Anchor drilling rigs
Study mode
Question of 292
1. What is the minimum allowable distance of the machine from the reach of the wedge of the collapse?
a) 0.6 [m],
b) 0.4 [m],c) 0.8 [m].2. The safe distance of the machine from the excavation is:
a) the reach of the wedge of the collapse + 0.6 [m],
b) 1.6 [m],c) the depth of the excavation + 0.6 [m].
3. Based on the provided table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] made in cohesive soils:
a) 1.6 [m],
b) 1 [m],c) 2.6 [m].4. Based on the provided table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] made in fractured rocks:
a) 3.6 [m],
b) 2.6 [m],c) 4.6 [m].5. Based on the provided table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] made in slightly cohesive soils:
a) 3.6 [m],
b) 3.1 [m],
c) 2.6 [m]. Drilling rigs for anchoring6. What is the minimum safe distance from the UPPER edge of the embankment that a machine can approach, given the following data: Soil category - I (dry sand), height of the embankment - h = 2 [m], horizontal distance between the upper and lower edges of the embankment - a = 2.5 [m]?
a) 3.6 [m],b) 0.6 [m],
c) 1.1 [m].
7. What is the minimum safe distance from the UPPER edge of the embankment that a machine can approach, given the following data: Soil category - II (slightly cohesive soils), height of the embankment - h = 4 [m], horizontal distance between the upper and lower edges of the embankment - a = 2.5 [m]?
a) 0.6 [m],
b) 3.1 [m],
c) 5.6 [m].8. At what horizontal distance from the outermost wires for power lines with a rated voltage not exceeding 1 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 2 [m],
b) not less than 3 [m],
c) not less than 5 [m].9. At what horizontal distance from the outermost wires for power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 5 [m],
b) not less than 15 [m],c) not less than 10 [m].10. At what horizontal distance from the outermost wires for power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 10 [m],
b) not less than 5 [m],c) not less than 15 [m].11. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?
a) not less than 10 [m],
b) not less than 15 [m],
c) not less than 20 [m].12. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?
a) not less than 30 [m],
b) not less than 15 [m],c) not less than 10 [m].13. Is it possible to organize workstations in the danger zone under overhead power lines?
a) yes, but only after meeting additional requirements,
b) no, never,c) yes, always.
14. What is the safe distance X for the operation of a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [V]?
a) not less than 30 [m],b) not less than 5 [m],
c) not less than 3 [m].
15. What is the safe distance X for the operation of a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV]?
a) not less than 15 [m],
b) not less than 5 [m],
c) not less than 10 [m].16. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?
a) no less than 15 [m],
b) no less than 10 [m],
c) no less than 30 [m].17. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?
a) no less than 5 [m],
b) no less than 10 [m],
c) no less than 15 [m].18. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV]?
a) no less than 15 [m],
b) no less than 30 [m],c) no less than 50 [m].19. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV]?
a) no less than 30 [m],b) no less than 15 [m],
c) no less than 10 [m].
20. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]?
a) no less than 40 [m],b) no less than 3 [m],
c) no less than 30 [m].
21. Work in the danger zone (overhead high voltage power line):
a) may be carried out provided that the work manager's consent has been obtained,
b) may be carried out provided that the line has been disconnected from the voltage, the work is performed in a zone limited by groundings and at least one grounding is visible from the work site,
c) under no circumstances may be carried out under electrical lines in the danger zone.22. The operator is to perform work at a distance X from the active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [V]. He may start work if this distance is:
a) 2 [m],
b) 5 [m],
c) 1 [m].23. The operator is to perform work at a distance X from the active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]. He may start work if this distance is:
a) 3 [m],
b) 15 [m],
c) 5 [m].24. The operator is to perform work at a distance X from the active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]. He may start work if this distance is:
a) 15 [m],b) 5 [m],
c) 50 [m].
25. If the injured person has a detectable pulse but is not breathing, then:
a) cardiopulmonary resuscitation should be performed,
b) the airways should be cleared and artificial respiration should be started,
c) he should not be touched.26. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, one should primarily:
a) provide assistance to those in life-threatening situations,
b) distance oneself from the accident scene to call a doctor,c) give injured persons medication.27. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, one should primarily:
a) provide assistance to those in life-threatening situations,b) distance oneself from the accident scene to call a doctor,
c) take care of one's own safety.
28. The obligation to provide first aid to accident victims rests with:
a) everyone, as one can always perform part of the rescue tasks,
b) only those with medical training,c) everyone, but criminal liability always threatens for committed mistakes.29. The accident victim regained consciousness after a few minutes and wants to go home. In such a situation, one should:
a) allow her to go home, recommending a visit to a doctor,b) give her something to drink and painkillers,
c) persuade her to stay and call for medical help.
30. First aid in a situation where a foreign body has entered the eye of the injured person consists of:
a) rinsing with distilled water directing the stream to the inside of the eye,b) rinsing the eye with eye drops,
c) rinsing with clean water directing the stream from the nose outward from the eye.
31. The injured person cut their leg on an unsecured sharp element. Providing first aid in this situation is:
a) sticking a plaster directly on the wound,b) using a tourniquet,
c) applying sterile gauze, wrapping the wound with a bandage.
32. Suspecting spinal injury in a person who has fallen from a height and is conscious, one should:
a) place them in the recovery position,
b) not move them and wait for medical services to arrive,
c) sit them in a semi-reclining position.33. To move away from the place where the electric wire has been broken and the area is live, one should:
a) step away from this place slowly, taking small steps, trying to maintain continuous contact of the feet with the ground,
b) run as fast as possible to a place that we assess as safe,c) quickly step away from the source of electric shock, lifting the feet high.34. First aid in the case of a first-degree burn is:
a) pouring cold water on the burned area,
b) applying greasy cream to the burned area,c) applying ointment to the burned area.35. During work, a high-voltage power line was torn down, as a result of which a colleague was electrocuted. In this situation, the correct behavior is:
a) approach the injured person to provide first aid,b) call other colleagues for help with the injured person,
c) turn off the power source as quickly as possible.
36. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation is performed until:
a) the fire brigade arrives and secures the area,
b) we have determined that the victim has started breathing and circulation has returned,
c) 10 minutes have passed.37. Immediate action in the case of severe bleeding from an injured upper limb includes:
a) disinfecting the wound with salicylic alcohol,b) lowering the limb below heart level,
c) applying a dressing, directly compressing the bleeding site, and elevating the limb.
38. In the case of a nosebleed, one should:
a) tilt the head back and place a cold compress on the neck,b) lay the victim on their back,
c) lean the bleeding person's head forward and pinch the nostrils.
39. The first step in dealing with a carbon monoxide poisoning victim in a closed room is:
a) conducting a preliminary examination,b) assessing ABC,
c) the quickest possible evacuation of the victim from that room.
