Trenchless technology drilling rigs class III
Study mode
Question of 305
1. What is the minimum allowable distance of the machine from the reach of the wedge of the collapse?
a) 0.8 [m],b) 0.4 [m],
c) 0.6 [m].
2. The safe distance of the machine from the excavation is:
a) depth of the excavation + 0.6 [m],b) 1.6 [m],
c) the reach of the wedge of the collapse + 0.6 [m].
3. Based on the presented table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] made in cohesive soils:
a) 2.6 [m],b) 1 [m],
c) 1.6 [m].
4. Based on the presented table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] made in fractured rocks:
a) 3.6 [m],
b) 4.6 [m],c) 2.6 [m].5. Based on the presented table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] made in slightly cohesive soils:
a) 2.6 [m],b) 3.6 [m],
c) 3.1 [m]. Drilling rigs for trenchless technology Class III
6. What is the minimum safe distance from the UPPER edge of the embankment that a machine can approach, given the following data: Soil category - I (dry sand), height of the embankment - h = 2 [m], horizontal distance between the upper and lower edges of the embankment - a = 2.5 [m]?
a) 3.6 [m],b) 0.6 [m],
c) 1.1 [m].
7. What is the minimum safe distance from the UPPER edge of the embankment that a machine can approach, given the following data: Soil category - II (slightly cohesive soils), height of the embankment - h = 4 [m], horizontal distance between the upper and lower edges of the embankment - a = 2.5 [m]?
a) 0.6 [m],b) 5.6 [m],
c) 3.1 [m].
8. At what horizontal distance from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage not exceeding 1 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 5 [m],b) not less than 2 [m],
c) not less than 3 [m].
9. At what horizontal distance from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 15 [m],
b) not less than 5 [m],
c) not less than 10 [m].10. At what horizontal distance from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 5 [m],
b) not less than 10 [m],
c) not less than 15 [m].11. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?
a) not less than 15 [m],
b) not less than 20 [m],c) not less than 10 [m].12. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?
a) not less than 30 [m],
b) not less than 10 [m],c) not less than 15 [m].13. Is it possible to organize workstations in the danger zone under overhead power lines?
a) yes, always,b) no, never,
c) yes, but only after meeting additional requirements.
14. What is the safe distance X for the operation of a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [V]?
a) not less than 30 [m],
b) not less than 3 [m],
c) not less than 5 [m].15. What is the safe distance X for the operation of a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV]?
a) not less than 5 [m],
b) not less than 15 [m],c) not less than 10 [m].16. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?
a) not less than 30 [m],b) not less than 15 [m],
c) not less than 10 [m].
17. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?
a) not less than 15 [m],b) not less than 5 [m],
c) not less than 10 [m].
18. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV]?
a) not less than 15 [m],
b) not less than 30 [m],c) not less than 50 [m].19. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV]?
a) not less than 15 [m],b) not less than 30 [m],
c) not less than 10 [m].
20. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]?
a) not less than 3 [m],b) not less than 40 [m],
c) not less than 30 [m].
21. Work in the danger zone (overhead high voltage power line):
a) may be carried out provided that the line is disconnected from the voltage, the work is performed in a zone limited by groundings and at least one grounding is visible from the work site,
b) may be carried out provided that permission from the site manager has been granted,c) may not be carried out under electrical lines in the danger zone.22. The operator must perform work at a distance X from the active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [V]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 2 [m],
b) 5 [m],
c) 1 [m].23. The operator must perform work at a distance X from the active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 3 [m],b) 5 [m],
c) 15 [m].
24. The operator must perform work at a distance X from the active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 15 [m],b) 5 [m],
c) 50 [m].
25. If the victim has a detectable pulse but is not breathing, then:
a) cardiopulmonary resuscitation should be performed,
b) the airways should be cleared and artificial respiration should be started,
c) he should not be touched.26. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, one should primarily:
a) give the injured medication,b) move away from the accident scene to call a doctor,
c) provide assistance to those in life-threatening situations.
27. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, one should primarily:
a) move away from the accident scene to call a doctor,b) provide assistance to those in life-threatening situations,
c) take care of one's own safety.
28. The obligation to provide first aid to accident victims rests with:
a) everyone, as one can always perform part of the rescue tasks,
b) only those with medical training,c) everyone, but criminal liability always threatens for mistakes made.29. The accident victim regained consciousness after a few minutes and wants to go home. In such a situation, one should:
a) allow her to go home, recommending a visit to a doctor,
b) persuade her to stay and call for medical help,
c) give her something to drink and pain relief medication.30. First aid in a situation where a foreign body has entered the eye of the injured person consists of:
a) rinsing the eye with eye drops,
b) rinsing with clean water directing the stream from the nose outward,
c) rinsing with distilled water directing the stream inward to the eye.31. The injured person cut their leg on an unsecured sharp element. Providing first aid in this situation is:
a) using a tourniquet,b) sticking a plaster directly on the wound,
c) applying sterile gauze, wrapping the wound with a bandage.
32. Suspecting spinal injury in a person who has fallen from a height and is conscious, one should:
a) not move them and wait for medical services to arrive,
b) place them in the recovery position,c) sit them in a semi-reclining position.33. To move away from the place where the electric wire has been broken and the area is under voltage, one should:
a) step away from this place slowly, taking small steps, trying to maintain continuous contact of the feet with the ground,
b) quickly step away from the source of electric shock, lifting the feet high,c) run as fast as possible to a place that we assess as safe.34. First aid in the case of a first-degree burn is:
a) applying greasy cream to the burned area,b) applying ointment to the burned area,
c) pouring cold water on the burned area.
35. During work, a high-voltage power line was broken, as a result of which a colleague was electrocuted. In this situation, the correct behavior is:
a) turn off the power source as quickly as possible,
b) approach the injured person to provide first aid,c) call other colleagues for help with the injured person.36. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation is performed until:
a) we have confirmed that the victim has started breathing and circulation has returned,
b) the fire department arrives and secures the area,c) 10 minutes have passed.37. Immediate action in the case of severe bleeding from an injured upper limb includes:
a) lowering the limb below the level of the heart,b) disinfecting the wound with salicylic alcohol,
c) applying a dressing, directly compressing the bleeding site, and elevating the limb.
38. In the case of a nosebleed, one should:
a) lay the victim on their back,b) tilt the head back and place a cold compress on the neck,
c) lean the bleeding person's head forward and pinch the nostrils.
39. The first step in dealing with a carbon monoxide poisoning victim in a closed room is:
a) conducting a preliminary examination,b) assessing ABC,
c) the quickest possible evacuation of the victim from that room.
