Trenchless technology drilling rigs class II
Study mode
Question of 316
1. What is the minimum allowable distance of the machine from the reach of the wedge of the collapse?
a) 0.6 [m],
b) 0.4 [m],c) 0.8 [m].2. The safe distance of the machine from the excavation is:
a) the reach of the wedge of the collapse + 0.6 [m],
b) 1.6 [m],c) the depth of the excavation + 0.6 [m].
3. Based on the provided table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] made in cohesive soils:
a) 1.6 [m],
b) 1 [m],c) 2.6 [m].4. Based on the provided table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] made in fractured rocks:
a) 2.6 [m],b) 4.6 [m],
c) 3.6 [m].
5. Based on the provided table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] made in slightly cohesive soils:
a) 2.6 [m],
b) 3.1 [m],
c) 3.6 [m]. Drilling rigs for trenchless technology Class II6. What is the minimum safe distance from the UPPER edge of the embankment that a machine can approach, given the following data: Soil category - I (dry sand), height of the embankment - h = 2 [m], horizontal distance between the upper and lower edges of the embankment - a = 2.5 [m]?
a) 3.6 [m],b) 0.6 [m],
c) 1.1 [m].
7. What is the minimum safe distance from the UPPER edge of the embankment that a machine can approach, given the following data: Soil category - II (slightly cohesive soils), height of the embankment - h = 4 [m], horizontal distance between the upper and lower edges of the embankment - a = 2.5 [m]?
a) 3.1 [m],
b) 0.6 [m],c) 5.6 [m].8. At what horizontal distance from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage not exceeding 1 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 3 [m],
b) not less than 2 [m],c) not less than 5 [m].9. At what horizontal distance from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 15 [m],b) not less than 10 [m],
c) not less than 5 [m].
10. At what horizontal distance from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 5 [m],b) not less than 15 [m],
c) not less than 10 [m].
11. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?
a) not less than 15 [m],
b) not less than 10 [m],c) not less than 20 [m].12. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?
a) not less than 30 [m],
b) not less than 10 [m],c) not less than 15 [m].13. Is it possible to organize workstations in the danger zone under overhead power lines?
a) no, never,
b) yes, but only after meeting additional requirements,
c) yes, always.
14. What is the safe distance X for the operation of a machine or technical device under overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [V]?
a) not less than 5 [m],
b) not less than 3 [m],
c) not less than 30 [m].15. What is the safe distance X for the operation of a machine or technical device under overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV]?
a) not less than 15 [m],b) not less than 10 [m],
c) not less than 5 [m].
16. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?
a) not less than 10 [m],
b) not less than 15 [m],c) not less than 30 [m].17. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?
a) not less than 10 [m],
b) not less than 5 [m],c) not less than 15 [m].18. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV]?
a) not less than 15 [m],
b) not less than 50 [m],c) not less than 30 [m].19. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV]?
a) not less than 10 [m],
b) not less than 30 [m],c) not less than 15 [m].20. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]?
a) not less than 40 [m],
b) not less than 30 [m],
c) not less than 3 [m].21. Work in the danger zone (overhead high voltage power line):
a) may be carried out provided that the line is disconnected from the voltage, the work is performed in an area limited by groundings and at least one grounding is visible from the work site,
b) may be carried out provided that permission from the site manager has been granted,c) may not be carried out under electrical lines in the danger zone.22. The operator must perform work at a distance X from the active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [V]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 5 [m],
b) 2 [m],c) 1 [m].23. The operator must perform work at a distance X from the active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 3 [m],
b) 15 [m],
c) 5 [m].24. The operator must perform work at a distance X from the active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 5 [m],
b) 50 [m],
c) 15 [m].25. If the injured person has a detectable pulse but is not breathing, then:
a) chest compressions should be performed,
b) the airways should be cleared and artificial respiration should be started,
c) he should not be touched.26. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, one should primarily:
a) provide assistance to those in life-threatening situations,
b) give injured persons medication,c) leave the accident scene to call a doctor.27. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, one should primarily:
a) leave the accident scene to call a doctor,
b) take care of one's own safety,
c) provide assistance to those in life-threatening situations.28. The obligation to provide first aid to accident victims rests with:
a) everyone, but for any mistakes, there is always a risk of criminal liability,b) only those with medical training,
c) everyone, as one can always perform part of the rescue tasks.
29. The accident victim regained consciousness after a few minutes and wants to go home. In such a situation, one should:
a) persuade her to stay and call for medical help,
b) allow her to go home, recommending a visit to a doctor,c) give her something to drink and pain relief medication.30. First aid in a situation where a foreign body has entered the eye of the injured person consists of:
a) rinsing with clean water directing the stream from the nose outward from the eye,
b) rinsing with distilled water directing the stream inward to the eye,c) rinsing the eye with eye drops.31. The injured person cut their leg on an unsecured sharp element. Providing first aid in this situation is:
a) applying sterile gauze, wrapping the wound with a bandage,
b) using a tourniquet,c) sticking a plaster directly on the wound.32. Suspecting spinal injury in a person who has fallen from a height and is conscious, one should:
a) seat them in a semi-reclining position,
b) not move them and wait for medical services to arrive,
c) lay them in the recovery position.33. To move away from the place where the electric wire has been broken and the area is live, one should:
a) run as quickly as possible to a place that we assess as safe,b) quickly step away from the source of electric shock, lifting feet high,
c) leave the place slowly, taking small steps, trying to maintain continuous contact of feet with the ground.
34. First aid in the case of a first-degree burn is:
a) pouring cold water on the burned area,
b) applying ointment to the burned area,c) applying greasy cream to the burned area.35. During work, a high-voltage power line was broken, as a result of which a colleague was electrocuted. In this situation, the correct behavior is:
a) approach the injured person to provide first aid,
b) turn off the power source as quickly as possible,
c) call other colleagues for help with the injured person.36. We perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation until:
a) 10 minutes have passed,b) the fire department arrives and secures the area,
c) we have determined that the victim has started to breathe and circulation has returned.
37. Immediate action in the case of severe bleeding from an injured upper limb includes:
a) applying a dressing, directly compressing the bleeding site, and elevating the limb,
b) lowering the limb below heart level,c) disinfecting the wound with salicylic alcohol.38. In the case of a nosebleed, one should:
a) lean the bleeding person's head forward and pinch the nostrils,
b) tilt the head back and place a cold compress on the neck,c) lay the injured person on their back.39. The first step in dealing with a victim of carbon monoxide poisoning in a closed room is:
a) conducting a preliminary examination,
b) the quickest possible evacuation of the victim from that room,
c) assessing ABC.40. First aid during seizures caused by an epileptic attack consists of:
a) seating the victim in a semi-sitting position and giving them something to drink,
b) protecting the victim's head from injuries,
c) placing a wooden object in the victim's mouth to prevent biting the tongue.41. In case of suspected spinal injury in the cervical section in a conscious person, one should:
a) seat the injured person in a chair with a high back,b) place the injured person in a lateral position,
c) not allow the injured person to move their head.
42. The most important thing when a person is buried under earth, sand, or gravel is:
a) waiting for the arrival of the ambulance,b) notifying the family,
c) locating the injured person.
