Scrapers class I
Study mode
Question of 315
1. What is the minimum allowable distance of the machine from the reach of the wedge of the collapse?
a) 0.8 [m],b) 0.4 [m],
c) 0.6 [m].
2. The safe distance of the machine from the excavation is:
a) the reach of the wedge of the collapse + 0.6 [m],
b) the depth of the excavation + 0.6 [m],c) 1.6 [m].
3. Based on the presented table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] made in cohesive soils:
a) 1 [m],
b) 1.6 [m],
c) 2.6 [m].4. Based on the presented table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] made in fractured rocks:
a) 3.6 [m],
b) 4.6 [m],c) 2.6 [m].5. Based on the presented table, determine the safe minimum distance of the machine from the bottom of the excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] made in slightly cohesive soils:
a) 2.6 [m],b) 3.6 [m],
c) 3.1 [m]. Scrapers Class I
6. What is the minimum safe distance from the UPPER edge of the embankment that a machine can approach, given the following data: Soil category - I (dry sand), height of the embankment - h = 2 [m], horizontal distance between the upper and lower edges of the embankment - a = 2.5 [m]?
a) 3.6 [m],
b) 1.1 [m],
c) 0.6 [m].7. What is the minimum safe distance from the UPPER edge of the embankment that a machine can approach, given the following data: Soil category - II (slightly cohesive soils), height of the embankment - h = 4 [m], horizontal distance between the upper and lower edges of the embankment - a = 2.5 [m]?
a) 3.1 [m],
b) 5.6 [m],c) 0.6 [m].8. At what horizontal distance from the outermost wires for power lines with a rated voltage not exceeding 1 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 5 [m],
b) not less than 3 [m],
c) not less than 2 [m].9. At what horizontal distance from the outermost wires for power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 15 [m],
b) not less than 5 [m],
c) not less than 10 [m].10. At what horizontal distance from the outermost wires for power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permitted?
a) not less than 5 [m],
b) not less than 10 [m],
c) not less than 15 [m].11. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?
a) not less than 15 [m],
b) not less than 20 [m],c) not less than 10 [m].12. At what distance measured horizontally from the outermost conductors for power lines with a rated voltage above 110 [kV] is the operation of a machine or technical device permissible?
a) not less than 30 [m],
b) not less than 15 [m],c) not less than 10 [m].13. Is it possible to organize workstations in the danger zone under overhead power lines?
a) no, never,
b) yes, but only after meeting additional requirements,
c) yes, always.
14. What is the safe distance X for the operation of a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [V]?
a) not less than 5 [m],
b) not less than 3 [m],
c) not less than 30 [m].15. What is the safe distance X for the operation of a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 1 [kV] but not exceeding 15 [kV]?
a) not less than 5 [m],
b) not less than 15 [m],c) not less than 10 [m].16. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?
a) no less than 15 [m],
b) no less than 10 [m],
c) no less than 30 [m].17. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]?
a) no less than 15 [m],
b) no less than 10 [m],
c) no less than 5 [m].18. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 30 [kV] but not exceeding 110 [kV]?
a) no less than 50 [m],b) no less than 30 [m],
c) no less than 15 [m].
19. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage above 15 [kV] but not exceeding 30 [kV]?
a) no less than 10 [m],
b) no less than 30 [m],c) no less than 15 [m].20. What is the safe distance X for operating a machine or technical device near overhead power lines with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]?
a) no less than 40 [m],
b) no less than 30 [m],
c) no less than 3 [m].21. Work in the danger zone (overhead high voltage power line):
a) may be carried out provided that the work manager's consent has been obtained,b) may not be carried out under any circumstances under electric lines in the danger zone,
c) may be carried out provided that the line has been disconnected from the voltage, the work is performed in a zone limited by groundings and at least one grounding is visible from the work site.
22. The operator is to perform work at a distance X from the active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [V]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 5 [m],
b) 2 [m],c) 1 [m].23. The operator is to perform work at a distance X from the active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 20 [kV]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 5 [m],b) 3 [m],
c) 15 [m].
24. The operator is to perform work at a distance X from the active overhead power line with a rated voltage of 400 [kV]. He can start work if this distance is:
a) 15 [m],b) 5 [m],
c) 50 [m].