40. First aid during seizures caused by an epileptic attack consists of:
a) seating the victim in a semi-sitting position and giving them something to drink,
b) protecting the victim's head from injuries,
c) placing a wooden object in the victim's mouth to prevent biting the tongue.41. In case of suspected spinal injury in the cervical region in a conscious person, one should:
a) place the injured person in a lateral position,
b) not allow the injured person to move their head,
c) seat the injured person in a chair with a high back.42. The most important thing when a person is buried under earth, sand, or gravel is:
a) waiting for the arrival of the ambulance,b) notifying the family,
c) locating the injured person.
43. First aid for a person with a metal rod embedded in their lower leg involves calling for help and:
a) removing the embedded rod,b) moving the rod to check if the artery has been damaged,
c) securing the rod to prevent movement.
44. The indication for using an AED defibrillator is:
a) severe chest pain,
b) absence of detectable breath and pulse in the injured person,
c) severe dizziness.45. During the operation of a machine/technical device, the prohibited actions for which you are taking the exam are:
a) performing daily technical service (OTS),
b) making structural changes to the machine/technical device,
c) changing the working tool.46. During the operation of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam, the prohibited activities are:
a) cleaning the machine/technical device using gasoline or solvents whose vapors can create flammable/explosive gas mixtures with air,
b) refueling the machine/technical device from a canister,c) cleaning the machine/technical device using a product in accordance with the operating and maintenance instructions.47. During the execution of work, it is unacceptable to:
a) work near an active power line with a rated voltage of 20 [kV] at a distance of 15 [m],
b) work near active overhead power lines at a distance less than specified by regulations,
c) work near an active power line with a rated voltage of 10 [kV] at a distance of 10 [m].48. The machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam can only be operated by:
a) a person with written confirmation of course completion in the form of a plastic card,
b) a person who has completed training and obtained a positive result in the test conducted by the commission appointed by the Łukasiewicz Research Network – Warsaw Institute of Technology,
c) any adult person with technical education and a driving license of the appropriate category.49. The rights to operate machines/technical devices for which you are taking the exam are issued by:
a) The County Office appropriate for the residence address of the person applying for the rights,
b) The Łukasiewicz Research Network - Warsaw Institute of Technology (ŁRN - WIT),
c) The Office of Technical Inspection (UDT).50. The rights to operate machines/technical devices for which you are taking the exam:
a) are valid indefinitely,
b) are valid for 10 years from the date of issue,c) are valid for 5 years from the date of issue.51. A person holding qualifications to operate: "Drilling machines for trenchless technology class III" can operate based on them:
a) only drilling machines for trenchless technology with a pipe diameter Ø up to 600 mm,b) all drilling machines for trenchless technology, but this does not grant qualifications for any other machines/technical devices,
c) only drilling machines for trenchless technology with a pipe diameter Ø up to 800 mm.
52. An employee operating a machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam can start work provided that:
a) the machine/technical device has a valid UDT inspection,
b) they have qualifications to operate this type of machine/technical device,
c) they have a valid category D driving license.53. In the event of a threat to life, health, property, or the environment caused by a malfunction of the machine/technical device, the operator:
a) immediately stops work and informs their supervisor of this fact,
b) continues working, but at the end of the shift informs the supervisor of the situation,c) continues working, but at the end of the shift makes an appropriate entry in the maintenance log.54. An employee operating a machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam has the right to refuse to start work when:
a) this work requires special psychophysical fitness, and their psychophysical state does not ensure its safe execution and poses a threat to others,
b) there is an overhead power line with a rated voltage of 110 [kV] located 35 meters away,c) they have the required personal protective equipment.55. An employee operating a machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is obliged to stop work when:
a) there is an overhead power line located 35 meters away,
b) the work they are performing poses an immediate threat to the health or life of others,
c) they have the required personal protective equipment.56. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is required to:
a) comply with the provisions of the operating and maintenance instructions for the machine/technical device,
b) independently perform all current repairs of the machine/technical device,c) always have a category B driving license.57. The person directly responsible for the safe operation of the machine for which you are taking the exam is:
a) the machine operator,
b) the construction manager,c) the owner of the machine.58. The operator's book and qualifications for the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam are issued by:
a) the Office of Technical Inspection (UDT),b) the Transport Technical Inspection (TDT),
c) the Łukasiewicz Research Network - Warsaw Institute of Technology.
59. The obligation to use personal protective equipment:
a) arises only from internal regulations,b) does not apply on hot days,
c) arises from the operating and maintenance instructions and health and safety regulations.
60. An employee who witnesses an accident at work:
a) is obliged to assist the victims, notify the supervisor, and if necessary secure the accident site,
b) is obliged to assist the victims and then immediately leave the accident site,c) it is sufficient to notify the supervisor.61. What elements of the machine, for which you are taking the exam, protect the operator in case of the machine overturning:
a) certified protective helmet and reflective vest,
b) ROPS type machine cabin and safety belts,
c) machine seat.62. In case of loss of stability by a machine equipped with a ROPS type cabin, the operator should:
a) try to leave the cabin as quickly as possible (before the machine overturns),
b) maintain a sitting position while holding on tightly to the steering wheel or other stable elements in the cabin,
c) quickly turn left and raise the working equipment as high as possible.63. In case of loss of stability by a machine equipped with a ROPS type cabin, the operator should:
a) immediately jump out of the cabin,b) turn on the warning/emergency lights,
c) remain in the cabin.
64. The danger zone is defined as:
a) a place where workers must only wear protective helmets,b) a place where work requiring specialized equipment is carried out, and the presence of people is allowed only at night,
c) a place where there are threats to the health and life of people.
65. The danger zone on a construction site:
a) is always designated by a surveyor,
b) is designated and/or fenced and marked in a way that prevents access to unauthorized persons,
c) is designated after the construction work has started.66. The area that the operator should check and secure before starting work with the machine/technical device (because there are health and life hazards) is called:
a) danger zone,
b) area of increased risk,c) dead zone.
67. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:
a) "raise up",b) "rotate the machine",
c) "movement in the indicated direction".
68. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:
a) "movement in the indicated direction",
b) "rotate the machine",c) "raise up".
69. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:
a) "movement forward",
b) "movement backward",c) "fast movement".
70. The hand signal shown in the drawing means:
a) "slow movement",
b) "movement backward",
c) "movement forward".
71. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "STOP. Emergency stop",
b) "horizontal distance",c) "reverse movement".
72. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "START. Beginning of direction",
b) "STOP. Emergency stop",c) "reverse movement".
73. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "STOP. Emergency stop",
b) "STOP. Break - end of movement",
c) "reverse movement".
74. The hand signal shown in the picture means:
a) "horizontal distance",b) "lower down",
c) "END. Stop operation".
75. During the charging of batteries, a gas with highly explosive properties is released. This gas is:
a) ethane,b) methane,
c) hydrogen.
76. Fire extinguishing foam can be used to extinguish fires of group:
a) C and D,
b) A and B,
c) only C.77. Improper use of a snow extinguisher can result in:
a) frostbite caused by the extinguishing agent,
b) fainting,c) burns from the extinguisher components.78. Water, fire blanket, powder extinguisher, carbon dioxide, sand are extinguishing agents that we will use to extinguish:
a) solid bodies,
b) liquids,c) oils.79. We can call sorbents:
a) fire blankets,b) petroleum-derived substances,
c) materials made from natural or synthetic substances that absorb liquids.