43. First aid for a person with a metal rod embedded in their lower leg involves calling for help and:
a) removing the embedded rod,b) moving the rod to check if the artery has been damaged,
c) securing the rod to prevent movement.
44. The indication for using an AED defibrillator is:
a) lack of detectable breath and pulse in the injured person,
b) severe chest pain,c) severe dizziness.45. During the operation of a machine/technical device, the prohibited actions for which you are taking the exam are:
a) performing daily technical service (OTS),b) changing the working tool,
c) making structural changes to the machine/technical device.
46. During the operation of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam, the prohibited activities are:
a) refueling the machine/technical device from a canister,b) cleaning the machine/technical device using a product in accordance with the operating and maintenance manual,
c) cleaning the machine/technical device using gasoline or solvents whose vapors can create flammable/explosive gas mixtures with air.
47. During the execution of work, it is unacceptable to:
a) work near an active power line with a rated voltage of 10 [kV] at a distance of 10 [m],b) work near an active power line with a rated voltage of 20 [kV] at a distance of 15 [m],
c) work near active overhead power lines at a distance less than specified by regulations.
48. The machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam can only be operated by:
a) a person with written confirmation of course completion in the form of a plastic card,b) any adult person with technical education and a driver's license of the appropriate category,
c) a person who has completed training and obtained a positive result in the test conducted by the commission appointed by the Łukasiewicz Research Network – Warsaw Institute of Technology.
49. The rights to operate machines/technical devices for which you are taking the exam are issued by:
a) The County Office appropriate for the residence address of the person applying for the rights,
b) The Łukasiewicz Research Network - Warsaw Institute of Technology (ŁR - WIT),
c) The Office of Technical Inspection (UDT).50. The rights to operate machines/technical devices for which you are taking the exam:
a) are valid for 10 years from the date of issue,b) are valid for 5 years from the date of issue,
c) are valid indefinitely.
51. A person holding a license to operate: "Drilling machines for trenchless technology class II" can operate based on this license:
a) only drilling machines for trenchless technology with a pipe diameter Ø up to 600 mm,
b) drilling machines for trenchless technology, but this does not grant any other licenses for any other machines/technical devices,
c) only drilling machines for trenchless technology with a pipe diameter Ø up to 800 mm.52. An employee operating a machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam can start work provided that:
a) they have a valid category D driving license,
b) they have the qualifications to operate this type of machine/technical device,
c) the machine/technical device has a valid UDT inspection.53. In the event of a threat to life, health, property, or the environment caused by a malfunction of the machine/technical device, the operator:
a) immediately stops work and informs their supervisor of this fact,
b) continues working, but at the end of the shift informs the supervisor of the situation,c) continues working, but at the end of the shift makes an appropriate entry in the maintenance log.54. An employee operating a machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam has the right to refuse to start work when:
a) they have the required personal protective equipment,b) there is an overhead power line with a voltage of 110 [kV] located 35 meters away,
c) this work requires special psychophysical fitness, and their psychophysical condition does not ensure its safe execution and poses a threat to others.
55. An employee operating a machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is obliged to stop work when:
a) there is an overhead power line located 35 meters away,
b) the work they are performing poses an immediate threat to the health or life of others,
c) they have the required personal protective equipment.56. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is required to:
a) independently perform all current repairs of the machine/technical device,b) always have a category B driving license,
c) comply with the provisions of the operating and maintenance instructions for the machine/technical device.
57. The person directly responsible for the safe operation of the machine for which you are taking the exam is:
a) the owner of the machine,b) the construction manager,
c) the machine operator.
58. The operator's book and qualifications for the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam are issued by:
a) Transport Technical Supervision (TDT),b) Office of Technical Supervision (UDT),
c) Łukasiewicz Research Network - Warsaw Institute of Technology.
59. The obligation to use personal protective equipment:
a) does not apply on hot days,
b) results from the operating and maintenance instructions and health and safety regulations,
c) results only from internal regulations.60. An employee who witnesses an accident at work:
a) only needs to inform their supervisor,
b) is obliged to assist the victims, inform their supervisor, and if necessary secure the accident site,
c) is obliged to assist the victims and then immediately leave the accident site.61. What elements of the machine, for which you are taking the exam, protect the operator in case the machine tips over:
a) ROPS type machine cabin and safety belts,
b) machine seat,c) certified protective helmet and reflective vest.62. In case of loss of stability by a machine equipped with a ROPS type cabin, the operator should:
a) quickly turn left and raise the working equipment as high as possible,b) try to leave the cabin as quickly as possible (before the machine tips over),
c) maintain a seated position while holding on tightly to the steering wheel or other stable elements in the cabin.
63. In case of loss of stability by a machine equipped with a ROPS type cabin, the operator should:
a) immediately jump out of the cabin,
b) stay in the cabin,
c) turn on the warning/emergency lights.64. The danger zone is defined as:
a) a place where work requiring specialized equipment is carried out, and the presence of people is only allowed at night,b) a place where workers must only wear protective helmets,
c) a place where there are threats to the health and life of people.
65. The danger zone on a construction site:
a) is designated and/or fenced off and marked in a way that prevents access to unauthorized persons,
b) is designated after the construction work has started,c) is always designated by a surveyor.66. The area that the operator should check and secure before starting work with the machine/technical device (because there are health and life hazards) is called:
a) danger zone,
b) dead zone,c) area of increased risk.
67. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:
a) "lift up",b) "rotate the machine",
c) "movement in the indicated direction".
68. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:
a) "lift up",b) "rotate the machine",
c) "movement in the indicated direction".
69. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:
a) "move backward",
b) "move forward",
c) "fast movement".
70. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:
a) "slow movement",
b) "move backward",
c) "move forward".
71. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "movement backward",b) "horizontal distance",
c) "STOP. Emergency stop".
72. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "movement backward",
b) "START. Beginning of control",
c) "STOP. Emergency stop".
73. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "movement backward",
b) "STOP. Break - end of movement",
c) "STOP. Emergency stop".
74. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "END. Stop operation",
b) "lower down",c) "horizontal distance".75. During the charging of batteries, a gas with highly explosive properties is released. This gas is:
a) methane,b) ethane,
c) hydrogen.
76. Fire extinguishing foam can be used to extinguish fires of group:
a) C and D,
b) A and B,
c) only C.77. Improper use of a snow extinguisher can result in:
a) frostbite caused by the extinguishing agent,
b) burns from the elements of the extinguisher,c) fainting.78. Water, fire blanket, powder extinguisher, carbon dioxide, sand are extinguishing agents that we will use to extinguish:
a) liquids,b) oils,
c) solids.
79. We can call sorbents:
a) petroleum-derived substances,b) fire blankets,
c) materials made from natural or synthetic substances that absorb liquids.
80. Group A fires concern:
a) flammable gases,b) flammable liquids,
c) solids whose normal combustion occurs with the formation of glowing coals, e.g. wood, paper, etc..
81. Group B fires concern:
a) liquids and solid materials that melt, e.g. plastics, fuels, oils, etc.,
b) metals, e.g. magnesium, sodium, potassium, aluminum, titanium, etc.,c) flammable gases.82. Group C fires concern:
a) solids,b) flammable liquids,
c) gases, e.g. methane, propane, acetylene, hydrogen.