40. First aid during seizures caused by an epileptic attack consists of:
a) placing a wooden object in the victim's mouth to prevent biting the tongue,b) seating the victim in a semi-sitting position and giving them something to drink,
c) protecting the victim's head from injuries.
41. In case of suspected spinal injury in the cervical region in a conscious person, one should:
a) seat the injured person in a chair with a high back,b) place the injured person in a lateral position,
c) not allow the injured person to move their head.
42. The most important thing when a person is buried under earth, sand, or gravel is:
a) waiting for the arrival of the ambulance,b) notifying the family,
c) locating the injured person.
43. First aid for a person with a metal rod embedded in their lower leg involves calling for help and:
a) removing the embedded rod,
b) securing the rod to prevent movement,
c) moving the rod to check if the artery has been damaged.44. The indication for using an AED defibrillator is:
a) severe dizziness,b) severe chest pain,
c) absence of detectable breath and pulse in the injured person.
45. During the operation of a machine/technical device, the prohibited actions for which you are taking the exam are:
a) making structural changes to the machine/technical device,
b) changing the working tool,c) performing daily technical service (OTC).46. During the operation of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam, the prohibited activities are:
a) cleaning the machine/technical device using gasoline or solvents whose vapors can create flammable/explosive gas mixtures with air,
b) cleaning the machine/technical device using a product in accordance with the operating and maintenance instructions,c) refueling the machine/technical device from a canister.47. During the execution of work, it is unacceptable to:
a) work near an active power line with a rated voltage of 20 [kV] at a distance of 15 [m],
b) work near active overhead power lines at a distance less than specified by regulations,
c) work near an active power line with a rated voltage of 10 [kV] at a distance of 10 [m].48. The machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam can only be operated by:
a) any adult person with technical education and a driver's license of the appropriate category,
b) a person who has completed training and obtained a positive result from the test conducted by the commission appointed by the Łukasiewicz Research Network – Warsaw Institute of Technology,
c) a person with written confirmation of course completion in the form of a plastic card.49. The rights to operate machines/technical devices for which you are taking the exam are issued by:
a) The County Office appropriate for the residence address of the person applying for the rights,b) The Office of Technical Inspection (UDT),
c) The Łukasiewicz Research Network - Warsaw Institute of Technology (SBŁ - WIT).
50. The rights to operate machines/technical devices for which you are taking the exam:
a) are valid indefinitely,
b) are valid for 10 years from the date of issue,c) are valid for 5 years from the date of issue.51. A person holding a license to operate: "Anchor drilling machines without class" can operate based on this:
a) all anchor drilling machines and drilling machines for trenchless technology,
b) anchor drilling machines,
c) only anchor drilling machines up to 4 [t] operating mass.52. An employee operating a machine/technical device, for which you are taking the exam, can take up work provided that:
a) has a valid category D driving license,
b) has the qualifications to operate this type of machine/technical device,
c) the machine/technical device has a valid UDT inspection.53. In the event of a threat to life, health, property, or the environment caused by a malfunction of the machine/technical device, the operator:
a) immediately stops work and informs the supervisor of this fact,
b) continues working, but at the end of the shift makes an appropriate entry in the maintenance book,c) continues working, but at the end of the shift informs the supervisor of the situation that has occurred.54. An employee operating a machine/technical device, for which you are taking the exam, has the right to refuse to take up work when:
a) this work requires special psychophysical fitness, and his psychophysical state does not ensure its safe performance and poses a threat to others,
b) there is an overhead power line with a rated voltage of 110 [kV] at a distance of 35 meters,c) has the required personal protective equipment.55. An employee operating a machine/technical device, for which you are taking the exam, is obliged to stop work when:
a) there is an overhead power line at a distance of 35 meters,
b) the work he is performing poses an immediate threat to the health or life of others,
c) has the required personal protective equipment.56. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is required to:
a) comply with the instructions for operation and use of the machine/technical device,
b) always have a category B driving license,c) independently perform all current repairs of the machine/technical device.57. The person directly responsible for the safe operation of the machine for which you are taking the exam is:
a) the machine operator,
b) the construction manager,c) the owner of the machine.58. The operator's book and qualifications for the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam are issued by:
a) the Office of Technical Inspection (UDT),
b) Łukasiewicz Research Network - Warsaw Institute of Technology,
c) the Transport Technical Inspection (TDT).59. The obligation to use personal protective equipment:
a) arises only from internal regulations,
b) arises from the operation and use instructions and health and safety regulations,
c) does not apply on hot days.60. An employee who witnesses an accident at work:
a) is obliged to provide assistance to the victims and then immediately leave the scene of the accident,
b) is obliged to provide assistance to the victims, notify the supervisor, and if necessary secure the accident site,
c) it is enough to notify the supervisor.61. What elements of the machine, for which you are taking the exam, protect the operator in case the machine tips over:
a) machine seat,b) certified safety helmet and reflective vest,
c) ROPS type machine cabin and safety belts.
62. In case of loss of stability by a machine equipped with a ROPS type cabin, the operator should:
a) maintain a sitting position holding firmly to the steering wheel or other stable elements in the cabin,
b) quickly turn left and raise the working equipment as high as possible,c) try to exit the cabin as quickly as possible (before the machine tips over).63. In case of loss of stability by a machine equipped with a ROPS type cabin, the operator should:
a) turn on the warning/emergency lights,
b) remain in the cabin,
c) immediately jump out of the cabin.64. The danger zone is defined as:
a) a place where workers must only wear safety helmets,b) a place where work requiring specialized equipment is carried out, and the presence of people is only allowed at night,
c) a place where there are threats to the health and life of people.
65. The danger zone on a construction site:
a) is designated and/or fenced and marked in a way that prevents access to unauthorized persons,
b) is always designated by a surveyor,c) is designated after the construction work has started.66. The area that the operator should check and secure before starting work with the machine/technical device (because there are health and life hazards) is called:
a) the area of increased risk,b) dead zone,
c) danger zone.
67. During the charging of batteries, a gas with highly explosive properties is released. This gas is:
a) methane,
b) hydrogen,
c) ethane.68. Firefighting foam can be used to extinguish fires of group:
a) only C,
b) A and B,
c) C and D.69. Improper use of a snow extinguisher can result in:
a) fainting,
b) frostbite caused by the extinguishing agent,
c) burns from the extinguisher components.70. Water, fire blanket, powder extinguisher, carbon dioxide, sand are extinguishing agents that we will use to extinguish:
a) solid bodies,
b) liquids,c) oils.71. Sorbents can be called:
a) petroleum substances,
b) materials made of natural or synthetic polymers that absorb liquids,
c) fire blankets.72. Group A fires concern:
a) flammable gases,
b) solid bodies whose normal combustion occurs with the formation of glowing coals, e.g. wood, paper, etc.,
c) flammable liquids.73. Group B fires concern:
a) liquids and solid materials that melt, e.g. plastics, fuels, oils, etc.,
b) flammable gases,c) metals, e.g. magnesium, sodium, potassium, aluminum, titanium, etc..74. Group C fires concern:
a) gases, e.g. methane, propane, acetylene, hydrogen,
b) flammable liquids,c) solid bodies.