80. Group A fires concern:
a) flammable liquids,
b) solid bodies whose normal combustion occurs with the formation of glowing coals, e.g. wood, paper, etc.,
c) flammable gases.81. Group B fires concern:
a) liquids and solid materials that melt, e.g. plastics, fuels, oils, etc.,
b) flammable gases,c) metals, e.g. magnesium, sodium, potassium, aluminum, titanium, etc.82. Group C fires concern:
a) gases, e.g. methane, propane, acetylene, hydrogen,
b) flammable liquids,c) solids.
83. Seeing such a pictogram you are informed about:
a) the assembly point during evacuation,
b) a larger number of people in a given area,c) the danger zone.
84. While working you noticed a sign marked 'Zone 0'. It informs about:
a) the zone of existing fire load in the building,b) the zone of existing fire hazard category,
c) the space where an explosive atmosphere exists.
85. The presented pictogram informs about:
a) the main power switch,b) internal hydrant,
c) a set of fire protection equipment.
86. Seeing such a pictogram, you are informed about:
a) the assembly point during evacuation,
b) the emergency exit,
c) the location of first aid.
87. Seeing such a pictogram, you are informed about:
a) high temperature affecting the extinguisher,
b) the location of the extinguisher,
c) the prohibition of using the extinguisher.88. You see a person whose clothing is on fire and who is fleeing in panic. Your reaction is:
a) you wave your arms or outer garment strongly next to him to extinguish the burning clothing,b) you tell him to wait in an upright position for the arrival of rescue services,
c) you try to stop him, lay him on the ground, and start extinguishing.
89. Electrical devices and installations can be extinguished using:
a) foam extinguishers,b) water,
c) powder or snow extinguishers.
90. Burning fuel can be extinguished using:
a) low-octane ethylene,b) water,
c) powder, foam, or snow extinguishers.
91. Burning clothing on a person can be extinguished using:
a) plastic material,
b) water mist extinguisher or fire blanket,
c) snow or powder extinguisher.92. What obligations does an employee have if they decide to refrain from work due to health and safety regulations?
a) There are no obligations in this situation,
b) They must immediately inform their supervisor,
c) They should organize work for others.93. How can an operator prevent hazards in the workplace?
a) By ignoring health and safety rules,
b) By using personal protective equipment to minimize risk,
c) By not reporting faults in machines.94. It is not permissible to position a workplace directly under active overhead power lines or at a horizontal distance from the outermost conductors of less than:
a) for lines: 1 [kV] - 1 [m], 15 [kV] - 3 [m], 30 [kV] - 5 [m], 110 [kV] - 10 [m],
b) for lines: 1 [kV] - 3 [m], 15 [kV] - 5 [m], 30 [kV] - 10 [m], 110 [kV] - 15 [m], 400 [kV] - 30 [m],
c) for all voltages - 1 [m] from the power line.95. How does the operator know what personal protective equipment is required for a given machine/technical device?
a) The operator must independently choose the appropriate protective measures,
b) Information about necessary personal protective equipment is included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine,
c) The choice of personal protective equipment depends on the opinion of colleagues at work.96. The operator should refuse to perform the task when:
a) the work requires familiarization with the location of underground and overhead utilities,
b) the work is inconsistent with the intended use of the machine/technical device,
c) the work is being performed at night.97. The operator can prevent hazards while operating the machine/technical device by:
a) following health and safety rules and adhering to the operating instructions,
b) inattention and routine,c) limiting the use of personal protective equipment.98. Which of the following situations is unacceptable during the use of the machine/technical device?
a) Reporting faults directly to the supervisor,
b) Unauthorized persons being in the danger zone caused by the operation of the machine/technical device,
c) Operating the machine without supervision.99. An accident at work is considered to be:
a) a long-term event related to the work being performed, caused by an internal reason, resulting in equipment damage,
b) a sudden event related to the work being performed, caused by an external reason, resulting in injury or death,
c) a sudden event unrelated to the work being performed, caused by an external reason, resulting in injury or death.100. A fatal accident at work is considered to be an accident in which death occurred:
a) within a period not exceeding 6 months from the date of the accident,
b) only at the moment of the accident,c) after a period exceeding 6 months from the date of the accident.101. Occupational health and safety regulations require:
a) scrapping the old working machine within the time specified in its operating and maintenance manual, while adhering to the requirements for the disposal of hazardous materials,
b) securing the working machine during breaks in its operation against accidental activation by unauthorized persons,
c) performing a warranty inspection of the working machine before one year from its purchase.102. In the event of a person being electrocuted:
a) resuscitation should be started immediately, regardless of whether the power source has been disconnected,b) it is recommended to use any tools to disconnect the power, regardless of their actual purpose,
c) one must not touch the victim until the power source has been disconnected.
103. Seeing a person whose clothing is on fire, one should first:
a) leave the victim standing to facilitate air access and extinguish the flames faster,b) use a fire extinguisher, preferably a snow type, to extinguish the burning clothing, and then try to quickly tear off the melted clothing,
c) cut off the air supply by rolling the victim or wrapping them in a fire blanket, wet clothing, or a wet blanket.
104. The ground failure wedge:
a) is the area around the working machine extending 6 [m] beyond its farthest reach,
b) occurs when the slope of the embankment exceeds the angle of repose of the natural ground,
c) occurs only when the ground is in a frozen state.105. The reach of the ground failure wedge:
a) depends solely on the ground temperature,
b) depends on the depth of the excavation and the category of the ground,
c) depends on the speed of the machine's operation and the efficiency of the operator.106. The angle of natural slope is:
a) the angle at which a machine can be safely operated - it depends on the parameters of the given machine,b) the angle at which the ground will definitely collapse by itself - it depends solely on the temperature of that ground,
c) the maximum slope at which the ground can remain without collapsing - it depends, among other things, on the category of the ground.
107. The wedge of ground failure:
a) is the zone where the ground becomes unstable - its extent depends solely on the depth of the excavation, the type of ground does not matter here,b) is the space around the machine, dependent on the working speed of the machine and its mass,
c) occurs when the slope exceeds the angle of natural slope of the ground - its extent depends on the type of ground and the depth of the excavation or the height of the slope.