83. Seeing such a pictogram you are informed about:
a) the assembly point during evacuation,
b) the danger zone,c) a larger number of people in a given area.
84. While working you noticed a sign marked 'Zone 0'. It informs about:
a) a space where an explosive atmosphere exists,
b) the zone of existing fire load in the building,c) the zone of existing fire hazard category.
85. The presented pictogram informs about:
a) the main power switch,
b) a set of fire protection equipment,
c) an internal hydrant.86. Seeing such a pictogram informs you about:
a) the location of the first aid station,
b) the emergency exit,
c) the assembly point during evacuation.
87. Seeing such a pictogram informs you about:
a) the location of the fire extinguisher,
b) the prohibition of using the fire extinguisher,c) the high temperature affecting the fire extinguisher.88. You see a person whose clothing is on fire and who is running away in panic. Your reaction is:
a) you tell him to wait in an upright position for the arrival of rescue services,
b) you try to stop him, lay him on the ground, and start extinguishing,
c) you wave your arms or outer covering strongly next to him to extinguish the burning clothing.89. Electrical devices and installations can be extinguished using:
a) water,
b) powder or snow extinguishers,
c) foam extinguishers.90. Burning fuel can be extinguished using:
a) powder, foam, or snow extinguishers,
b) water,c) low-octane ethylene.91. Clothing on fire can be extinguished using:
a) plastic material,b) snow or powder extinguisher,
c) water mist extinguisher or fire blanket.
92. What obligations does an employee have when they decide to refrain from work due to health and safety regulations?
a) They should organize work for others,b) They have no obligations in this situation,
c) They must immediately notify their supervisor.
93. How can an operator prevent hazards in the workplace?
a) By ignoring health and safety rules,b) By not reporting faults in machines,
c) By using personal protective equipment to minimize risk.
94. It is not permissible to position a workplace directly under active overhead power lines or at a horizontal distance from the outermost wires of less than:
a) for lines: 1 [kV] - 3 [m], 15 [kV] - 5 [m], 30 [kV] - 10 [m], 110 [kV] - 15 [m], 400 [kV] - 30 [m],
b) for all voltages - 1 [m] from the power line,c) for lines: 1 [kV] - 1 [m], 15 [kV] - 3 [m], 30 [kV] - 5 [m], 110 [kV] - 10 [m].95. How does the operator know what personal protective equipment is required for a given machine/technical device?
a) Information about necessary personal protective equipment is included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine,
b) The choice of personal protective equipment depends on the opinions of colleagues at work,c) The operator must independently choose the appropriate protective measures.96. The operator should refuse to perform the task when:
a) the work is inconsistent with the intended use of the machine/technical device,
b) the work requires familiarization with the location of underground and overhead utilities,c) the work is performed at night.97. The operator can prevent hazards while operating the machine/technical device by:
a) limiting the use of personal protective equipment,b) inattention and routine,
c) following health and safety rules and adhering to the operating instructions.
98. Which of the following situations is unacceptable during the use of the machine/technical device?
a) The presence of unauthorized persons in the danger zone caused by the operation of the machine/technical device,
b) Operating the machine without supervision,c) Reporting faults directly to the supervisor.99. An accident at work is considered to be:
a) a long-term event related to the work performed, caused by an internal reason, resulting in equipment damage,b) a sudden event unrelated to the work performed, caused by an external reason, resulting in injury or death,
c) a sudden event related to the work performed, caused by an external reason, resulting in injury or death.
100. A fatal accident at work is considered to be an accident in which death occurred:
a) more than 6 months after the date of the accident,b) only at the moment of the accident,
c) within a period not exceeding 6 months from the date of the accident.
101. Occupational health and safety regulations require:
a) securing the working machine during breaks in its operation against accidental activation by unauthorized persons,
b) performing a warranty inspection of the working machine before the end of one year from its purchase,c) scrapping the old working machine within the time specified in its operating and maintenance manual, while adhering to the requirements for the disposal of hazardous materials.102. In the event of a person being electrocuted:
a) do not touch the injured person until the power source is disconnected,
b) immediate resuscitation should be initiated, regardless of whether the power source has been disconnected,c) it is recommended to use any tools to disconnect the power, regardless of their actual purpose.103. Seeing a person whose clothing is on fire, the first thing to do is:
a) use a fire extinguisher, preferably a snow type, to extinguish the burning clothing, and then try to quickly remove the melted clothing,
b) cut off the air supply by rolling the injured person or wrapping them in a fire blanket, wet clothing, or a wet blanket,
c) leave the injured person standing to facilitate air access and extinguish the flames more quickly.104. The soil collapse wedge:
a) is the area around the working machine extending a distance of 6 [m] beyond its farthest reach,
b) occurs when the slope of the embankment exceeds the angle of the natural soil slope,
c) occurs only when the soil is in a frozen state.105. The reach of the soil collapse wedge:
a) depends on the depth of the excavation and the category of the soil,
b) depends on the speed of the machine's operation and the efficiency of the operator,c) depends solely on the temperature of the soil.106. The angle of natural slope is:
a) the angle at which a machine can be safely operated - it depends on the parameters of the given machine,
b) the maximum slope at which the ground can remain stable without sliding - it depends, among other things, on the category of the ground,
c) the angle at which the ground will definitely slide by itself - it depends solely on the temperature of that ground.107. The wedge of ground collapse:
a) is the zone where the ground becomes unstable - its extent depends solely on the depth of the excavation, the type of ground does not matter here,b) is the space around the machine, dependent on the working speed of the machine and its weight,
c) occurs when the slope exceeds the angle of natural slope of the ground - its extent depends on the type of ground and the depth of the excavation or the height of the slope.
108. The angle of natural slope is:
a) the slope at which any embankment becomes unstable, regardless of the type of ground,
b) the maximum slope at which the ground can remain stable without sliding - it depends on the type of ground, e.g. moisture, cohesion, and grain size,
c) the angle at which a machine can safely move on an embankment, regardless of the category of the ground.109. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is performed:
a) only in the case of fainting and minor injuries, to improve blood circulation,b) when the injured person is breathing but is unconscious, and there is no contact with them,
c) when the injured person is not breathing and there is no detectable pulse. For a person who is not a professional rescuer, lack of breathing is a sufficient basis to start resuscitation.
110. An employee has the right to refrain from performing work due to health and safety regulations, notifying their supervisor immediately if:
a) the work they are performing has not been reported to the construction supervision,
b) the working conditions pose an immediate threat to health or life,
c) the working conditions do not pose a threat but are too difficult for them.111. Physical factors generating hazards in the workplace are:
a) lack of appropriate medical examinations of the employee,
b) spilled greases, oils, and fuels,
c) lack of or inadequate training of employees.112. Working with a machine/technical device is not allowed when:
a) its repair was carried out after dark,b) the second operator did not report an upcoming inspection,
c) it is malfunctioning.