75. Seeing such a pictogram you are informed about:
a) danger zone,
b) assembly point during evacuation,
c) a larger number of people in a given area.
76. During work, you noticed a sign marked 'Zone 0'. It informs about:
a) the zone of existing fire load in the building,
b) the space where an explosive atmosphere exists,
c) the zone of existing fire hazard category.
77. The presented pictogram informs about:
a) internal hydrant,b) main power switch,
c) set of fire protection equipment.
78. Seeing such a pictogram, you are informed about:
a) the assembly point during evacuation,
b) the emergency exit,
c) the location of first aid.
79. Seeing such a pictogram, you are informed about:
a) the location of the fire extinguisher,
b) the prohibition of using the fire extinguisher,c) the high temperature affecting the fire extinguisher.80. You see a person whose clothing is on fire and who is running away in panic. Your reaction is:
a) you try to stop him, lay him on the ground, and start extinguishing,
b) you tell him to wait in an upright position for the arrival of rescue services,c) you wave your arms or outer covering strongly next to him to extinguish the burning clothing.81. Electrical devices and installations can be extinguished using:
a) powder or snow extinguishers,
b) foam extinguishers,c) water.82. Burning fuel can be extinguished using:
a) low-octane ethylene,b) water,
c) powder, foam, or snow extinguishers.
83. Clothing burning on a person can be extinguished using:
a) material made of plastics,
b) water mist extinguisher or fire blanket,
c) snow or powder extinguisher.84. What obligations does an employee have when they decide to refrain from work due to health and safety regulations?
a) They have no obligations in this situation,
b) They must immediately inform their supervisor,
c) They should organize work for others.85. How can an operator prevent hazards in the workplace?
a) By ignoring health and safety rules,b) By not reporting faults in machines,
c) By using personal protective equipment to minimize risk.
86. It is not permissible to position the workplace directly under active overhead power lines or at a horizontal distance from the outermost wires of less than:
a) for lines: 1 [kV] - 3 [m], 15 [kV] - 5 [m], 30 [kV] - 10 [m], 110 [kV] - 15 [m], 400 [kV] - 30 [m],
b) for all voltages - 1 [m] from the power line,c) for lines: 1 [kV] - 1 [m], 15 [kV] - 3 [m], 30 [kV] - 5 [m], 110 [kV] - 10 [m].87. How does the operator know what personal protective equipment is required for a given machine/technical device?
a) The choice of personal protective equipment depends on the opinion of colleagues at work,
b) Information about the necessary personal protective equipment is included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine,
c) The operator must independently choose the appropriate protective measures.88. The operator should refuse to perform a task when:
a) the work is being done at night,
b) the work is inconsistent with the intended use of the machine/technical device,
c) the work requires familiarization with the location of underground and above-ground utilities.89. The operator can prevent hazards during the operation of the machine/technical device by:
a) following health and safety rules and adhering to the operating instructions,
b) inattention and routine,c) limiting the use of personal protective equipment.90. Which of the situations listed is unacceptable during the use of the machine/technical device?
a) The presence of unauthorized persons in the danger zone caused by the operation of the machine/technical device,
b) Reporting faults directly to the supervisor,c) Operating the machine without supervision.91. An accident at work is considered:
a) a sudden event related to the work performed, caused by an external factor, resulting in injury or death,
b) a sudden event unrelated to the work performed, caused by an external factor, resulting in injury or death,c) a prolonged event related to the work performed, caused by an internal factor, resulting in equipment damage.92. A fatal accident at work is considered to be an accident in which death occurred:
a) within a period not exceeding 6 months from the date of the accident,
b) within a period exceeding 6 months from the date of the accident,c) only at the moment of the accident.93. Health and safety regulations require:
a) the scrapping of an old working machine within the time specified in its operating and maintenance instructions, while observing the requirements for the disposal of hazardous materials,
b) securing the working machine during breaks in its operation against accidental activation by unauthorized persons,
c) performing a warranty inspection of the working machine before the end of one year from its purchase.94. In the case of a person being electrocuted:
a) do not touch the injured person until the power source is disconnected,
b) it is recommended to use any tools to disconnect the power, regardless of their actual purpose,c) immediate resuscitation should be started, regardless of whether the power source has been disconnected.95. Seeing a person whose clothing is on fire, the first thing to do is:
a) cut off the air supply by rolling the injured person or wrapping them in a fire blanket, wet clothing, or a wet blanket,
b) use a fire extinguisher, preferably a snow extinguisher, to extinguish the burning clothing, and then try to quickly remove the melted clothing,c) leave the injured person standing to facilitate air access and extinguish the flames more quickly.96. Wedge of soil collapse:
a) occurs only when the soil is in a frozen state,b) is the area around the working machine reaching a distance of 6 [m] beyond its farthest reach,
c) occurs when the slope angle exceeds the natural slope angle of the soil.
97. Range of the wedge of soil collapse:
a) depends solely on the soil temperature,b) depends on the speed of the machine's operation and the efficiency of the operator,
c) depends on the depth of the excavation and the category of the soil.
98. The natural slope angle is:
a) the angle at which the machine can be safely operated - it depends on the parameters of the given machine,b) the angle at which the soil will definitely collapse by itself - it depends solely on the temperature of that soil,
c) the maximum slope at which the soil can remain without collapsing - it depends, among other things, on the category of the soil.
99. Wedge of soil collapse:
a) is the zone where the soil becomes unstable - its range depends solely on the depth of the excavation, the type of soil does not matter here,
b) occurs when the slope angle exceeds the natural slope angle of the soil - its range depends on the type of soil and the depth of the excavation or the height of the slope,
c) is the space around the machine, dependent on the speed of the machine's operation and its mass.100. The natural slope angle is:
a) the angle at which the machine can safely move on the embankment, regardless of the category of the soil,
b) the maximum slope at which the soil can remain without collapsing - it depends on the type of soil, e.g., moisture, cohesiveness, and grain size,
c) the slope at which any embankment becomes unstable, regardless of the type of soil.101. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is performed:
a) only in the case of fainting and minor injuries, to improve blood circulation,
b) when the victim is not breathing and there is no detectable pulse. For a person who is not a professional rescuer, the absence of breathing is a sufficient basis to start resuscitation,
c) when the victim is breathing but unconscious, and there is no contact with them.102. An employee has the right to refrain from performing work due to health and safety regulations, notifying their supervisor immediately when:
a) working conditions pose an immediate threat to health or life,
b) working conditions do not pose a threat, but are too difficult for them,c) the work they are performing has not been reported to the construction supervision.103. Physical factors generating hazards in the workplace are:
a) lack of or inadequate training for employees,
b) spilled lubricants, oils, and fuels,
c) lack of appropriate medical examinations for the employee.104. Working with a machine/technical device is not allowed when:
a) its repair was carried out after dark,
b) it is malfunctioning,
c) the second operator has not reported an upcoming inspection.105. Working near overhead power lines:
a) always requires double grounding of the line,b) always requires power to be turned off in the line,
c) is possible without meeting additional requirements provided that specific distances depending on the rated voltage of the line are maintained.