108. The angle of natural slope is:
a) the slope at which any embankment becomes unstable, regardless of the type of ground,
b) the maximum slope at which the ground can remain without collapsing - it depends on the type of ground, e.g. moisture, cohesion, and grain size,
c) the angle at which a machine can safely move on an embankment, regardless of the category of the ground.109. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is performed:
a) only in the case of fainting and minor injuries, to improve blood circulation,
b) when the injured person is not breathing and there is no detectable pulse. For a person who is not a professional rescuer, lack of breathing is a sufficient basis to start resuscitation,
c) when the injured person is breathing but is unconscious, there is no contact with them.110. An employee has the right to refrain from performing work due to health and safety regulations, notifying their supervisor immediately in case:
a) the working conditions pose an immediate threat to health or life,
b) the working conditions do not pose a threat, but are too difficult for them,c) the work they are performing has not been reported to the construction supervision.111. Physical factors generating hazards in the workplace are:
a) lack of or inadequate training for employees,b) lack of appropriate medical examinations for the employee,
c) spilled lubricants, oils, and fuels.
112. Working with a machine/technical device is not allowed when:
a) its repair was carried out after dark,b) the second operator did not report an upcoming inspection,
c) it is malfunctioning.
113. Working near overhead power lines:
a) always requires double grounding of the line,b) always requires power to be turned off in the line,
c) is possible without meeting additional requirements provided that specific distances depending on the rated voltage of the line are maintained.
114. The operator is obliged to refuse to work if:
a) there is no site manager or any other person authorized to supervise at the work site,
b) the machine is malfunctioning,
c) they would have to work under power lines, and the voltage in them has been turned off and the line grounded.115. The danger zone from a machine/technical device is:
a) a place where the machine/technical device cannot be used,b) always the entire fenced construction site,
c) a place where there are hazards to health or life of people.
116. Accidents at work resulting from the poor technical condition of the working machine may include:
a) damage to the equipment,b) failure of the drive system,
c) injury to the limb, torso, or head.
117. Unacceptable behaviors include:
a) operating a faulty machine and working under the influence of alcohol,
b) working after dark in a well-lit place, with full concentration of the operator,c) performing daily maintenance of the machine after dark.118. General rules for safely getting on and off the machine are:
a) using cables and levers as aids when getting on is permissible when the machine is turned off,b) one can descend backwards from the machine, but only when the steps are slippery,
c) a person should face the machine, remember the "three-point support" rule, and use only specially made steps and handrails.
119. Typical operational hazards that may occur in the workplace of a drilling rig for trenchless technology include:
a) falling into water, drowning, being struck by a broken cutting disc, falling objects,
b) being pulled in, crushing, high hydraulic oil pressure, high temperature of oil and machine parts, slipping, falling,
c) increased fuel consumption and decreased work efficiency when working in high temperatures.120. The basic duties of an employee regarding occupational health and safety are:
a) adhering to health and safety regulations and rules, taking care of the condition of machines and tools, and maintaining order in the workplace, using personal protective equipment,
b) not being late for work, finishing on time, confirming presence at work in the manner accepted by the employer,c) enforcing labor code regulations regarding their rights, including payment for overtime worked.121. In the case of a person electrocuted, after disconnecting the power source, one should:
a) check the condition of the victim, and if necessary: call for help, clear the airways, perform resuscitation, and use an AED if available,
b) move the victim to another location as quickly as possible,c) leave the victim if they have regained consciousness, without further actions.122. After extinguishing flames on a person with burns and calling for help, one should:
a) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes, without removing the stuck clothing,
b) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes, after removing the stuck clothing,c) use a snow extinguisher to cool the burn area.
123. Seeing such a pictogram, you are informed about:
a) a place to perform AED,
b) a place where an external automatic defibrillator is available,
c) a place where a first aid kit is available.124. Properly performed cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) consists of:
a) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 30-60 times per minute to a depth of 1–3 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 15 compressions (breaths are mandatory),b) connecting the external automatic defibrillator (AED) and following its instructions; CPR is not performed without an AED,
c) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 100-120 times per minute to a depth of 5–6 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 30 compressions (breaths are not mandatory).
125. The abbreviation IBWR stands for:
a) Instruction for Non-Failure Execution of Works,b) Instruction for Non-Failure Execution of Works,
c) Instruction for Safe Execution of Works.
126. Expand the abbreviation IBWR:
a) Implementation of Failure-Free Execution of Works,
b) Instruction for Safe Execution of Works,
c) Information on Safe Execution of Works.127. The Instruction for Safe Execution of Construction Works is:
a) a document confirming qualifications for operating machines and technical devices in earthworks, construction, and road works,b) a road plan in construction works,
c) a document containing information regarding safety on the construction site.
128. BIOZ plan means:
a) plan of Safe Health Protection Instruction,
b) plan of Safety and Health Protection,
c) plan of Safety and Resource Specification.
129. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 4 [m],
b) 1 [m],
c) 1.6 [m].130. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 1.6 [m],b) 1 [m],
c) 1.5 [m].
131. The reach of the wedge of the block for an excavation with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 0.5 [m],
b) 1.6 [m],c) 1 [m].132. The reach of the wedge of the block for an excavation with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 1.6 [m],
b) 1 [m],
c) 2 [m].133. The reach of the wedge of the block for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 1.6 [m],
b) 2 [m],
c) 1 [m].134. The reach of the wedge of the block for an excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 3 [m],
b) 1 [m],c) 2 [m].135. The reach of the wedge of the block for an excavation with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 3 [m],b) 2.6 [m],
c) 4 [m].
136. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 1.6 [m],
b) 2.6 [m],c) 1 [m].137. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 6.6 [m],b) 3.6 [m],
c) 2.1 [m].
138. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 4.6 [m],b) 2 [m],
c) 2.6 [m].
139. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 2 [m],
b) 1.1 [m],
c) 2.6 [m].140. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 2.6 [m],
b) 1.6 [m],
c) 2 [m].141. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category III (cracked rocks) is:
a) 4.6 [m],b) 2 [m],
c) 2.6 [m].
142. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category III (cracked rocks) is:
a) 2.1 [m],b) 3 [m],
c) 3.6 [m].
143. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category III (cracked rocks) is:
a) 4 [m],b) 2.6 [m],
c) 4.6 [m].
144. In a situation of danger, when it is not possible to open the cabin door:
a) do not leave the cabin until help arrives,
b) use the emergency/evacuation exit provided by the manufacturer,
c) the space after removing the floor panel can be used as an evacuation exit.145. If the seat belt is damaged, you should:
a) exercise extreme caution while working,
b) report the damage and do not start work until the belt is repaired or replaced,
c) continue working and report the problem after finishing work.146. The operator must wear a protective helmet when:
a) frequently leaning out of the cabin during work,b) working on demolition tasks using long booms,
c) working in a machine not equipped with a closed cabin.
147. You should enter and exit the machine:
a) sideways, being careful of the devices in the cabin,
b) facing the machine, maintaining three points of contact,
c) backwards to the machine, using a three-step ladder.148. Visible underground infrastructure devices that provide initial insight into their course are most often:
a) abandoned road frames where they pass,b) graphic symbols marked on the road surface,
c) hydrant boxes, water shut-off boxes, manhole covers.
149. Soils, according to the degree of difficulty in their detachment, are divided into:
a) 4 categories,b) 10 categories,
c) 16 categories.