25. If the injured person has a detectable pulse but is not breathing, then:
a) the airways should be cleared and artificial respiration started,
b) cardiac massage should be performed,c) he should not be touched.26. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, one should primarily:
a) provide assistance to those in life-threatening situations,
b) distance oneself from the accident scene to call a doctor,c) give injured persons medication.27. When providing first aid to victims of an accident, one should primarily:
a) take care of one's own safety,
b) provide assistance to those in life-threatening situations,c) distance oneself from the accident scene to call a doctor.28. The obligation to provide first aid to accident victims rests with:
a) only those with medical training,
b) everyone, as one can always perform part of the rescue tasks,
c) everyone, but there is always a risk of criminal liability for mistakes made.29. The accident victim regained consciousness after a few minutes and wants to go home. In such a situation, one should:
a) allow her to go home, recommending a visit to a doctor,b) give her something to drink and pain relief medication,
c) persuade her to stay and call for medical help.
30. First aid in a situation where a foreign body has entered the eye of the injured person consists of:
a) rinsing with clean water directing the stream from the nose outward from the eye,
b) rinsing the eye with eye drops,c) rinsing with distilled water directing the stream towards the inside of the eye.31. The injured person cut their leg on an unsecured sharp object. Providing first aid in this situation is:
a) using sterile gauze, wrapping the wound with a bandage,
b) sticking a plaster directly on the wound,c) using a tourniquet.32. Suspecting spinal injury in a person who has fallen from a height and is conscious, one should:
a) seat them in a semi-reclining position,b) lay them in the recovery position,
c) not move them and wait for medical services to arrive.
33. To move away from the place where the electric wire has been broken and the area is live, one should:
a) quickly step away from the source of electric shock, lifting feet high,
b) leave the place slowly, taking small steps, trying to maintain continuous contact of feet with the ground,
c) run as fast as possible to a place that we assess as safe.34. First aid in the case of a first-degree burn is:
a) pouring cold water on the burned area,
b) applying ointment to the burned area,c) applying greasy cream to the burned area.35. During work, a high-voltage power line was broken, resulting in a colleague being electrocuted. In this situation, the correct behavior is:
a) approach the injured person to provide first aid,b) call other colleagues for help with the injured person,
c) turn off the power source as quickly as possible.
36. We perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation until:
a) 10 minutes have passed,
b) we have determined that the victim has started breathing and circulation has returned,
c) the fire department arrives and secures the area.37. Immediate action in the case of severe bleeding from an injured upper limb includes:
a) disinfecting the wound with salicylic alcohol,
b) applying a dressing, directly compressing the bleeding site, and elevating the limb,
c) lowering the limb below heart level.38. In the case of a nosebleed, one should:
a) lay the victim on their back,
b) lean the bleeding person's head forward, pinch the nostrils,
c) tilt the head back and place a cold compress on the neck.39. The first step in dealing with a victim of carbon monoxide poisoning in a closed room is:
a) assessing ABC,
b) the quickest possible evacuation of the victim from that room,
c) conducting a preliminary examination.40. First aid during seizures caused by an epileptic attack consists of:
a) seating the victim in a semi-sitting position and giving them something to drink,b) placing a wooden object in the victim's mouth to prevent biting the tongue,
c) protecting the victim's head from injuries.
41. In case of suspected spinal injury in the cervical section in a conscious person, one should:
a) seat the injured person in a chair with a high back,b) place the injured person in a lateral position,
c) not allow the injured person to move their head.
42. The most important thing when a person is buried under earth, sand, or gravel is:
a) notifying the family,
b) locating the injured person,
c) waiting for the arrival of the ambulance.43. First aid for a person with a metal rod embedded in their lower leg involves calling for help and:
a) securing the rod to prevent movement,
b) moving the rod to check if the artery has been damaged,c) removing the embedded rod.44. The indication for using an AED defibrillator is:
a) lack of detectable breath and pulse in the injured person,
b) severe chest pain,c) severe dizziness.45. During the operation of a machine/technical device, the prohibited actions for which you are taking the exam are:
a) changing the working tool,b) performing daily technical service (OTC),
c) making structural changes to the machine/technical device.
46. During the operation of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam, the prohibited activities are:
a) cleaning the machine/technical device using gasoline or solvents whose vapors can create flammable/explosive gas mixtures with air,
b) cleaning the machine/technical device using a product in accordance with the operating and maintenance instructions,c) refueling the machine/technical device from a canister.47. When performing earthworks with the machine for which you are taking the exam, it is unacceptable to:
a) have people within a distance greater than the sum of the maximum reach of the working tool plus 6 meters,b) have people near the machine during technical maintenance,
c) have people within the working range of the machine's working tool.