113. Working near overhead power lines:
a) is possible without meeting additional requirements provided that certain distances depending on the rated voltage of the line are maintained,
b) always requires power to be turned off in the line,c) always requires double grounding of the line.114. The operator is obliged to refuse to work if:
a) there is no site manager or any other person authorized to supervise at the work site,
b) the machine is malfunctioning,
c) they would have to work under power lines, and the voltage in them has been turned off and the line grounded.115. The danger zone from a machine/technical device is:
a) a place where there are hazards to health or life of people,
b) always the entire fenced construction site,c) a place where the machine/technical device cannot be used.116. Accidents at work resulting from the poor technical condition of the working machine may include, for example:
a) damage to the equipment,
b) injury to a limb, torso, or head,
c) failure of the drive system.117. Unacceptable behaviors are:
a) operating a faulty machine and working under the influence of alcohol,
b) working after dark in a well-lit place, with full concentration of the operator,c) performing daily maintenance of the machine after dark.118. General rules for safely getting on and off the machine are:
a) using cables and levers as aids for getting on is permissible when the machine is turned off,
b) a person should face the machine, remember the "three-point support" rule, and use only specially made steps and handrails,
c) one can descend backward from the machine, but only when the steps are slippery.119. Typical operational hazards that may occur in the workplace of a drilling rig for trenchless technology are:
a) increased fuel consumption and decreased work efficiency when working in high temperatures,
b) being pulled in, crushing, high hydraulic oil pressure, high oil temperature and machine parts, slipping, falling,
c) falling into water, drowning, being hit by a broken cutting disc, falling objects.120. The basic duties of an employee regarding occupational health and safety are:
a) enforcing labor code regulations regarding their rights, including payment for overtime worked,b) not being late for work, finishing on time, confirming presence at work in a manner accepted by the employer,
c) adhering to health and safety regulations and rules, taking care of the condition of machines and tools, maintaining order in the workplace, using personal protective equipment.
121. In the case of a person electrocuted, after disconnecting the power source, one should:
a) leave the victim alone if they have regained consciousness, without further actions,b) move the victim to another place as quickly as possible,
c) check the condition of the victim, and if necessary: call for help, clear the airways, perform resuscitation, and use an AED if available.
122. After extinguishing flames on a person with burns and calling for help, one should:
a) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes, previously removing any melted clothing,b) use a snow extinguisher to cool the burn area,
c) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes, without removing any melted clothing.
123. If the operator notices faults that may prevent the proper operation of the machine, they should:
a) continue working and repair the machine after completing the task,
b) have the obligation to refuse to start the machine and report this to their supervisor,
c) ignore the faults if the machine is currently operating correctly.
124. Seeing such a pictogram, you are informed about:
a) a location where an external automatic defibrillator is available,
b) a location for performing AED,c) a location where a first aid kit is available.125. Properly performed cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) consists of:
a) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 100-120 times per minute to a depth of 5–6 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 30 compressions (breaths are not mandatory),
b) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 30-60 times per minute to a depth of 1–3 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 15 compressions (breaths are mandatory),c) connecting an external automatic defibrillator (AED) and following its instructions; CPR is not performed without an AED.126. The abbreviation IBWR stands for:
a) Instruction for Non-Failure Execution of Works,b) Instruction for Non-Failure Execution of Works,
c) Instruction for Safe Execution of Works.
127. Expand the abbreviation IBWR:
a) Information on Safe Execution of Works,b) Implementation of Non-Failure Execution of Works,
c) Instruction for Safe Execution of Works.
128. The Instruction for Safe Execution of Construction Works is:
a) a plan of the route in construction works,
b) a document containing information regarding safety on the construction site,
c) a document confirming qualifications for operating machines and technical devices in earthworks, construction, and road works.129. The BIOZ plan stands for:
a) Health and Safety Plan,
b) Safety and Resource Specification Plan,c) Safe Health Protection Instruction Plan.
130. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 1.6 [m],b) 4 [m],
c) 1 [m].
131. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 1 [m],
b) 1.5 [m],
c) 1.6 [m].132. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 1 [m],b) 1.6 [m],
c) 0.5 [m].
133. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 1.6 [m],
b) 1 [m],
c) 2 [m].134. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 2 [m],
b) 1 [m],c) 1.6 [m].135. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 2 [m],
b) 3 [m],
c) 1 [m].136. The reach of the wedge of the block for an excavation with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 2.6 [m],b) 3 [m],
c) 4 [m].
137. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 1.6 [m],
b) 2.6 [m],c) 1 [m].138. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 6.6 [m],
b) 2.1 [m],
c) 3.6 [m].139. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 2 [m],
b) 2.6 [m],
c) 4.6 [m].140. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 2.6 [m],
b) 1.1 [m],
c) 2 [m].141. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category III (cracked rocks) is:
a) 2 [m],
b) 1.6 [m],
c) 2.6 [m].142. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category III (cracked rocks) is:
a) 4.6 [m],b) 2 [m],
c) 2.6 [m].
143. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category III (cracked rocks) is:
a) 2.1 [m],b) 3 [m],
c) 3.6 [m].
144. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category III (cracked rocks) is:
a) 4.6 [m],
b) 4 [m],c) 2.6 [m].145. In a situation of danger, when the cabin doors cannot be opened:
a) the space after removing the floor panel can be used as an emergency exit,
b) the emergency exit provided by the manufacturer should be used,
c) one must not leave the cabin until help arrives.146. If the seat belt is damaged, you should:
a) continue working and report the problem after finishing work,b) exercise special caution while working,
c) report the damage and not start working until the belt is repaired or replaced.
147. The operator must wear a safety helmet while working with the machine when:
a) working on demolition tasks using long booms,
b) working in a machine not equipped with a closed cabin,
c) frequently leaning out of the cabin while working.148. You should enter and exit the machine:
a) backwards to the machine, using a three-step ladder,b) entering sideways while being careful of the devices in the cabin,
c) facing the machine, maintaining three points of contact.
149. Visible underground infrastructure devices that provide initial insight into their layout are most often:
a) hydrant boxes, water shut-off boxes, manhole covers,
b) graphic symbols marked on the road surface,c) abandoned road edges where they pass through.150. Soils, according to the degree of difficulty in their detachment, are divided into:
a) 16 categories,
b) 4 categories,c) 10 categories.151. The operator of the machine should know the category of the soil on which he works:
a) to know the requirements for operating the machine's chassis,b) to be able to assess the depth of the excavation,
c) to calculate the safe distance for setting up the machine and the reach of the breakout wedge.
152. Information about the area that the operator should have before starting earthworks includes:
a) soil category, presence of underground installations, and location of existing buildings and technical devices,
b) distribution of service points and the work schedule of the team,c) availability of backup equipment in the area.153. The performance of the drill used in trenchless technologies is determined by:
a) the length of the completed borehole per unit of time,
b) the maximum depth that the drill can reach during operation,c) the amount of spoil removed during one borehole.154. The selection of the appropriate working tool in trenchless technology affects the performance of the drill because:
a) the correct diameter and type of tool allow for optimal cutting and minimize the risk of jamming in difficult soil conditions,
b) a working tool with a larger diameter always speeds up the drilling process,c) the color of the tool allows the operator to locate the drill more easily underground.155. The first stage in the technological process of performing a hydraulic thrust with pilot drilling is:
a) performing the main borehole,b) performing the pilot borehole,
c) performing the borehole chambers.