106. The operator is obliged to refuse to work if:
a) the working machine is defective,
b) he would have to work under power lines, and the voltage in them has been turned off and the line grounded,c) there is no construction manager or any other person authorized to supervise at the work site.107. The danger zone from a machine/technical device is:
a) always the entire fenced construction site,
b) a place where there are threats to the health or life of people,
c) a place where the machine/technical device cannot be used.108. Accidents at work resulting from the poor technical condition of the working machine may involve, for example:
a) failure of the drive system,b) damage to the equipment,
c) injury to a limb, torso, or head.
109. Unacceptable behaviors are:
a) operating a defective machine and working under the influence of alcohol,
b) working after dark in a well-lit place, with full concentration of the operator,c) performing daily maintenance of the machine after dark.110. The basic duties of an employee in terms of occupational health and safety are:
a) adhering to health and safety regulations and principles, taking care of the condition of machines and tools, and maintaining order at the workplace, using personal protective equipment,
b) not being late for work, finishing it on time, confirming presence at work in a manner accepted by the employer,c) enforcing labor code regulations regarding their rights, including payment for overtime worked.111. In the case of a person electrocuted, after disconnecting the power source, you should:
a) leave the victim alone if they have regained consciousness, without further actions,
b) check the victim's condition, and if necessary: call for help, clear the airways, perform resuscitation, and use an AED if available,
c) move the victim to another location as quickly as possible.112. After extinguishing flames on a person with burns and calling for help, you should:
a) use a snow extinguisher to cool the burn area,
b) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes, without removing the stuck clothing,
c) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes, first removing the stuck clothing.
113. Seeing such a pictogram, you are informed about:
a) a place to perform AED,
b) a place where an external automatic defibrillator is available,
c) a place where a first aid kit is available.114. Properly performed cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) consists of:
a) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 100-120 times per minute to a depth of 5–6 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 30 compressions (breaths are not mandatory),
b) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 30-60 times per minute to a depth of 1–3 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 15 compressions (breaths are mandatory),c) connecting an external automatic defibrillator (AED) and following its instructions; CPR is not performed without an AED.115. The abbreviation IBWR stands for:
a) Instruction for Safe Execution of Work,
b) Instruction for Failure-Free Execution of Work,c) Instruction for Failure-Free Execution of Work.116. Expand the abbreviation IBWR:
a) Information on Safe Execution of Works,
b) Instruction for Safe Execution of Works,
c) Implementation of Failure-Free Execution of Works.117. The Instruction for Safe Execution of Construction Works is:
a) a document confirming qualifications for operating machines and technical devices in earthworks, construction, and road works,b) a road plan in construction works,
c) a document containing information regarding safety on the construction site.
118. BIOZ plan means:
a) plan of Safe Health Protection Instruction,
b) plan of Safety and Health Protection,
c) plan of Safety and Resource Specification.
119. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 4 [m],b) 1.6 [m],
c) 1 [m].
120. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 1.5 [m],
b) 1.6 [m],c) 1 [m].121. The reach of the wedge of the block for an excavation with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 1.6 [m],
b) 0.5 [m],
c) 1 [m].122. The reach of the wedge of the block for an excavation with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 2 [m],
b) 1 [m],
c) 1.6 [m].123. The reach of the wedge of the block for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 1 [m],
b) 2 [m],
c) 1.6 [m].124. The reach of the wedge of the block for an excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 3 [m],
b) 2 [m],c) 1 [m].125. The reach of the wedge of the block for an excavation with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 3 [m],b) 2.6 [m],
c) 4 [m].
126. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 2.6 [m],b) 1 [m],
c) 1.6 [m].
127. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 6.6 [m],
b) 2.1 [m],
c) 3.6 [m].128. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 2.6 [m],
b) 4.6 [m],c) 2 [m].129. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 2 [m],b) 2.6 [m],
c) 1.1 [m].
130. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 2.6 [m],
b) 1.6 [m],
c) 2 [m].131. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category III (cracked rocks) is:
a) 2 [m],
b) 2.6 [m],
c) 4.6 [m].132. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category III (cracked rocks) is:
a) 2.1 [m],
b) 3.6 [m],
c) 3 [m].133. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category III (cracked rocks) is:
a) 4.6 [m],
b) 4 [m],c) 2.6 [m].134. In a situation of danger, when the cabin doors cannot be opened:
a) do not leave the cabin until help arrives,b) the space after removing the floor panel can be used as an emergency exit,
c) use the emergency exit provided by the manufacturer.
135. If the seat belt is damaged, you should:
a) exercise extreme caution while working,
b) report the damage and do not start work until the belt is repaired or replaced,
c) continue working and report the problem after finishing work.136. The operator must wear a protective helmet when working with the machine in situations where:
a) working on demolition tasks using long booms,
b) working in a machine not equipped with a closed cabin,
c) frequently leaning out of the cabin while working.137. Entering and exiting the machine should be done:
a) facing the machine, maintaining three points of contact,
b) entering sideways while being careful of the devices in the cabin,c) backwards to the machine, using a three-step ladder.138. The process of rotary drilling is characterized by:
a) cutting, where the tool's edges destroy the rock structure,
b) pressing, where the tool compresses and crushes the rock,c) friction, where the tool rotates without pressure on the rock surface.139. The rotary-percussive drilling method is used:
a) to reduce tool wear while significantly decreasing drilling speed,
b) to combine the advantages of high rotational speed and lower tool wear,
c) to achieve greater impact force from rotation.140. An important indicator affecting the efficiency of drilling in a given substrate is:
a) the type of coolant used in the process,b) the maximum depth of the drilling tool,
c) the unit feed per rotation of the tool.
141. Drilling rigs during operation are stabilized:
a) using frames or other devices for securing,
b) by weighting with concrete,c) by using counterweights at the ends of the arms.142. The next step after making a hole in the anchoring process using an anchor machine is:
a) inserting the anchor and tightening it with the appropriate torque,
b) placing the mortar in the hole before setting the anchor,c) cutting rock fragments before placing the anchors.143. The pneumatic impact anchor machine (PKU) is most commonly used:
a) in places with high humidity and regardless of the height of the excavation,
b) in medium hard and hard roof rocks and excavations with a height of 1400 [mm] or more,
c) in medium hard and hard roof rocks and excavations with a height below 1400 [mm].144. The process of drilling rock by rotary method involves:
a) punching holes in the rock using impact tools,b) crushing the rock under the influence of high pressure from the tool,
c) the movement of the tool, which pressed against the rock cuts its structure.