150. The machine operator should know the category of soil they are working on:
a) to understand the requirements for operating the machine's chassis,
b) to calculate the safe distance for setting up the machine and the reach of the failure wedge,
c) to be able to assess the depth of the excavation.151. Information about the area that the operator should have before starting earthworks includes:
a) availability of backup equipment in the area,
b) soil category, presence of underground installations, and location of existing buildings and technical devices,
c) distribution of service points and the work schedule of the team.152. The performance of the drilling machine used in trenchless technologies is determined by:
a) the amount of spoil removed during one bore,b) the maximum depth that the drilling machine can reach during operation,
c) the length of the bore completed per unit of time.
153. The selection of the appropriate working tool in trenchless technology affects the performance of the drilling machine because:
a) the color of the tool allows the operator to more easily locate the drilling machine underground,
b) the correct diameter and type of tool enable optimal cutting and minimize the risk of blockage in difficult soil conditions,
c) a working tool with a larger diameter always speeds up the boring process.154. The first stage in the technological process of performing a hydraulic thrust with pilot drilling is:
a) creating bore chambers,
b) performing pilot drilling,c) performing the main bore.155. To ensure that the launch chamber effectively drains incoming groundwater, it is necessary to:
a) install a pump to drain water outside the chamber,
b) seal all surfaces of the chamber using insulation film,c) install a tank to store groundwater in the chamber.156. In trenchless technology, to increase the diameter of the borehole, the following is used:
a) hydraulic drive reamer,
b) pilot for pushing with rotating rods,c) auger for light and medium cohesive soils.157. The main task of the bentonite slurry during drilling is:
a) increasing pressure in the borehole,b) reducing the drilling time of the rig,
c) cooling the head and stabilizing the borehole.
158. To achieve a straight trajectory of the pilot borehole, one must:
a) rotate the pilot head along with the drill pipe while simultaneously pushing it into the ground,
b) change the cutting angle of the head by more than 20 [%],c) push the pilot head into the ground without rotating.159. For drilling with horizontal and horizontal drilling machines, the following soils are suitable:
a) category 4-9,b) all categories,
c) category 1-7.
160. The efficiency of a rig used for trenchless drilling can be expressed:
a) in meters of borehole per hour of operation,
b) in the number of completed boreholes per working day,c) in kilograms of removed spoil per linear meter of borehole.161. One of the following factors does not have a significant impact on the performance of the drilling rig in trenchless technology. It is:
a) soil moisture,
b) technical condition of the machine,c) soil category.162. The next stage, after performing the pilot bore in hydraulic jacking technology, is:
a) setting control points,b) installation of the launch chamber,
c) performing the main bore.
163. The task of prefabricated slabs or concrete at the bottom of the launch chamber for the installation of the horizontal drilling rig is:
a) limiting the penetration of water and moisture into the chamber,b) preventing tool deviations in vertical bores,
c) providing a stable base for the installation of the drilling rig.
164. The use of a auger in trenchless technology is recommended for soils:
a) category 6-7,b) rocky,
c) light and medium cohesive.
165. The task of the bentonite slurry is not:
a) protecting the pulled pipeline from damage,
b) increasing the friction of the soil against the pipeline,
c) cooling the head.166. The theodolite and monitor for controlling the initial stage of drilling are characteristic of:
a) gyrocompass system,b) laser system,
c) teleoptic system.
167. To obtain a curved trajectory during pilot drilling, one must:
a) increase the angle of inclination of the head to the axis by more than 30 [%],b) rotate the pilot head while simultaneously pressing it into the ground,
c) press the pilot head into the ground without rotating it.
168. The operator uses knowledge of soil categories during work, among other things, for:
a) calculating the range of the wedge of the collapse and positioning the machine at a safe distance,
b) determining the drilling depth for each type of soil,c) selecting the appropriate hydraulic drive for the drill.169. A parameter affecting the efficiency of the flushing system in a horizontal drill is:
a) maximum output of the flushing pump,
b) maximum pushing force,c) nominal rotational speed.170. The parameter of the horizontal drill responsible for its ability to rotate tools is:
a) pushing force,b) maximum pressure of the flushing system,
c) torque.
171. The maximum length of the bore in a horizontal drilling rig indicates:
a) the feed rate of the drilling rig,b) the maximum pulling force during drilling,
c) the greatest distance that the tool can travel during drilling.
172. The technical parameter of the horizontal drilling rig that directly affects the drilling speed is:
a) pushing force,
b) nominal rotational speed,
c) maximum pressure of the drilling fluid system.173. The stabilization of the working unit on the track of the drilling rig is ensured by:
a) casing pipes,
b) working unit locks,
c) hydraulic installation.174. The feeding of drilling rods in a horizontal drilling rig is the responsibility of:
a) the rod feeding system,
b) the drilling fluid pump,c) the drilling trailer.175. The drilling fluid pump in a horizontal drilling rig is used for:
a) driving the anchoring system of the machine,b) stabilizing the rods during drilling,
c) supplying bentonite.
176. Working with a machine with open cabin doors is allowed:
a) always,b) only when the air temperature exceeds 25 [°C],
c) only if the operating and maintenance manual of the machine provides for such a possibility.
177. The task of the drilling fluid is:
a) increasing soil moisture,
b) removing cuttings,
c) flushing the working system after operation.178. The course of the underground land development must be marked before starting work to:
a) allow for quick movement of machines in any direction,
b) avoid the risk of damaging the network during work,
c) save time and reduce earthwork costs.179. The basic principles of operation of drilling devices are based on two key elements. They are:
a) the efficiency of the hydraulic power supply and the speed of the drill,b) centrifugal force and mast pressure,
c) the drill and rotation.
180. Rotary drilling rigs use a mechanical rotary drive that:
a) allows changing the position of the drilling rig,b) protects the drilling rig from rotating in the opposite direction to the drill's movement,
c) transmits torque to the drill.
181. Which of the listed elements are not part of the hydraulic system:
a) starter, alternator,
b) hydraulic lock, hydraulic oil tank,c) pump, distributor, actuator.182. The hydraulic lock in the machine is:
a) closure of the hydraulic oil inlet at its tank,b) valve responsible for controlling the entire hydraulic system,
c) valve protecting against uncontrolled movement of the element located in a given line.
183. The change of hydraulic oil pressure into mechanical movement is caused by:
a) hydraulic pump system,b) hydraulic distributor,
c) hydraulic actuator and hydraulic motor.
184. The pressure in the hydraulic system is generated by:
a) hydraulic motor,
b) hydraulic pump,
c) hydraulic actuator.185. Directing the flow of hydraulic oil to individual systems is carried out by:
a) overflow valve,b) hydraulic lock,
c) hydraulic distributor.
