If the machine's engine has not been running for a longer time, during daily operation one should:
a) replace the fuel pre-filter,
b) check the oil level and other operating fluids,
c) start the engine and gently increase the RPM to reach the operating temperature faster.340. When inflating tires on a working machine, the operator should:
a) stand beside the tire tread or on the other side of the machine,
b) stand directly in front of the tire to monitor the pressure,c) ensure that bystanders are nearby.341. Information regarding faults, their codes and methods of removal can be found in the document titled:
a) daily report,
b) operating and maintenance manual,
c) construction machine book.342. The correct order for connecting the auxiliary battery to the discharged battery in the machine is as follows:
a) negative terminal of the battery in the machine, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, machine frame,b) machine frame, positive terminal of the battery in the machine, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery,
c) positive terminal of the battery in the machine, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, machine frame.
343. In the event of electrolyte loss in the battery, one should:
a) replenish it with distilled or demineralized water,
b) replenish it with water other than distilled,c) replenish it with DOT-3 fluid.344. Checking the charge state of the 12 [V] starter battery by "sparking" poses a risk of:
a) explosion of hydrogen escaping from the battery,
b) seizure of the alternator,c) electric shock from high voltage.345. Before storing wheels in a wheeled machine, one should:
a) loosen to reduce the static load on the mounting screws,
b) relieve to prevent tire deformation,
c) inflate to maximum pressure to prevent tire deformation.346. The scope of daily technical service of a machine does not include:
a) checking the oil level in the engine,
b) checking and adjusting the valve clearances,
c) checking the condition of the tires and tire pressure.347. When cleaning the radiator, to avoid damaging it, you should:
a) keep the compressed air nozzle at an appropriate distance from the radiator,
b) use a strong jet of water under high pressure,c) use sharp tools for cleaning.348. The purpose of lubrication in working machines is:
a) to reduce friction,
b) to increase the engine speed,c) to raise the temperature of cooperating elements.349. The most commonly used type of fuses in electrical installations of working machines is:
a) residual current devices,b) automatic fuses,
c) cartridge fuses.
350. The phenomenon of electrostatic charge during refueling a machine can lead to:
a) poisoning,
b) fire,
c) short circuit of the electrical installation.351. In the case of connecting two batteries in parallel with different rated voltages:
a) thicker cables should be used than with batteries of the same rated voltages,
b) there may be an explosion of the battery with the lower rated voltage,
c) both batteries may discharge.352. When checking the pressure in a tire, the machine should be:
a) running and warmed up,b) loaded to make the measurement more accurate,
c) unloaded, and the tire should be cold.
353. The correct way to connect a battery to a charger during charging is:
a) the positive terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger, the negative terminal of the battery to the negative terminal of the charger,
b) the positive terminal of the battery to the negative terminal of the charger, the negative terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger,c) the positive terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger, the negative terminal of the charger to the "ground" of the machine.354. After connecting the battery, the terminals are lubricated with:
a) grease containing molybdenum disulfide,
b) technical vaseline,
c) graphite grease.355. To safely inflate a tire, you should:
a) use a short pneumatic hose with a manometer,b) stand opposite the tire valve while inflating,
c) stand beside the tire tread and use a long pneumatic hose.
356. One of the goals of warehouse handling is:
a) preparing the machine for transport for the future user,
b) protecting the machine from corrosion and other harmful factors during long-term storage,
c) repairing damaged machine components before the next season.357. If during daily technical service the operator notices a leak in the cooling system, he should:
a) report the leak and not use the machine until it is repaired,
b) organize fluid and refill to the minimum level if the leak is small,c) refill the coolant and continue working.358. The level of coolant in the expansion tank should be checked:
a) only during periodic technical service,
b) during every daily technical service,
c) only in case of engine overheating.359. If the operator notices a hydraulic fluid leak during daily technical service, he should:
a) top up the oil and continue working,
b) report the leak and not use the machine until it is repaired,
c) reduce the RPM and continue working.360. The frequency of performing periodic technical service depends on:
a) the production date of the machine,b) the number of completed working cycles,
c) the number of hours worked (engine hours).
361. If during daily technical service the operator notices a low level of engine oil, he should:
a) top up the level with any available oil, even if it is of a different type,b) continue working if the level is not very low and the warning light is not on,
c) top up the oil to the appropriate level.
362. A characteristic activity for seasonal technical service is:
a) checking the charging voltage value,
b) replacing the coolant with one appropriate for the season,
c) checking the working pressure value of the hydraulic system.363. The basic service activities that must be performed before starting a diesel engine are:
a) bleeding the fuel system, checking the level of transmission oil, checking the starter,
b) checking the oil level in the engine, checking the coolant level, checking the condition of the air filter,
c) checking the oil level in the gearbox, checking the operation of the working system, checking the operation of the brakes.364. Activities performed as part of daily technical service (OTC) carried out during the operation of the machine include:
a) primarily the sensory control of the proper operation of the machine's working system,
b) observation of control and measuring instruments and checking the proper operation of the machine using sight, hearing, and smell,
c) observation only of control and measuring indicators such as: oil pressure, engine temperature, hydraulic oil temperature.365. We distinguish, among others, the following types of technical services:
a) transport, commissioning, daily, periodic, seasonal, storage,
b) commissioning, daily, periodic, seasonal, storage, emergency, night,c) transport, commissioning, storage, service-repair (ON), catalog.366. We perform technical servicing in order to:
a) ensure quiet operation of the machine or technical device,