145. The main feature of drilling by rotary-impact method is:
a) the combination of longitudinal and torsional stress waves,
b) the rotation of the drilling tool with impact tool exchange,c) the generation of constant axial pressure.146. Drilling machines are most commonly used for:
a) compressing air during drilling,b) crushing rocks into smaller fragments at the anchor point,
c) creating anchoring holes.
147. Self-propelled drilling and anchoring vehicles (anchors) are used for:
a) transporting materials along the excavation,
b) securing the roof in mines,
c) crushing rocks into smaller fragments during extraction.148. The ability to adjust the control valve in a pneumatic impact anchor (PKU):
a) allows the anchor to operate at different power levels without operator intervention,b) automatically adjusts the anchor to different types of rocks without changing settings,
c) allows the anchor to be adjusted to the height of the excavation, which increases the operator's comfort.
149. For work in conditions requiring high power and precision, the best drilling machines are:
a) hydraulic,
b) pneumatic,c) electric.150. Due to the method of creating holes, drilling machines are divided into:
a) pneumatic, electric, hydraulic,
b) rotary, impact, rotary-impact,
c) manual, automatic, semi-automatic.151. Due to the type of drive, drilling machines are divided into:
a) magnetic, thermal, water,
b) pneumatic, electric, hydraulic,
c) combustion, mechanical, manual.152. Rotary-percussive drilling machines combine:
a) the role of a rotary and percussive hammer,
b) rotary and percussive motion,
c) electric and hydraulic drive.153. You can operate a machine with the cabin doors open:
a) only if the operating and maintenance manual allows for such possibility,
b) only when the air temperature exceeds 25 [°C],c) always.154. The task of the drilling fluid is:
a) removing cuttings,
b) flushing the working system after operation,c) increasing soil moisture.155. After drilling a hole, you should:
a) immediately set the anchor in the hole,b) promptly reset the hydraulic system,
c) retract the drilling machine to the anchor without stopping the drill rotation.
156. The installation of a ready anchor consists of:
a) introducing the anchor into the hole with adhesive loads and rotating it until the adhesive hardens,
b) introducing the anchor into the hole and driving it with a hammer,c) filling the hole with resin and immersing the anchor in it.157. When drilling a hole, one should not:
a) increase the drill speed when it encounters resistance,b) adjust the pressure force,
c) drill holes without water flushing.
158. The impact-rotary mechanism in anchor drilling rigs is used to:
a) increase the speed of material removal,b) reduce the wear of drilling tools,
c) increase the effectiveness of drilling in hard rock layers.
159. Reinforcing injection in geotechnical processes is used for:
a) creating drainage of the area using needle filters,b) installing mechanical anchors in hard ground,
c) improving the load-bearing capacity of the ground by introducing binding materials.
160. When choosing a work site for the anchor drilling rig, the most important factor is:
a) proximity to a public road,
b) stability of the substrate and the ability to precisely position the equipment,
c) distance from drinking water sources.161. The maximum diameter of drilling holes depends on:
a) the technical parameters of the drilling rig and the type of soil,
b) the depth at which the anchors are to be installed,c) the type of drilling fluid used.162. The course of underground infrastructure should be marked before starting work to:
a) avoid the risk of damaging networks during work,
b) save time and reduce earthwork costs,c) allow for quick movement of machines in any direction.163. Rock anchors:
a) are wooden or steel supports used to secure the lower layer of rocks in the excavated tunnel from detaching from the rock mass,b) are steel nets attached along the protected slope, ceiling, or excavation to protect people and property from falling rock debris,
c) are elements embedded in the rock mass used to strengthen rocks, among others in mining and tunnel excavation, preventing blocks of rock from detaching from the rock mass.
164. An anchor is:
a) an element that allows for stabilizing the drilling rig,
b) a construction element of the structure, connecting other structural elements in a way that prevents their movement or rotation,
c) an element connecting the drilling rig to a hydraulic power supply powered by a high-pressure engine.165. A drilling rig for anchors can work in rocky substrates thanks to:
a) anchoring the machine to the substrate,b) an additional hydraulic power supply,
c) a rotary-vibratory head.
166. "Micropiles" are:
a) piles made only in buildings,b) small piles for manual forming,
c) elements of one of the methods of anchoring structures.
167. The basic principles of operation of drilling devices are based on two key elements. They are:
a) centrifugal force and mast pressure,b) hydraulic power supply efficiency and drill speed,
c) drill and rotation.
168. Rotary drills use a mechanical rotary drive that:
a) protects the drill from rotating by acting in the opposite direction to the drill's movement,b) allows changing the position of the drill,
c) transmits torque to the drill.
169. Which of the listed elements are not part of the hydraulic system:
a) hydraulic lock, hydraulic oil tank,b) pump, distributor, actuator,
c) starter, alternator.
170. The hydraulic lock in a machine is:
a) a valve responsible for controlling the entire hydraulic system,b) the closure of the hydraulic oil inlet at its tank,
c) a valve protecting against uncontrolled movement of the element located in a given line.
171. The change of hydraulic oil pressure into mechanical movement is the responsibility of:
a) hydraulic pump system,
b) hydraulic actuator and hydraulic motor,
c) hydraulic distributor.172. Pressure in the hydraulic system is generated by:
a) hydraulic actuator,b) hydraulic motor,
c) hydraulic pump.
173. Directing the flow of hydraulic oil to individual systems is carried out by:
a) hydraulic distributor,
b) hydraulic lock,c) relief valve.174. The safety valve protects the hydraulic system from:
a) excessive pressure increase,
b) overheating of hydraulic oil,c) air in the hydraulic system.175. The relief valve in the hydraulic system is responsible for:
a) limiting the maximum working pressure in a given circuit,
b) maintaining a constant position of the working tool,c) venting the system.176. If the pressure in the hydraulic system rises excessively, the excess oil will be directed to:
a) the distributor,b) the hydraulic oil filter,
c) the hydraulic oil tank.
177. The basic parameters that characterize an electric accumulator are:
a) rated voltage [V], resistance [Ω], power [W],b) rated voltage [V], power [W], mass [kg],
c) rated voltage [V], capacity [Ah], starting current [A].
178. Lead-acid batteries can be charged:
a) only in an air-conditioned room,b) in any room,
c) in a place specifically designated for this purpose.