186. The safety valve protects the hydraulic system from:
a) overheating of hydraulic oil,
b) excessive pressure increase,
c) air in the hydraulic system.187. The relief valve in the hydraulic system is responsible for:
a) limiting the maximum working pressure in a given circuit,
b) venting the system,c) maintaining a constant position of the working tool.188. If the pressure in the hydraulic system increases excessively, the excess oil will be directed to:
a) the hydraulic oil filter,b) the distributor,
c) the hydraulic oil tank.
189. The basic parameters that characterize an electric accumulator are:
a) rated voltage [V], resistance [Ω], power [W],
b) rated voltage [V], capacity [Ah], starting current [A],
c) rated voltage [V], power [W], weight [kg].190. Lead-acid batteries can be charged:
a) in any room,
b) in a place specifically designated for this purpose,
c) only in an air-conditioned room.191. The main function of the clutch (side gearbox) is:
a) changing the torque and transferring the drive to the drive wheels,
b) increasing the stability of the machine,c) reducing fuel consumption.192. The hydraulic distributor:
a) converts mechanical energy into hydraulic energy,b) increases the torque in the side gearbox,
c) directs the flow of hydraulic oil to the appropriate sections.
193. The hydraulic distributor is a device that:
a) distributes oil between the small and large circuits,b) distributes oil between the engine and the hydraulic system,
c) allows control of individual hydraulic sections of the machine.
194. The portable locator receives information regarding:
a) energy consumption of the drill,
b) depth, tilt, and rotation of the head,
c) drilling speed.195. In the teleoptic system, the direction of the head cutting is indicated by:
a) the operator's monitor,b) the theodolite with a digital camera,
c) the LED targeting board.
196. The elements of the drilling equipment of a horizontal drilling machine are:
a) pushing units of the drilling machine,b) hydraulic power supply and hydraulic installation,
c) rods and cutting heads.
197. The device emitting a radio signal behind the pilot head in the radar system is:
a) operator monitor with transmitter,
b) probe,
c) portable locator.198. The image of the diode targeting board is transmitted to the operator via:
a) optical cable,b) theodolite scope,
c) camera connected to the theodolite.
199. The flow and direction of hydraulic fluid in the system are regulated by:
a) hydraulic motors,
b) hydraulic valves,
c) hydraulic pumps.200. Elements of the system, such as actuators and hydraulic motors, convert hydraulic energy into:
a) mechanical energy,
b) electrical energy,c) pressure in the tank.201. Too tightly tensioned track can cause:
a) immediate problems with the movement of the machine,
b) excessive wear of the chain, drive wheels, and rollers,
c) preventing the machine from turning.202. The mandatory equipment for the operator to observe the area directly behind the machine is:
a) rear camera,
b) external mirror,
c) sound signal when reversing.203. Together with the operator in the machine's cabin, other people can ride if:
a) they have undergone health and safety training with the operator and there are a maximum of 2 people,
b) the manufacturer has installed an additional seat,
c) the machine is moving at a low speed.204. The most important element of the operator's cabin equipment from the perspective of his safety is:
a) seat belt,
b) mirror or camera,c) emergency STOP button.205. Mirrors and rearview camera in the machine are used for:
a) checking the technical condition of the machine,
b) improving the operator's visibility and increasing safety,
c) facilitating the maneuvering of the working equipment.206. The green flash lamp placed on the machine cabin signals, among other things:
a) the machine's eco mode is activated,
b) the seat belts are properly fastened,
c) no operator in the cabin.207. In a parallel connection of two identical batteries, the voltage of such a system is:
a) the product of the voltages of the individual batteries,
b) equal to the voltage of a single battery,
c) the sum of the voltages of the individual batteries.208. In a series connection of two identical batteries, the voltage of such a system is:
a) the sum of the voltages of the individual batteries,
b) the product of the voltages of the individual batteries,c) equal to the voltage of a single battery.209. Fuses in the electrical installation of the machine protect it from the effects of:
a) low voltage,
b) short circuits and overloads,
c) high temperature.210. One of the elements of the electrical system protecting the motor from seizing is:
a) main fuse,b) speed controller,
c) engine oil pressure sensor.
211. Gel batteries that are part of the electrical system do not require:
a) charging with a rectifier,
b) replenishing the electrolyte,
c) replacement when the casing is damaged.212. Electrical systems of machines and technical devices should be equipped with a device that causes emergency stop in at least the quantity of:
a) one device causing emergency stop, in accordance with the European machinery directive,
b) two devices causing emergency stop placed on both sides of the machine, in accordance with the European machinery directive,c) three devices causing emergency stop, in accordance with the European machinery directive.213. The emergency stop device of a machine is a part of:
a) the fuel system,b) the drive system,
c) the electrical system.
214. Maintaining a stable working position of the drilling rig is possible thanks to:
a) the tracks of the drive system,
b) the anchoring mechanism,
c) the clamping jaws.215. The elements of the warning system for puncture, which the drilling rig is equipped with, are:
a) depth measurement and angle of drill guidance,
b) tension rod and coil for detecting current flow,
c) orange lamp and voltmeter.216. The equipment elements of the drilling rig used to loosen the connections of the drill rods are:
a) pneumatic wrenches,b) adjustable wrenches included in the equipment,
c) drill vises.
217. A part of the drilling equipment used to transfer rotational motion from the drilling table to the drill string is:
a) universal joint,
b) square,
c) kinematic triangle.218. In conditions of limited ventilation, the drive used for the anchor drilling rig should be:
a) hybrid,
b) electric,
c) hydrokinetic.219. If bentonite or polymers have been added to the drilling fluid, the system should be flushed with clean water before leaving the drilling rig:
a) rod feeder,
b) drilling system,
c) drive.220. The working tool of the drilling rig is:
a) drill heads,
b) drive shafts,c) drill rods.221. The main parameters of the internal combustion engine that affect work efficiency are:
a) torque, rotational speed,
b) compression ratio, displacement,c) type of carburetor, type of ignition system.222. The crank-piston system of the internal combustion engine is designed to:
a) ensure the effective operation of the clutch,b) convert mechanical energy into hydraulic energy,
c) convert the reciprocating motion of the piston into the rotational motion of the crankshaft.
223. The lubrication system in the internal combustion engine:
a) is responsible for removing hazardous substances generated in the combustion process of the mixture,
b) is responsible for the proper lubrication of the moving elements of the engine that work together,
c) provides regulation of the rotational speed and reduces engine vibrations during operation.224. Systems present in internal combustion engines include, among others:
a) exhaust system, pneumatic system, closed system,b) hydraulic system, intake system,
c) crank-piston system, fuel supply system, cooling system.
225. The low-pressure part of the fuel supply system of a diesel engine is:
a) fuel tank and injectors,
b) fuel tank, supply pump, filters, fuel lines,
c) fuel lines, high-pressure pump, common rail.226. The element controlling the flow of coolant in the so-called "large circuit" is:
a) thermostat,
b) thermocouple,c) hot water bottle.227. An intercooler is:
a) an air cooler for turbocharged engines,
b) another name for the engine coolant radiator,c) a device for burning solid particles in exhaust gases.228. DPF filter:
a) is used to reduce NOx (nitrogen oxides) emissions,b) is a precise cabin filter protecting the operator during work in high dust conditions,
c) is a dry particulate filter responsible for capturing soot from exhaust gases, among other things.