48. When performing work, it is unacceptable to:
a) work near an active power line with a rated voltage of 20 [kV] at a distance of 15 [m],b) work near an active power line with a rated voltage of 10 [kV] at a distance of 10 [m],
c) work near active overhead power lines at a distance less than specified by regulations.
49. The machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam may only be operated by:
a) any adult person with technical education and a driver's license of the appropriate category,b) a person with written confirmation of completing a course in the form of a plastic card,
c) a person who has completed training and obtained a positive result in the test conducted by the commission appointed by the Łukasiewicz Research Network – Warsaw Institute of Technology.
50. The rights to operate machines/technical devices for which you are taking the exam are issued by:
a) Łukasiewicz Research Network - Warsaw Institute of Technology (LRN - WIT),
b) Office of Technical Inspection (UTN),c) County Office appropriate for the address of the person applying for the rights.51. Permissions to operate machines/technical devices for which you are taking the exam:
a) are valid for 5 years from the date of issue,b) are valid for 10 years from the date of issue,
c) are valid indefinitely.
52. A person holding permissions to operate: "Class I Scrapers" can operate based on them:
a) all scrapers and bulldozers with an engine power of up to 110 [kW],
b) all scrapers, but this does not grant permissions for any other machines/technical devices,
c) all scrapers and graders.53. An employee operating a machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam can start work provided that:
a) the machine/technical device has a valid UDT inspection,
b) they have permissions to operate this type of machine/technical device,
c) they have a valid category D driving license.54. In the event of a threat to life, health, property, or the environment caused by a malfunction of the machine/technical device, the operator:
a) continues working, but at the end of the shift makes an appropriate entry in the maintenance book,
b) immediately stops work and informs their supervisor of this fact,
c) continues working, but at the end of the shift informs the supervisor of the situation that has occurred.55. Lifting and transporting people using working equipment:
a) is always prohibited,
b) is possible, but only outside the public road area,c) requires the consent of the construction manager.56. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam has the right to refuse to work when:
a) has the required personal protective equipment,b) there is an overhead power line with a rated voltage of 110 [kV] at a distance of 35 meters,
c) this work requires special psychophysical fitness, and his psychophysical condition does not ensure its safe execution and poses a threat to others.
57. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is obliged to stop work when:
a) has the required personal protective equipment,
b) the work he is performing poses an immediate threat to the health or life of others,
c) there is an overhead power line at a distance of 35 meters.58. The employee operating the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam is obliged to:
a) always have a category B driving license,
b) comply with the provisions of the operating and maintenance instructions for the machine/technical device,
c) independently perform all current repairs of the machine/technical device.59. The person directly responsible for the safe operation of the machine for which you are taking the exam is:
a) the machine operator,
b) the construction manager,c) the owner of the machine.60. The operator's book and qualifications for the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam are issued by:
a) The Office of Technical Inspection (UDT),
b) The Łukasiewicz Research Network - Warsaw Institute of Technology,
c) The Transport Technical Inspection (TDT).61. The obligation to use personal protective equipment:
a) does not apply on hot days,b) results only from internal regulations,
c) results from the operating and maintenance instructions and health and safety regulations.
62. An employee who witnesses an accident at work:
a) it is enough to notify the supervisor,b) is obliged to assist the victims and then immediately leave the accident site,
c) is obliged to assist the victims, notify the supervisor, and if necessary secure the accident site.
63. What elements of the machine, for which you are taking the exam, protect the operator in case of the machine tipping over:
a) machine seat,b) certified safety helmet and reflective vest,
c) ROPS type machine cabin and safety belts.
64. In the event of loss of stability by a machine equipped with a ROPS type cabin, the operator should:
a) try to leave the cabin as quickly as possible (before the machine tips over),b) quickly turn left and raise the working equipment as high as possible,
c) maintain a seated position while holding on tightly to the steering wheel or other stable elements in the cabin.
65. In the event of loss of stability by a machine equipped with a ROPS type cabin, the operator should:
a) turn on the warning/emergency lights,b) immediately jump out of the cabin,
c) remain in the cabin.