179. The pressure in the tires should be adjusted to:
a) the values given in the operating and maintenance manual,
b) the requirements of the landowner,c) the preferences of the operator.180. Uneven pressure in the tires:
a) does not affect the operation of the machine,
b) reduces the stability of the machine,
c) improves the driving properties of the machine.181. The main function of the clutch (side gearbox) is:
a) to change the torque and transfer the drive to the drive wheels,
b) to increase the stability of the machine,c) to reduce fuel consumption.182. The hydraulic distributor:
a) directs the flow of hydraulic oil to the appropriate sections,
b) increases the torque in the side gearbox,c) converts mechanical energy into hydraulic energy.183. The hydraulic distributor is a device that:
a) allows control of individual hydraulic sections of the machine,
b) distributes oil between the small and large circuits,c) distributes oil between the engine and the hydraulic system.184. The differential mechanism:
a) allows for increased speed on straight sections,
b) enables differentiation of the rotational speed of the drive wheels working on one axle,
c) regulates the flow of fluids in the differential system.185. The flow and direction of hydraulic fluid in the system are regulated by:
a) hydraulic motors,
b) hydraulic valves,
c) hydraulic pumps.186. System elements, such as actuators and hydraulic motors, convert hydraulic energy into:
a) mechanical energy,
b) pressure in the tank,c) electrical energy.187. A too tightly tensioned track can cause:
a) excessive wear of the chain, drive wheels, and rollers,
b) preventing the machine from turning,c) immediate mobility issues for the machine.188. The mandatory equipment used for the operator to observe the area directly behind the machine is:
a) rear camera,
b) external mirror,
c) sound signal when reversing.189. Together with the operator in the machine's cabin, other people can ride if:
a) they have undergone health and safety training with the operator and there are a maximum of 2 people,b) the machine is moving at a low speed,
c) the manufacturer has installed an additional seat.
190. The most important element of the operator's cabin equipment from the perspective of his safety is:
a) emergency STOP button,b) mirror or camera,
c) seat belt.
191. Mirrors and rearview camera in the machine are used for:
a) improving the operator's visibility and increasing safety,
b) monitoring the technical condition of the machine,c) facilitating the maneuvering of working equipment.192. The green flashing light located on the machine's cabin signals, among other things:
a) the absence of an operator in the cabin,
b) the correct fastening of the seat belts,
c) the activated eco mode of the machine.193. In a parallel connection of two identical batteries, the voltage of such a system is:
a) the product of the voltages of individual batteries,
b) equal to the voltage of a single battery,
c) the sum of the voltages of individual batteries.194. In a series connection of two identical batteries, the voltage of such a system is:
a) the sum of the voltages of individual batteries,
b) equal to the voltage of a single battery,c) the product of the voltages of individual batteries.195. Fuses in the electrical installation of the machine protect it against the effects of:
a) low voltage,b) high temperature,
c) short circuits and overloads.
196. One of the elements of the electrical system protecting the motor from seizing is:
a) main fuse,b) speed controller,
c) engine oil pressure sensor.
197. Gel batteries, which are elements of the electrical system, do not require:
a) charging with a rectifier,
b) electrolyte replenishment,
c) replacement in case of housing damage.198. Electrical systems of machines and devices should be equipped with a device that causes emergency stop in at least the quantity of:
a) one device causing emergency stop, in accordance with the European machinery directive,
b) three devices causing emergency stop, in accordance with the European machinery directive,c) two devices causing emergency stop placed on both sides of the machine, in accordance with the European machinery directive.199. The emergency stop device of the machine is an element of:
a) fuel system,b) drive system,
c) electrical system.
200. A part of the drilling equipment used to transmit rotational motion from the drilling table to the drill string is:
a) universal joint,b) kinematic triangle,
c) coupler.
201. In conditions of limited ventilation, the drive used in the anchor drilling rig should be:
a) hybrid,
b) electric,
c) hydrokinetic.202. If bentonite or polymers have been added to the drilling fluid, the system should be flushed with clean water before leaving the drilling rig:
a) drive,b) rod feeder,
c) drilling.
203. The working tool of the drilling rig is:
a) drilling rods,b) drive shafts,
c) drilling heads.
204. Anchor drilling rigs without an integrated drive can be powered:
a) using generators,
b) with hydraulic power supplies,
c) manually.205. The main parameters of the internal combustion engine affecting work efficiency are:
a) compression ratio, displacement,
b) torque, rotational speed,
c) type of carburetor, type of ignition system.206. The crankshaft-piston system of the internal combustion engine is designed to:
a) convert the reciprocating motion of the piston into the rotational motion of the crankshaft,
b) ensure the effective operation of the clutch,c) convert mechanical energy into hydraulic energy.207. The lubrication system in the internal combustion engine:
a) provides regulation of the rotational speed and reduces engine vibrations during operation,b) is responsible for removing hazardous substances generated in the combustion process of the mixture,
c) is responsible for the proper lubrication of the moving elements of the engine that work together.
208. The engine timing system is used for:
a) damping noise and minimizing engine vibrations during operation,
b) controlling the filling of the combustion chamber with air or fuel-air mixture and controlling the emptying of this chamber of exhaust gases,
c) ensuring the optimal composition of the fuel-oil-air mixture for combustion.209. Systems present in internal combustion engines include, among others:
a) exhaust system, pneumatic system, closed system,b) hydraulic system, intake system,
c) crankshaft-piston system, fuel system, cooling system.
210. The low-pressure part of the fuel system of a diesel engine is:
a) fuel tank, supply pump, filters, fuel lines,
b) fuel tank and injectors,c) fuel lines, high-pressure pump, common rail.211. The element controlling the flow of coolant in the so-called "large circuit" is:
a) thermosiphon,
b) thermostat,
c) thermocouple.212. An intercooler is:
a) another name for the engine coolant radiator,
b) an air cooler for turbocharged engines,
c) a device for burning solid particles in exhaust gases.213. DPF filter:
a) is a precise cabin filter protecting the operator during work in high dust conditions,
b) is a dry particulate filter responsible for capturing soot from exhaust gases,
c) is used to reduce NOx (nitrogen oxides) emissions.214. The frequency and scope of periodic maintenance of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam:
a) are included in the IBWR documentation,b) is determined by the owner of the machine/technical device,
c) are included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine.
215. The operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device is:
a) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by the health and safety services on the construction site,
b) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device,
c) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device, which includes among others the IBWR.216. The operator of the machine/technical device you are taking the exam for is not allowed to:
a) check the technical condition of the machine/device during operation,
b) use the machine/device for purposes other than intended,
c) make any repairs or maintenance.217. A symptom of too low a level of hydraulic oil may be:
a) uneven operation of the diesel engine,b) loud operation of the starter,
c) "jerky" intermittent movement of hydraulic actuators.
218. If the warning light for too low engine oil pressure comes on, the operator:
a) should stop working and turn off the engine,
b) may continue working if the hydraulic system is functioning properly,c) does not have to take any action.219. The operating and maintenance manual for the machine/device:
a) is used to record information about faults,
b) contains, among other things, information about hazards when operating the machine/device,
c) is provided by the owner or user of the machine.220. The CE Declaration of Conformity is a document:
a) confirming that the product was manufactured in the countries of the European Union,b) issued by institutions that test machines for resistance to weather conditions,
c) in which the manufacturer confirms that their product meets all applicable EU requirements regarding safety, health protection, and environmental protection.