156. To effectively drain incoming groundwater, the launch chamber must:
a) install a groundwater storage tank in the chamber,
b) install a pump to drain water outside the chamber,
c) seal all surfaces of the chamber using insulation film.157. For precise execution of the pilot bore in trenchless technology, it is essential to:
a) securely lock the drilling rig in the launch chamber,
b) use rods with a small diameter,c) operate the drilling rig intermittently to avoid overheating the technical device.158. In trenchless technology, to enlarge the diameter of the bore, the following is used:
a) a reamer with its own hydraulic drive,
b) a screw for light and medium cohesive soils,c) a pilot for pushing with the rotation of the rods.159. The main task of the bentonite slurry during drilling is:
a) cooling the head and stabilizing the bore,
b) increasing the pressure in the bore,c) reducing the working time of the drilling rig.160. To achieve a straight trajectory of the pilot bore, it is necessary to:
a) push the pilot head into the ground without rotating,
b) rotate the pilot head along with the drilling pipe while simultaneously pushing it into the ground,
c) change the cutting angle of the head by more than 20 [%].161. The first stage of the two-stage drilling using a reaming head is:
a) pilot drilling with hydraulic jacking of steel casing pipes,
b) placing the conduit pipes,c) installation of the reaming head in the launch chamber.162. The soils suitable for horizontal and directional drilling are:
a) category 1-7,
b) category 4-9,c) all categories.163. The performance of a drilling rig used for trenchless drilling can be expressed as:
a) in the number of completed drills per working day,b) in kilograms of removed spoil per linear meter of drilling,
c) in meters of drilling per hour of work.
164. One of the following factors does not significantly affect the performance of the drilling rig in trenchless technology. It is:
a) soil moisture,
b) soil category,c) technical condition of the machine.165. The next stage, after completing the pilot drilling in hydraulic jacking technology, is:
a) setting control points,
b) performing the main drilling,
c) installation of the launch chamber.166. The task of prefabricated slabs or concrete at the bottom of the launch chamber for the installation of a horizontal drilling machine is:
a) to limit the penetration of water and moisture into the chamber,b) to prevent tool deviations in vertical drilling,
c) to provide a stable base for the installation of the drilling machine.
167. To maintain precision when performing pilot drilling in trenchless technology, it is crucial to:
a) continuously monitor the position of the theodolite,
b) check the position of the theodolite at the beginning and end of the work,c) perform work in an interrupted mode using rods without a drilling fluid.168. The use of a screw in trenchless technology is recommended for soils:
a) rocky,b) category 6-7,
c) light and medium cohesive.
169. The task of the bentonite drilling fluid is not:
a) to cool the head,b) to protect the pulled pipeline from damage,
c) to increase the friction of the soil against the pipeline.
170. The theodolite and monitor for control at the initial stage of drilling are characteristic of:
a) gyroscopic system,b) laser system,
c) teleoptic system.
171. To obtain a curved trajectory during pilot drilling, one must:
a) press the pilot head into the ground without rotating it,
b) rotate the pilot head while simultaneously pressing it into the ground,c) increase the angle of inclination of the head to the axis by more than 30 [%].172. The main purpose of using an expanding head in the second stage of drilling is:
a) to increase the hydraulic thrust force in the casing pipes,
b) to widen the hole while simultaneously pushing the conduit pipes,
c) to increase the drilling depth.173. The operator uses knowledge of soil categories during work, among other things, to:
a) determine the drilling depth for each type of soil,b) select the appropriate hydraulic drive for the drill,
c) calculate the reach of the fracture wedge and position the machine at a safe distance.
174. A parameter affecting the efficiency of the flushing system in a horizontal drill is:
a) nominal rotational speed,b) maximum pushing force,
c) maximum output of the flushing pump.
175. The parameter of the horizontal drill responsible for its ability to rotate tools is:
a) maximum pressure of the flushing system,b) pushing force,
c) torque.
176. The maximum length of the bore in a horizontal drilling rig indicates:
a) the maximum pulling force during drilling,b) the feed rate of the drilling rig,
c) the greatest distance that the tool can travel during drilling.
177. The technical parameter of the horizontal drilling rig that directly affects the drilling speed is:
a) nominal rotational speed,
b) maximum pressure of the flushing system,c) pushing force.178. The stabilization of the working unit on the track of the drilling rig is ensured by:
a) hydraulic installation,b) casing pipes,
c) working unit locks.
179. The feeding of drilling rods in a horizontal drilling rig is the responsibility of:
a) drilling trailer,
b) rod feeding system,
c) flushing pump.180. The flushing pump in a horizontal drilling rig is used for:
a) driving the anchoring system of the machine,
b) supplying bentonite,
c) stabilizing the rods during drilling.181. Working with a machine with open cabin doors is allowed:
a) only if the operating and maintenance manual of the machine provides for such a possibility,
b) only when the air temperature exceeds 25 [°C],c) always.182. The task of the drilling fluid is:
a) increasing soil moisture,b) flushing the working system after operation,
c) removing cuttings.
183. The course of underground terrain reinforcement should be marked before starting work to:
a) allow for quick movement of machines in any direction,b) save time and reduce earthwork costs,
c) avoid the risk of damaging the network during work.
184. The basic principles of operation of drilling devices are based on two key elements. They are:
a) the efficiency of the hydraulic power supply and the speed of the drill,
b) the drill and rotation,
c) centrifugal force and mast pressure.185. Rotary drilling rigs use a mechanical rotary drive that:
a) protects the rig from rotating by acting in the opposite direction to the drill's movement,
b) transmits torque to the drill,
c) allows changing the position of the rig.186. Which of the listed elements are not part of the hydraulic system:
a) hydraulic lock, hydraulic oil tank,
b) starter, alternator,
c) pump, distributor, actuator.187. The hydraulic lock in a machine is:
a) a valve protecting against uncontrolled movement of the element located in a given line,
b) a valve responsible for controlling the entire hydraulic system,c) the closure of the hydraulic oil inlet at its tank.188. The change of hydraulic oil pressure into mechanical movement is the responsibility of:
a) the hydraulic pump system,
b) hydraulic actuator and hydraulic motor,
c) hydraulic distributor.189. The pressure in the hydraulic system is generated by:
a) hydraulic motor,b) hydraulic actuator,
c) hydraulic pump.
190. Directing the flow of hydraulic oil to individual systems is carried out by:
a) hydraulic distributor,
b) relief valve,c) hydraulic lock.191. The safety valve protects the hydraulic system from:
a) overheating of hydraulic oil,
b) excessive pressure increase,
c) air in the hydraulic system.192. The relief valve in the hydraulic system is responsible for:
a) limiting the maximum working pressure in a given circuit,
b) venting the system,c) maintaining a constant position of the working tool.193. If the pressure in the hydraulic system increases excessively, the excess oil will be directed to:
a) the hydraulic oil filter,b) the distributor,
c) the hydraulic oil tank.
194. The basic parameters that characterize an electric accumulator are:
a) rated voltage [V], power [W], weight [kg],
b) rated voltage [V], capacity [Ah], starting current [A],
c) rated voltage [V], resistance [Ω], power [W].195. Lead-acid batteries can be charged:
a) in any room,
b) in a place specifically designated for this purpose,
c) only in an air-conditioned room.196. The main function of the clutch (side gearbox) is:
a) to reduce fuel consumption,
b) to change the torque and transfer power to the drive wheels,
c) to increase the stability of the machine.197. The hydraulic distributor:
a) directs the flow of hydraulic oil to the appropriate sections,
b) increases the torque in the side gearbox,c) converts mechanical energy into hydraulic energy.198. The hydraulic distributor is a device that:
a) distributes oil between the small and large circuits,
b) allows control of individual hydraulic sections of the machine,
c) distributes oil between the engine and the hydraulic system.199. The portable locator receives information regarding:
a) energy consumption of the drill,b) drilling speed,
c) depth, tilt, and rotation of the head.