229. The frequency and scope of periodic maintenance of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam:
a) is determined by the owner of the machine/technical device,b) is included in the IBWR documentation,
c) is included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine.
230. The operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device is:
a) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device, which includes, among others, IBWR,b) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by health and safety services on construction sites,
c) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device.
231. The operator of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is not allowed to:
a) check the technical condition of the machine/device during operation,b) make any repairs or maintenance,
c) use the machine/device for purposes other than intended.
232. A symptom of too low a level of hydraulic oil may be:
a) "jerky" intermittent movement of hydraulic actuators,
b) uneven operation of the diesel engine,c) loud operation of the starter.233. If the warning light for too low engine oil pressure comes on, the operator:
a) does not have to take any action,b) may continue working if the hydraulic system is functioning properly,
c) should stop working and turn off the engine.
234. The operating and maintenance manual for the machine/device:
a) is used to record information about faults,b) is provided by the owner or user of the machine,
c) includes information about hazards when operating the machine/device.
235. The CE Declaration of Conformity is a document:
a) issued by institutions that test machines for resistance to weather conditions,b) confirming that the product was manufactured in EU countries,
c) in which the manufacturer confirms that their product meets all applicable EU requirements regarding safety, health protection, and environmental protection.
236. Information regarding the use of personal protective equipment and ways to limit the occupational risk the operator can find:
a) in the service book,b) in the CE Declaration of Conformity,
c) in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device.
237. The operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device:
a) is created by the construction manager based on information from the manufacturer,
b) is developed by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device or the entity that introduces the machine/technical device to the market,
c) is created by institutions that conduct testing and accreditation of machine/technical device prototypes before allowing them for serial production.238. The operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device:
a) should be located in the office along with the company's documentation and be available in case of inspection,
b) should be located in the machine or with the device, treated as part of the machine/technical device and be available at any time,
c) does not matter where it is located, the most important thing is that the owner of the machine has it in case of resale of the machine.239. Identification data of the machine/technical device:
a) are located on the nameplate of the machine/technical device, additionally they may be in the marking places described in the manual,
b) due to their importance are always printed in red,c) should be noted on the inner side of the protective helmet assigned to the given machine/technical device.240. To minimize the risk of machine/technical device failure, the operator should:
a) perform maintenance activities only when the machine/technical device stops working,b) use the machine/technical device until the failure becomes serious,
c) regularly visually assess the condition of the machine/technical device and report any noticed irregularities.
241. The initial operation of the machine is:
a) intensive full load testing of the machine,b) the stage of the machine's operation without load,
c) the process of achieving optimal clearances and even wear of parts.
242. The operator uses the operating and maintenance manual of the machine or technical device to:
a) learn the technical specifications, safety rules, and methods of repairing faults,
b) record the hours worked and fuel consumption by the machine,c) record all faults of the machine or technical device noticed during operation.243. The service part of the operating and maintenance manual of the machine or technical device includes:
a) a catalog of spare parts,b) a detailed description of the construction and operation of all elements of the machine/technical device,
c) instructions regarding, among others, controlling the machine/technical device.
244. The operating and maintenance manual must always be present with the machine/technical device because:
a) it minimizes the risk of losing it,
b) its absence may be a reason for the inspector to disallow the machine to operate,
c) it is essential for periodic technical inspections.245. The SAE designation on oil refers to:
a) the multi-season qualification of the oil,
b) the viscosity of the engine oil, that is, its ability to flow and lubricate,
c) the pressure of the engine oil.246. Oil with the symbol SAE 15W-40 means that:
a) at negative temperature it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 15W, and at positive temperature of summer oil class SAE 40,
b) at positive temperature it has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40,c) at positive temperature it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 15W.247. Oil with the symbol SAE 10W-30 means that:
a) at negative temperature it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 30,b) at positive temperature it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W,
c) at negative temperature it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W, and at positive temperature of summer oil class SAE 30.
248. The symbol SAE 10W-30 means:
a) hydraulic oil with specified parameters,
b) multi-season engine oil with specified parameters,
c) a mixture of engine oil and hydraulic oil.249. Engine oil with the symbol SAE 5W-40 means that:
a) at positive temperature it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 5W,b) at negative temperature it has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40,
c) at negative temperature it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 5W, and at positive temperature of summer oil class SAE 40.
250. The symbol of the warning light shown in the graphic means:
a) low engine oil pressure,b) low coolant level,
c) low engine oil level.
251. The symbol of the warning light shown in the graphic means:
a) low coolant level,b) low fuel level,
c) low engine oil pressure.
252. The symbol of the light shown means:
a) hydraulic oil,
b) engine oil,
c) engine oil filter.
253. The symbol of the light shown means:
a) engine coolant level,
b) engine oil level,
c) hydraulic oil level.254. Oils with designations 70W, 85W, 80W-90 are:
a) engine oils,b) brake oils,
c) gear oils.
255. In case of the need to dismantle the cover/protection for servicing, it is not allowed to:
a) record such a fact in the documentation,
b) start working with the device without installing the cover/protection,
c) reinstall the cover/protection.256. The lighting of the battery charging indicator signals to the construction machine operator a malfunction of:
a) the battery switch,
b) the V-belt and/or alternator,
c) the starter.257. The operator's seat cannot be adjusted when:
a) the machine is in motion,
b) the engine is not running,c) the seat is turned backwards.258. If during daily technical service before work the operator notices that one of the windows in the cabin is cracked, then:
a) he should not start working,
b) he may start working provided that the window is only cracked and has not "fallen out",c) he may start working if it is not the front window.259. Before starting work, the operator should:
a) open the windows for better communication,
b) clean the windows by removing snow, ice, and other contaminants,
c) install sunshades on the windows.260. When changing hydraulic oils, one should:
a) use only types of oils recommended by the machine manufacturer,
b) use any type of oil,c) always use only biodegradable oils.261. To ensure the technical efficiency of the working machine, one must:
a) comply with technical service and maintenance according to the operating and exploitation instructions,
b) use the machine/technical device only under full load,c) use the machine/technical device not exceeding 50% of the permissible load.262. On the construction site, empty containers of lubricants, oil filters, and used oils should be:
a) thrown into any waste container,
b) placed in a properly marked hazardous waste container,
c) thrown into a mixed waste container.263. Stickers (pictograms) located on the machine/technical device serve to:
a) indicate places where one can stay without any risk,
b) convey important information about safety and the use of the machine/technical device,
c) inform about the prohibition of approaching the machine/technical device.264. Lubrication points in the machine should be serviced:
a) during all breaks in work,
b) according to the operating and exploitation instructions of the machine,
c) always after 10 hours of work.265. Engine oil with parameters 5W-50 is:
a) oil only for winter,
b) multi-season oil,
c) oil only for summer.266. Before starting work on a new type of machine/technical device, the operator should:
a) familiarize themselves with the operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device,
b) perform a periodic inspection,c) conduct a trial operation.267. OTC service is:
a) daily technical service,
b) temporary technical service,c) round-the-clock technical service.268. The basic types of services are:
a) daily, periodic, warehouse, transport service,
b) visual, active, passive service,c) round-the-clock, multi-seasonal, annual, technological service.269. Batteries, when starting the machine using a supporting battery, should be connected:
a) in series,b) crosswise,
c) in parallel.