221. Information regarding the use of personal protective equipment and ways to reduce the occupational risk the operator can find:
a) in the service book,
b) in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device,
c) in the CE Declaration of Conformity.222. The operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device:
a) is developed by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device or the entity that places the machine/technical device on the market,
b) is created by institutions that conduct testing and accreditation of prototypes of machines/technical devices before allowing them for serial production,c) is created by the construction manager based on information from the manufacturer.223. The operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device:
a) should be located in the office along with the company's documentation and be available in case of inspection,
b) should be located in the machine or with the technical device, treated as part of the machine/technical device and be available at any time,
c) does not matter where it is located, the most important thing is that the owner of the machine has it in case of resale of the machine.224. Identification data of the machine/technical device:
a) should be noted on the inner side of the protective helmet assigned to the given machine/technical device,b) due to their importance are always printed in red,
c) are located on the nameplate of the machine/technical device, additionally they may be in the marking places described in the manual.
225. To minimize the risk of malfunction of the machine/technical device the operator should:
a) regularly visually assess the condition of the machine/technical device and report any noticed irregularities,
b) perform maintenance activities only when the machine/technical device stops working,c) use the machine/technical device until the failure becomes serious.226. After installing the power supply cables and starting the generator in the portable technical device, the operator should:
a) increase the pressure in the cables to the maximum working value and test the device under full load,b) test the maximum fuel flow and lock the hydraulic valves,
c) check the operation of the levers and valves and the water flow from the tool tip.
227. After each disassembly and reassembly of the power supply cables in the portable technical device, it is necessary to:
a) check the condition of the hydraulic connections and check the operation at idle,
b) perform a maximum load test of the cables and check the pressure condition in the power supply cables,c) ensure that the hydraulic pressure is raised to the maximum and the cables are properly insulated.228. Breaking in a machine during the initial period of operation is:
a) the stage of the machine's operation without load,
b) the process of achieving optimal clearances and even wear of parts,
c) an intensive test of the machine under full load.229. The operator uses the operating and maintenance manual of the machine or technical device to:
a) record the hours worked and fuel consumption by the machine,b) record all faults of the machine or technical device noticed during operation,
c) learn the technical specifications, safety rules, and methods of repairing faults.
230. The service part of the operating and maintenance manual of the machine or technical device includes:
a) a detailed description of the construction and operation of all elements of the machine/device,
b) instructions regarding, among others, controlling the machine/device,
c) a catalog of spare parts.231. The operating and maintenance manual must always be present with the machine/technical device because:
a) its absence may be the reason for the machine being deemed unfit for work by the OHS inspector,
b) it minimizes the risk of it being lost,c) it is essential for periodic technical inspections.232. The SAE designation on oil refers to:
a) the viscosity of engine oil, that is, its ability to flow and lubricate,
b) the multi-season qualification of the oil,c) the pressure of engine oil.233. Oil with the symbol SAE 15W-40 means that:
a) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40,
b) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 15W, and at positive temperatures of summer oil class SAE 40,
c) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 15W.234. Oil with the symbol SAE 10W-30 means that:
a) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W,
b) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W, and at positive temperatures of summer oil class SAE 30,
c) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 30.235. The symbol SAE 10W-30 means:
a) hydraulic oil with specified parameters,
b) multi-season engine oil with specified parameters,
c) a mixture of engine oil and hydraulic oil.236. Engine oil with the symbol SAE 5W-40 means that:
a) at negative temperature it has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40,
b) at negative temperature it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 5W, and at positive temperature of summer oil class SAE 40,
c) at positive temperature it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 5W.
237. The symbol of the warning light shown in the graphic means:
a) low engine oil level,
b) low coolant level,c) low engine oil pressure.
238. The symbol of the warning light shown in the graphic means:
a) low engine oil pressure,
b) low coolant level,c) low fuel level.
239. The symbol of the light shown means:
a) engine oil filter,b) hydraulic oil,
c) engine oil.
240. The symbol of the light shown means:
a) engine oil level,
b) engine coolant level,c) hydraulic oil level.241. Oils with designations 70W, 85W, 80W-90 are:
a) gear oils,
b) brake oils,c) engine oils.242. In the case of the need to dismantle the cover/protection to perform maintenance, it is not allowed to:
a) record such a fact in the documentation,
b) start working with the device without installing the cover/protection,
c) reinstall the cover/protection.243. The lighting of the battery charging indicator signals to the operator of the construction machine a failure of:
a) the battery switch,
b) the V-belt and/or alternator,
c) the starter.244. The operator's seat cannot be adjusted when:
a) the seat is turned backwards,
b) the machine is in motion,
c) the engine is not started.245. If during daily technical maintenance before work the operator notices that one of the windows in the cabin is cracked, then:
a) he can start work if it is not the front window,b) he can start work provided that the window is only cracked and has not "fallen out",
c) he should not start work.
246. Before starting work, the operator should:
a) install sun protection covers on windows,
b) clean the windows by removing snow, ice, and other contaminants,
c) open the windows for better communication.247. When changing hydraulic oils, one should:
a) use any type of oil,b) always use only biodegradable oils,
c) use only types of oils recommended by the machine manufacturer.
248. To ensure the technical efficiency of the working machine, one should:
a) follow technical service and maintenance according to the operating and maintenance instructions,
b) use the machine/technical device without exceeding 50% of the permissible load,c) use the machine/technical device only under full load.249. At the construction site, empty containers of lubricants, oil filters, and used oils should be:
a) placed in a properly marked container for hazardous waste,
b) thrown into any waste container,c) thrown into a mixed waste container.250. Stickers (pictograms) located on the machine/technical device serve to:
a) convey important information about safety and the use of the machine/technical device,
b) indicate places where one can stay without any risk,c) inform about the prohibition of approaching the machine/technical device.251. Grease points in the machine should be serviced:
a) always after 10 hours of operation,
b) according to the operating and maintenance manual of the machine,
c) during all breaks in work.252. Engine oil with parameters 5W-50 is:
a) only summer oil,b) only winter oil,
c) multi-season oil.
253. Before starting work on a new type of machine/technical device, the operator should:
a) familiarize themselves with the operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device,
b) perform a test run,c) conduct a periodic inspection.254. OTC service is:
a) temporary technical service,
b) daily technical service,
c) round-the-clock technical service.255. The basic types of services are:
a) daily, periodic, warehouse, transport service,
b) round-the-clock, multi-season, annual, technological service,c) visual, active, passive service.256. Batteries, when starting a machine using a supporting battery, should be connected:
a) in series,
b) in parallel,
c) crosswise.257. In the case of electrolyte loss caused by spillage through a cracked battery casing, one should:
a) add electrolyte to the proper level and charge the battery,b) add demineralized water to a level 10 mm above the upper edges of the plates,
c) secure the leakage area in terms of environmental protection, and then replace the battery.