200. In the teleoptic system, the direction of the head cutting is indicated by:
a) LED targeting board,
b) operator's monitor,c) theodolite with a digital camera.201. The elements of the drilling equipment of a horizontal drilling machine are:
a) rods and cutting heads,
b) pushing units of the drilling machine,c) hydraulic power supply and hydraulic installation.202. The device emitting a radio signal behind the pilot head in the radiolocation system is:
a) operator monitor with transmitter,
b) probe,
c) portable locator.203. The image of the diode targeting board is transmitted to the operator via:
a) optical cable,b) theodolite scope,
c) camera connected to the theodolite.
204. The magnetic system in horizontal drilling control uses:
a) Earth's magnetic field,
b) direct current flow,c) radio waves.205. The orientation of the measurement probe below the ground surface is ensured by:
a) hydraulic system,b) satellite GPS signal,
c) system of magnetic and gravitational sensors.
206. The precise control of the tunnel axis in the laser system is provided by:
a) measuring the tilt angle of the entire technical device in the shaft,
b) a laser placed in the starting shaft and an electronic target on the head,
c) GPS sensors placed on the tunnel casing.207. In the laser system for controlling the direction of the borehole, the change of direction of the installed pipeline is managed by:
a) a radio transmitter and receiver,b) the electric drive of the head,
c) hydraulic actuators set perpendicular to the axis of the hole.
208. The water level in the gyrocompass system is used for:
a) determining the tilt angle relative to the ground,b) measuring the deflection radius of the pole,
c) controlling the deviation of elevations in the profile of the hole.
209. The basic elements of the gyrocompass system are:
a) gyrocompass and water level,
b) theodolite and laser,c) radio probe and vision camera.210. The flow and direction of hydraulic fluid in the system are regulated by:
a) hydraulic motors,b) hydraulic pumps,
c) hydraulic valves.
211. System elements, such as actuators and hydraulic motors, convert hydraulic energy into:
a) electrical energy,
b) mechanical energy,
c) pressure in the tank.212. A too tightly tensioned track can cause:
a) excessive wear of the chain, drive wheels, and rollers,
b) preventing the machine from turning,c) immediate mobility issues of the machine.213. The mandatory equipment used for the operator to observe the area directly behind the machine is:
a) external mirror,
b) sound signal when reversing,c) rear camera.214. Together with the operator in the machine's cabin, other people may ride if:
a) they have undergone health and safety training with the operator and there are a maximum of 2 people,b) the machine is moving at a low speed,
c) the manufacturer has installed an additional seat.
215. The most important element of the operator's cabin equipment from the perspective of his safety is:
a) emergency STOP button,
b) seat belt,
c) mirror or camera.216. Mirrors and rearview camera in the machine are used for:
a) checking the technical condition of the machine,b) facilitating maneuvering of the working equipment,
c) improving the operator's visibility and increasing safety.
217. The green flashing light placed on the machine's cabin signals, among other things:
a) the machine's eco mode is activated,b) no operator in the cabin,
c) correct fastening of the seat belts.
218. In a parallel connection of two identical batteries, the voltage of such a system is:
a) the product of the voltages of the individual batteries,b) the sum of the voltages of the individual batteries,
c) equal to the voltage of a single battery.
219. In a series connection of two identical batteries, the voltage of such a system is:
a) equal to the voltage of a single battery,
b) the sum of the voltages of the individual batteries,
c) the product of the voltages of the individual batteries.220. Fuses in the machine's electrical installation protect it from the effects of:
a) short circuits and overloads,
b) high temperature,c) low voltage.221. One of the elements of the electrical system protecting the motor from seizing is:
a) engine oil pressure sensor,
b) main fuse,c) speed controller.222. Gel batteries, which are elements of the electrical system, do not require:
a) charging with a rectifier,b) replacement in case of housing damage,
c) electrolyte replenishment.
223. Electrical systems of machines and devices should be equipped with a device that causes emergency stop in at least the quantity of:
a) two emergency stop devices placed on both sides of the machine, according to the European machinery directive,
b) one emergency stop device, according to the European machinery directive,
c) three emergency stop devices, according to the European machinery directive.224. The emergency stop device of the machine is an element of:
a) fuel system,
b) electrical system,
c) drive system.225. Maintaining a stable working position of the drill is possible thanks to:
a) tracks of the drive system,b) clamping jaws,
c) anchoring mechanism.
226. The elements of the warning system for piercing, which the drilling machine is equipped with, are:
a) voltage rod and current flow detection coil,
b) orange lamp and voltmeter,c) drilling depth gauge and drill angle guide.227. The equipment elements of the drilling machine used for loosening the connections of the drilling rod are:
a) pneumatic wrenches,b) adjustable wrenches included in the equipment,
c) drilling machine vises.
228. The part of the drilling equipment used to transfer rotational motion from the drilling table to the drilling rod is:
a) universal joint,b) kinematic triangle,
c) coupler.
229. In conditions of limited ventilation, the drive used in the drilling machine for anchoring should be:
a) hydrokinetic,b) hybrid,
c) electric.
230. If bentonite or polymers have been added to the drilling fluid, the system should be flushed with clean water before leaving the drilling machine:
a) drilling system,
b) drive system,c) rod feeder.231. The working tool of the drill is:
a) drill heads,
b) drive shafts,c) drill rods.232. The main parameters of the internal combustion engine affecting work efficiency are:
a) compression ratio, displacement,
b) torque, rotational speed,
c) type of carburetor, type of ignition system.233. The crank-piston system of the internal combustion engine is designed to:
a) convert the reciprocating motion of the piston into the rotational motion of the crankshaft,
b) ensure the effective operation of the clutch,c) convert mechanical energy into hydraulic energy.234. The engine timing system is used for:
a) controlling the filling of the combustion chamber with air or air-fuel mixture and controlling the emptying of this chamber of exhaust gases,
b) ensuring the optimal composition of the fuel-oil-air mixture for combustion,c) damping noise and minimizing engine vibrations during operation.235. Systems present in internal combustion engines include, among others:
a) crank-piston system, fuel supply system, cooling system,
b) hydraulic system, intake system,c) exhaust system, pneumatic system, closed system.236. The low-pressure part of the diesel engine fuel supply system is:
a) fuel tank, supply pump, filters, fuel lines,
b) fuel tank and injectors,c) fuel lines, high-pressure pump, common rail.237. The element controlling the flow of coolant in the so-called "large circuit" is:
a) thermosiphon,b) thermocouple,
c) thermostat.