270. In the case of electrolyte loss caused by spillage through a cracked battery casing, one should:
a) add electrolyte to the proper level and charge the battery,b) add demineralized water to a level 10 mm above the upper edges of the plates,
c) secure the leakage area in terms of environmental protection, and then replace the battery.
271. The activities performed by the operator as part of daily maintenance during work are:
a) replenishing operating fluids and daily lubrication,
b) auditory control of the machine's operation and observation of indicators,
c) cleaning the machine.272. If the manufacturer has provided for operational run-in, it should be carried out:
a) with maximum load,
b) with the load recommended in the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine/technical device,
c) without load.273. When loading the machine onto the transport vehicle, the operator should:
a) know the permissible angle of inclination of the loading ramps for the given machine,
b) perform the loading at a speed of at least 5 [km/h],c) know the maximum speed allowed for the given transport vehicle.274. The responsibility for the placement and securing of the machine on the transport vehicle lies with:
a) the machine operator,b) the owner or the person responsible for the machines in the company,
c) the carrier (e.g., the driver).
275. When storing the machine, one should ensure that:
a) no documents of the machine are left in the cabin,
b) there are no leaks of operating fluids,
c) the machine is facing the exit.276. The protection of the machine during storage downtime consists of:
a) disassembling all filters and protecting them from moisture,b) filling the hydraulic oil tank to the top,
c) cleaning the machine of dirt and corrosion.
277. The rods of hydraulic actuators, during technical service of the machine in storage, should be:
a) disassembled and the seals replaced,b) disassembled and cleaned,
c) protected against corrosion.
278. When loading the machine onto the means of transport:
a) assistance from a second person is recommended only when loading onto a low-loader trailer,b) the operator should drive onto the means of transport independently,
c) assistance from a second person is recommended.
279. The recommended method for loading heavy working machines onto low-loader trailers is:
a) loading using other machines,
b) mechanized loading from the front ramp,
c) loading on ropes.280. During longer storage of the machine, the fuel tank should be:
a) filled to 1/3 of its capacity and left open,b) empty to avoid fire hazards,
c) filled to the top to prevent condensation of water vapor inside the tank.
281. During the daily operation of the machine, the condition of should be checked:
a) tools and equipment,
b) connections and tightness of the hydraulic system,
c) the working pressure value in the hydraulic system.282. If the machine's engine has not been running for a longer time during daily operation, you should:
a) check the oil level and other operating fluids,
b) replace the fuel pre-filter,c) start the engine and gently increase the RPM to reach the operating temperature faster.283. Information regarding faults, their codes, and methods of removal can be found in the document named:
a) daily report,
b) operating and maintenance manual,
c) construction machine book.284. The correct order for connecting the auxiliary battery to the discharged battery in the machine is as follows:
a) negative terminal of the machine's battery, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, machine frame,b) machine frame, positive terminal of the machine's battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery,
c) positive terminal of the machine's battery, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, machine frame.
285. In case of electrolyte loss in the battery, you should:
a) top it up with distilled or demineralized water,
b) top it up with DOT-3 fluid,c) top it up with water other than distilled.286. Checking the charge status of the starting battery 12 [V] by "sparking" poses a risk of:
a) seizing the alternator,b) electric shock from high voltage,
c) explosion of hydrogen escaping from the battery.
287. The scope of daily technical service for a machine does not include:
a) checking the condition of the tires and tire pressure,
b) checking and adjusting valve clearances,
c) checking the oil level in the engine.288. When cleaning the radiator, to avoid damaging it, one should:
a) keep the compressed air nozzle at an appropriate distance from the radiator,
b) use sharp tools for cleaning,c) apply a strong stream of water under high pressure.289. The purpose of lubrication in working machines is:
a) to increase the engine's rotational speed,b) to raise the temperature of cooperating elements,
c) to reduce friction.
290. The most commonly used type of fuses in electrical installations of working machines is:
a) cartridge fuses,
b) automatic fuses,c) residual current devices.291. The phenomenon of electrostatic discharge during the refueling of a machine can lead to:
a) short circuit of the electrical installation,
b) fire,
c) poisoning.292. In the case of connecting two batteries in parallel with different rated voltages:
a) both batteries may discharge,
b) the battery with the lower rated voltage may explode,
c) thicker cables should be used than with batteries of the same rated voltages.293. The correct way to connect a battery to a charger during charging is:
a) positive terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger, negative terminal of the battery to the negative terminal of the charger,
b) positive terminal of the battery to the negative terminal of the charger, negative terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger,c) positive terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger, negative terminal of the charger to the "ground" of the machine.294. After connecting the battery, the terminals are lubricated with:
a) technical vaseline,
b) graphite grease,c) grease containing molybdenum disulfide.295. One of the goals of warehouse management is:
a) preparing the machine for transport for the future user,
b) protecting the machine from corrosion and other harmful factors during long-term storage,
c) repairing damaged parts of the machine before the next season.296. If during daily technical service the operator notices a leak in the cooling system, he should:
a) organize fluid and refill to the minimum level if the leak is small,
b) report the leak and not use the machine until it is repaired,
c) refill the coolant and continue working.297. The level of coolant in the expansion tank should be checked:
a) only during periodic technical service,b) only in case of engine overheating,
c) during every daily technical service.
298. If the operator notices a hydraulic fluid leak during daily technical service, he should:
a) report the leak and not use the machine until it is repaired,
b) refill the oil and continue working,c) reduce the RPM and continue working.299. The frequency of performing periodic technical service depends on:
a) the number of hours worked (engine hours),
b) the number of completed working cycles,c) the production date of the machine.300. If during daily technical service the operator notices a low level of engine oil, he should:
a) refill the oil to the appropriate level,
b) refill the level with any available oil, even if it is of a different type,c) start working if the level is not very low and the warning light is not on.301. The characteristic activity for seasonal technical service is:
a) checking the charging voltage value,b) checking the working pressure value of the hydraulic system,
c) replacing the coolant with one suitable for the season.
302. The basic service activities that must be performed before starting a diesel engine are:
a) bleeding the fuel system, checking the level of transmission oil, checking the starter,