258. The activities performed by the operator as part of daily maintenance during operation are:
a) auditory control of the machine's operation and observation of indicators,
b) replenishing operating fluids and daily lubrication,c) cleaning the machine.259. If the manufacturer has provided for operational run-in, it should be carried out:
a) with maximum load,b) without load,
c) with the recommended load specified in the operating and maintenance instructions for the machine/technical device.
260. When loading the machine onto the transport vehicle, the operator should:
a) approach at a speed of at least 5 [km/h],
b) know the permissible angle of inclination of the loading ramps for the given machine,
c) know the maximum speed allowed for the given transport vehicle.261. The person responsible for the placement and securing of the machine on the transport vehicle is:
a) machine operator,b) owner or person responsible for machines in the company,
c) carrier (e.g. driver).
262. When storing the machine, one must ensure that:
a) there are no leaks of operating fluids,
b) no documents of the machine are left in the cabin,c) the machine is positioned facing the exit.263. Securing the machine during storage time involves:
a) disassembling all filters and protecting them from moisture,b) filling the hydraulic oil tank to the top,
c) cleaning the machine of dirt and corrosion.
264. The rods of hydraulic cylinders, during technical maintenance of the stored machine, should be:
a) disassembled and cleaned,
b) protected against corrosion,
c) taken apart and the seals replaced.265. When loading the machine onto the transport vehicle:
a) assistance from a second person is recommended only when loading onto a low-loader trailer,
b) assistance from a second person is recommended,
c) the operator should drive onto the transport vehicle independently.266. The recommended way to load heavy working machines onto low-loader trailers is:
a) loading using other machines,
b) mechanized loading from the front ramp,
c) loading on ropes.267. During longer storage of the machine, the fuel tank should be:
a) filled to the top to prevent condensation of water vapor inside the tank,
b) filled to 1/3 of its capacity and left open,c) empty to avoid fire hazards.268. During daily operation of the machine, the condition of should be checked:
a) tools and equipment,
b) connections and tightness of the hydraulic system,
c) the working pressure value in the hydraulic system.269. If the machine's engine has not been running for a long time, during daily operation you should:
a) start the engine and gently increase the RPM to reach the operating temperature faster,
b) check the oil level and other operating fluids,
c) replace the fuel pre-filter.270. Information regarding faults, their codes, and methods of removal can be found in the document titled:
a) operating and maintenance manual,
b) daily report,c) construction machine book.271. The correct order of connecting the auxiliary battery to the discharged battery in the machine is as follows:
a) negative terminal of the battery in the machine, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, machine frame,b) machine frame, positive terminal of the battery in the machine, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery,
c) positive terminal of the battery in the machine, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, machine frame.
272. In case of electrolyte loss in the battery, one should:
a) refill it with distilled or demineralized water,
b) refill it with DOT-3 fluid,c) refill it with water other than distilled.273. Checking the charge state of the starting battery 12 [V] by "sparking" poses a risk of:
a) electric shock from high voltage,
b) explosion of hydrogen escaping from the battery,
c) seizure of the alternator.274. The scope of daily technical service of the machine does not include:
a) checking the oil level in the engine,
b) checking and adjusting valve clearances,
c) checking the condition of the tires and tire pressure.275. When cleaning the radiator, to avoid damaging it, one should:
a) keep the compressed air nozzle at a proper distance from the radiator,
b) use sharp tools for cleaning,c) apply a strong stream of water under high pressure.276. The purpose of lubrication in working machines is:
a) to increase the engine speed,
b) to reduce friction,
c) to raise the temperature of cooperating elements.277. The most commonly used type of fuses in electrical installations of working machines is:
a) automatic fuses,
b) cartridge fuses,
c) residual current devices.278. The phenomenon of electrostatic discharge during refueling a machine can lead to:
a) short circuit of the electrical installation,
b) fire,
c) poisoning.279. In the case of parallel connection of two batteries with different rated voltages:
a) both batteries may discharge,b) thicker cables should be used than with batteries of the same rated voltages,
c) there may be an explosion of the battery with the lower rated voltage.
280. Correctly connecting a battery to a charger during charging is:
a) positive terminal of the battery to the negative terminal of the charger, negative terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger,b) positive terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger, negative terminal of the charger to the "ground" of the machine,
c) positive terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger, negative terminal of the battery to the negative terminal of the charger.
281. After connecting the battery, the terminals should be lubricated with:
a) graphite grease,
b) technical vaseline,
c) grease containing molybdenum disulfide.282. One of the goals of warehouse management is:
a) preparing the machine for transport for the future user,
b) protecting the machine from corrosion and other harmful factors during long-term storage,
c) repairing damaged machine components before the next season.283. If during daily technical service the operator notices a leak in the cooling system, they should:
a) top up the coolant and continue working,
b) report the leak and not use the machine until it is repaired,
c) organize fluid and top up to the minimum level if the leak is small.284. The level of coolant in the expansion tank should be checked:
a) only during periodic technical service,b) only in case of engine overheating,
c) during every daily technical service.
285. If the operator notices a hydraulic fluid leak during daily technical service, they should:
a) top up the oil and continue working,
b) report the leak and not use the machine until it is repaired,
c) reduce the RPM and continue working.286. The frequency of performing periodic technical service depends on:
a) the number of hours worked (engine hours),
b) the number of completed working cycles,c) the production date of the machine.287. If during daily technical service the operator notices a low level of engine oil, he should:
a) continue working if the level is not very low and the warning light is not on,
b) top up the oil to the appropriate level,
c) top up the level with any available oil, even if it is of a different type.288. A characteristic activity for seasonal technical service is:
a) replacing the coolant with one appropriate for the season,
b) checking the working pressure values of the hydraulic system,c) checking the charging voltage values.289. The basic service activities that should be performed before starting a diesel engine are:
a) bleeding the fuel system, checking the level of transmission oil, checking the starter,b) checking the oil level in the gearbox, checking the operation of the working system, checking the operation of the brakes,
c) checking the oil level in the engine, checking the coolant level, checking the condition of the air filter.
290. Activities performed as part of daily technical service (OTC) carried out during the operation of the machine include:
a) observing only the control and measurement indicators such as: oil pressure, engine temperature, hydraulic oil temperature,
b) observing control and measurement instruments and monitoring the proper operation of the machine using sight, hearing, and smell,
c) primarily conducting a sensory check of the proper functioning of the machine's working system.291. We distinguish, among others, the following types of technical services:
a) transport, reaching, storage, service-repair (SR), catalog,b) reaching, daily, periodic, seasonal, storage, emergency, night,
c) transport, reaching, daily, periodic, seasonal, storage.
292. We perform technical services for the purpose of:
a) maintaining the value of the machine or technical device at a constant, unchanged level,b) ensuring quiet operation of the machine or technical device,