238. An intercooler is:
a) an air cooler for turbocharged engines,
b) a device for burning solid particles in exhaust gases,c) another name for the engine coolant radiator.239. The DPF filter:
a) is a precise cabin filter protecting the operator during work in high dust conditions,
b) is a dry particulate filter responsible for capturing soot from exhaust gases,
c) is used to reduce NOx (nitrogen oxides) emissions.240. The frequency and scope of periodic maintenance of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam:
a) is determined by the owner of the machine/technical device,b) is included in the IBWR documentation,
c) is included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine.
241. The operating and maintenance manual for a machine/technical device is:
a) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by the health and safety services on the construction site,
b) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device,
c) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device, which includes, among other things, IBWR.242. The operator of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam must not:
a) use the machine/technical device for purposes other than intended,
b) make any repairs or maintenance,c) check the technical condition of the machine/technical device during operation.243. A symptom of too low a level of hydraulic oil may be:
a) "jerky" intermittent movement of hydraulic actuators,
b) uneven operation of the diesel engine,c) loud operation of the starter.244. If the warning light for too low engine oil pressure comes on, the operator:
a) may continue working if the hydraulic system is functioning properly,
b) should stop working and turn off the engine,
c) does not have to take any action.245. The operating and maintenance manual for a machine/technical device:
a) is established by the owner or user of the machine,
b) includes, among other things, information about hazards during the operation of the machine/technical device,
c) is used to record information about faults.246. The CE Declaration of Conformity is a document:
a) in which the manufacturer confirms that their product meets all applicable EU requirements regarding safety, health protection, and the environment,
b) issued by institutions that test machines for resistance to weather conditions,c) confirming that the product was manufactured in the countries of the European Union.247. Information regarding the use of personal protective equipment and ways to limit the occupational risk can be found by the operator:
a) in the CE Declaration of Conformity,
b) in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device,
c) in the service book.248. The operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device:
a) is created by institutions that conduct testing and accreditation of machine/technical device prototypes before allowing them for serial production,
b) is developed by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device or the entity that introduces the machine/technical device to the market,
c) is created by the construction manager based on information from the manufacturer.249. The operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device:
a) should be located in the machine or with the technical device, treated as part of the machine/technical device, and be available at all times,
b) should be located in the office along with the company's documentation and be available in case of inspection,c) does not matter where it is located, the most important thing is that the owner of the machine has it in case of resale of the machine.250. Identification data of the machine/technical device:
a) are located on the nameplate of the machine/technical device, additionally they may be in the marking locations described in the manual,
b) should be noted on the inside of the protective helmet assigned to the given machine/technical device,c) due to their importance are always printed in red.251. To minimize the risk of machine/technical device failure, the operator should:
a) perform maintenance activities only when the machine/technical device stops working,
b) regularly visually assess the condition of the machine/technical device and report any noticed irregularities,
c) use the machine/technical device until the failure becomes serious.252. Breaking in a machine during the initial period of operation is:
a) the process of achieving optimal clearances and even wear of parts,
b) the stage of the machine's operation without load,c) an intensive test of the machine under full load.253. The operator uses the operating and maintenance manual of the machine or technical device to:
a) learn the technical specifications, health and safety rules, and methods for repairing faults,
b) record all faults of the machine or technical device noticed during operation,c) log the hours worked and fuel consumption by the machine.254. The operational part of the operating and maintenance manual of the machine or technical device includes:
a) a detailed description of the construction and operation of all elements of the machine/technical device,b) a catalog of spare parts,
c) instructions regarding, among others, controlling the machine/technical device.
255. The operating and maintenance manual must always be present with the machine/technical device because:
a) it is necessary for periodic technical inspections,
b) its absence may be a reason for the machine to be deemed unfit for work by the health and safety inspector,
c) it minimizes the risk of it being lost.256. The SAE designation on oil refers to:
a) engine oil pressure,
b) engine oil viscosity, that is, its ability to flow and lubricate,
c) multi-season qualification of the oil.257. Oil with the symbol SAE 15W-40 means that:
a) at positive temperature it has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40,b) at positive temperature it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 15W,
c) at negative temperature it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 15W, and at positive temperature of summer oil class SAE 40.
258. Oil with the symbol SAE 10W-30 means that:
a) at positive temperature it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W,
b) at negative temperature it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W, and at positive temperature of summer oil class SAE 30,
c) at negative temperature it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 30.259. The symbol SAE 10W-30 means:
a) hydraulic oil with specified parameters,
b) multi-season engine oil with specified parameters,
c) a mixture of engine oil and hydraulic oil.260. Engine oil with the symbol SAE 5W-40 means that:
a) at negative temperature it has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40,b) at positive temperature it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 5W,
c) at negative temperature it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 5W, and at positive temperature of summer oil class SAE 40.
261. The symbol of the warning light presented in the graphic means:
a) low engine oil level,
b) low coolant level,c) low engine oil pressure.
262. The symbol of the warning light presented in the graphic means:
a) low coolant level,
b) low engine oil pressure,
c) low fuel level.
263. The symbol of the light presented means:
a) engine oil filter,b) hydraulic oil,
c) engine oil.
264. The symbol of the light presented means:
a) engine coolant level,
b) engine oil level,
c) hydraulic oil level.265. Oils with designations 70W, 85W, 80W-90 are:
a) brake oils,
b) transmission oils,
c) engine oils.266. In the case of the need to dismantle the cover/protection for maintenance, one must not:
a) start working with the device without the cover/protection installed,
b) reinstall the cover/protection,c) record such a fact in the documentation.267. The lighting of the battery charging indicator signals to the operator of the construction machine a malfunction of:
a) the battery switch,b) the starter,
c) the V-belt and/or alternator.
268. The operator's seat cannot be adjusted when:
a) the seat is turned backward,b) the engine is not started,
c) the machine is in motion.
269. If during daily technical maintenance before work the operator notices that one of the windows in the cabin is cracked, then:
a) he should not start working,
b) he may start working if it is not the front window,c) he may start working provided that the window is only cracked and has not "fallen out".270. Before starting work, the operator should:
a) clean the windows by removing snow, ice, and other contaminants,
b) open the windows for better communication,c) install sunshades on the windows.271. When changing hydraulic oils, one should:
a) use any type of oil,
b) use only types of oils recommended by the machine manufacturer,
c) always use only biodegradable oils.272. To ensure the technical efficiency of the working machine, one should:
a) operate the machine/technical device without exceeding 50% of the permissible load,
b) follow technical service and maintenance according to the operating and maintenance instructions,
c) operate the machine/technical device only under full load.273. On the construction site, empty containers of lubricants, oil filters, and used oils should be:
a) thrown into any waste container,b) thrown into the mixed waste container,
c) placed in a properly marked hazardous waste container.
274. Stickers (pictograms) located on the machine/technical device serve to:
a) convey essential information about safety and the use of the machine/technical device,
b) inform about the prohibition of approaching the machine/technical device,c) indicate places where one can stay without any risk.275. Lubrication points in the machine should be serviced:
a) according to the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine,
b) during all breaks in work,c) always after 10 hours of operation.276. Engine oil with parameters 5W-50 is:
a) only winter oil,b) only summer oil,
c) multi-season oil.
277. Before starting work on a new type of machine/technical device, the operator should:
a) perform a periodic inspection,
b) familiarize themselves with the operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device,
c) perform a trial work.278. OTC service is:
a) daily technical service,
b) round-the-clock technical service,c) temporary technical service.279. The basic types of services are:
a) round-the-clock, multi-season, annual, technological service,b) visual, active, passive service,
c) daily, periodic, warehouse, transport service.
280. Batteries, when starting the machine with the help of a supporting battery, should be connected:
a) crosswise,
b) in parallel,
c) in series.281. In the case of electrolyte loss caused by spillage through a cracked battery casing, one should:
a) add electrolyte to the proper level and charge the battery,b) add demineralized water to a level 10 mm above the upper edges of the plates,
c) secure the leak area in terms of environmental protection, and then replace the battery.
282. The activities performed by the operator as part of daily maintenance during work include:
a) auditory control of the machine's operation and observation of indicators,
b) cleaning the machine,c) replenishing operating fluids and daily lubrication.283. If the manufacturer has provided for operational running-in, it should be carried out:
a) with maximum load,b) without load,
c) with the recommended load specified in the operating and maintenance instructions for the machine/technical device.
284. When loading the machine onto the transport vehicle, the operator should:
a) approach at a speed of at least 5 [km/h],
b) know the permissible angle of inclination of the loading ramps for the given machine,
c) know the maximum speed allowed for the given transport vehicle.285. The responsibility for the placement and securing of the machine on the transport vehicle lies with:
a) the machine operator,b) the owner or the person responsible for the machines in the company,
c) the carrier (e.g., the driver).
286. When storing a machine, one must ensure that:
a) the machine is facing the exit,b) there are no documents of the machine left in the cabin,
c) there are no leaks of operating fluids.
287. Securing the machine during storage downtime involves:
a) disassembling all filters and protecting them from moisture,b) filling the hydraulic oil tank to the top,
c) cleaning the machine of dirt and corrosion.
288. The rods of hydraulic cylinders, during technical service of the stored machine, should be:
a) disassembled and cleaned,b) taken apart and their seals replaced,
c) protected against corrosion.
289. When loading the machine onto the transport vehicle:
a) assistance from a second person is recommended,
b) assistance from a second person is recommended only when loading onto a low-loader trailer,c) the operator should drive onto the transport vehicle independently.290. The recommended method for loading heavy working machines onto low-loader trailers is:
a) loading with ropes,b) loading using other machines,
c) mechanized loading from the front ramp.
291. During longer storage of the machine, the fuel tank should be:
a) filled to the top to prevent condensation of water vapor inside the tank,
b) empty to avoid fire hazards,c) filled to 1/3 of its capacity and left open.292. During daily operation of the machine, the condition of should be checked:
a) the working pressure value in the hydraulic system,
b) the connections and tightness of the hydraulic system,
c) the tools and equipment.293. If the machine's engine has not been running for a long time, during daily operation you should:
a) replace the fuel pre-filter,
b) check the oil level and other operating fluids,
c) start the engine and gently increase the RPM to reach the operating temperature faster.294. Information regarding faults, their codes, and methods of removal can be found in the document named:
a) construction machine book,
b) operating and maintenance manual,
c) daily report.295. The correct order for connecting the auxiliary battery to the discharged battery in the machine is as follows:
a) positive terminal of the machine's battery, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, machine frame,
b) negative terminal of the machine's battery, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, machine frame,c) machine frame, positive terminal of the machine's battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery.296. In case of electrolyte loss in the battery, one should:
a) top it up with DOT-3 fluid,b) top it up with water other than distilled,
c) top it up with distilled or demineralized water.
297. Checking the charge state of the 12 [V] starter battery by "sparking" poses a risk of:
a) electric shock from high voltage,b) seizing the alternator,
c) explosion of hydrogen escaping from the battery.
298. The scope of daily technical service of the machine does not include:
a) checking the oil level in the engine,b) checking the condition of the tires and tire pressure,
c) checking and adjusting the valve clearances.
299. When cleaning the radiator, to avoid damaging it, one should:
a) use sharp tools for cleaning,b) use a strong stream of water under high pressure,
c) keep the compressed air nozzle at an appropriate distance from the radiator.
300. The purpose of lubrication in working machines is:
a) to reduce friction,
b) to increase the engine speed,c) to raise the temperature of cooperating elements.301. The most commonly used type of fuses in electrical installations of working machines is:
a) residual current devices,b) automatic fuses,
c) cartridge fuses.
302. The phenomenon of electrostatic discharge during refueling a machine can lead to:
a) fire,
b) short circuit of the electrical installation,c) poisoning.303. In the case of connecting two batteries in parallel with different rated voltages:
a) thicker cables should be used than with batteries of the same rated voltages,b) both batteries may discharge,
c) there may be an explosion of the battery with the lower rated voltage.
304. The correct way to connect a battery to a charger during charging is:
a) positive terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger, negative terminal of the battery to the negative terminal of the charger,
b) positive terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger, negative terminal of the charger to the "ground" of the machine,c) positive terminal of the battery to the negative terminal of the charger, negative terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger.305. After connecting the battery, the terminals are lubricated with:
a) graphite grease,b) grease containing molybdenum disulfide,
c) technical vaseline.
306. One of the goals of warehouse handling is:
a) securing the machine against corrosion and other harmful factors during long-term storage,
b) preparing the machine for transport for the future user,c) repairing damaged machine components before the next season.307. If during daily technical service the operator notices a leak in the cooling system, then he should:
a) organize fluid and refill to the minimum level if the leak is small,
b) report the leak and not use the machine until it is repaired,
c) refill the coolant and continue working.308. The level of coolant in the expansion tank should be checked:
a) only during periodic technical service,
b) during every daily technical service,
c) only in case of engine overheating.309. If the operator notices a hydraulic fluid leak during daily technical service, he should:
a) report the leak and not use the machine until it is repaired,
b) refill the oil and continue working,c) reduce the RPM and continue working.310. The frequency of performing periodic technical service depends on:
a) the number of hours worked (engine hours),
b) the production date of the machine,c) the number of completed working cycles.311. If during daily technical service the operator notices a low level of engine oil, he should:
a) start work if the level is not very low and the warning light is not on,
b) top up the oil to the appropriate level,
c) top up the level with any available oil, even if it is of a different type.312. A characteristic activity for seasonal technical service is:
a) replacing the coolant with one appropriate for the season,
b) checking the working pressure values of the hydraulic system,c) checking the charging voltage values.313. The basic service activities that must be performed before starting a diesel engine are:
a) bleeding the fuel system, checking the level of transmission oil, checking the starter,b) checking the oil level in the gearbox, checking the operation of the working system, checking the operation of the brakes,
c) checking the oil level in the engine, checking the coolant level, checking the condition of the air filter.
314. Activities performed as part of daily technical service (OTC) carried out during the operation of the machine include:
a) primarily the organoleptic control of the proper operation of the machine's working system,b) observation only of control and measuring indicators such as: oil pressure, engine temperature, hydraulic oil temperature,
c) observation of control and measuring instruments and checking the proper operation of the machine using sight, hearing, and smell.
315. We distinguish, among others, the following types of technical services:
a) running-in, daily, periodic, seasonal, storage, emergency, night,
b) transport, running-in, daily, periodic, seasonal, storage,
c) transport, running-in, storage, service-repair (ON), catalog.316. We perform technical services in order to:
a) ensure quiet operation of the machine or technical device,