66. The danger zone is defined as:
a) a place where there are threats to health and life of people,
b) a place where employees must only wear protective helmets,c) a place where work requiring specialized equipment takes place, and the presence of people is only allowed at night.67. The area that the operator should check and secure before starting work with a machine/technical device (because there are threats to health and life of people) is called:
a) an area of increased risk,b) a dead zone,
c) a danger zone.
68. During the charging of batteries, a gas with very explosive properties is released. This gas is:
a) methane,b) ethane,
c) hydrogen.
69. Firefighting foam can be used to extinguish fires of group:
a) C and D,
b) A and B,
c) only C.70. Improper use of a snow extinguisher can result in:
a) fainting,b) burns from the extinguisher elements,
c) frostbite caused by the extinguishing agent.
71. Water, fire blanket, powder extinguisher, carbon dioxide, sand are extinguishing agents that we will use to extinguish:
a) solid materials,
b) oils,c) liquids.72. We can call sorbents:
a) fire blankets,
b) materials made of natural or synthetic substances that absorb liquids,
c) petroleum-derived substances.73. Group A fires concern:
a) flammable gases,
b) solid materials whose normal combustion occurs with the formation of glowing coals, e.g. wood, paper, etc.,
c) flammable liquids.74. Group B fires concern:
a) flammable gases,b) metals, e.g. magnesium, sodium, potassium, aluminum, titanium, etc.,
c) liquids and solid materials that melt, e.g. plastics, fuels, oils, etc..
75. Group C fires concern:
a) solid materials,b) flammable liquids,
c) gases, e.g. methane, propane, acetylene, hydrogen.
76. Seeing such a pictogram informs you about:
a) danger zone,b) a larger number of people in a given area,
c) a gathering place during evacuation.
77. While working, you noticed a sign marked 'Zone 0'. It informs about:
a) a space where an explosive atmosphere exists,
b) a zone of a certain fire hazard category,c) a zone of fire load in a building.
78. The presented pictogram informs about:
a) a set of fire protection equipment,
b) the main power switch,c) an internal hydrant.
79. Seeing such a pictogram informs you about:
a) a gathering place during evacuation,
b) an emergency exit,
c) a place for first aid.
80. Seeing such a pictogram informs you about:
a) the location of the fire extinguisher,
b) the prohibition of using the fire extinguisher,c) high temperature affecting the fire extinguisher.81. You see a person whose clothing is on fire and who is running away in panic. Your reaction is:
a) you try to stop him, lay him on the ground and start extinguishing,
b) you tell him to wait in an upright position for the arrival of rescue services,c) you wave your arms or outer covering strongly next to him to extinguish the burning clothing.82. Electrical devices and installations can be extinguished using:
a) powder or snow extinguishers,
b) foam extinguishers,c) water.83. Burning fuel can be extinguished using:
a) low-octane ethylene,b) water,
c) powder, foam or snow extinguishers.
84. Clothing on a person that is on fire can be extinguished using:
a) water mist extinguisher or fire blanket,
b) plastic material,c) snow or powder extinguisher.85. What obligations does an employee have when they decide to refrain from work due to health and safety regulations?
a) They should organize work for others,
b) They must immediately notify their supervisor,
c) They have no obligations in this situation.86. How can the operator prevent hazards in the workplace?
a) By using personal protective equipment to minimize risk,
b) By ignoring health and safety rules,c) By not reporting faults in machines.87. It is not permissible to position the workplace directly under active overhead power lines or at a horizontal distance from the outermost conductors of less than:
a) for lines: 1 [kV] - 3 [m], 15 [kV] - 5 [m], 30 [kV] - 10 [m], 110 [kV] - 15 [m], 400 [kV] - 30 [m],
b) for lines: 1 [kV] - 1 [m], 15 [kV] - 3 [m], 30 [kV] - 5 [m], 110 [kV] - 10 [m],c) for all voltages - 1 [m] from the power line.88. How does the operator know what personal protective equipment is required for a given machine/technical device?
a) Information about the necessary personal protective equipment is included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine,
b) The choice of personal protective equipment depends on the opinion of colleagues at work,c) The operator must independently choose the appropriate protective measures.89. The operator should refuse to perform a task when:
a) the work requires familiarization with the location of underground and above-ground utilities,
b) the work is inconsistent with the purpose of the machine/technical device,
c) the work is being performed at night.90. The operator can prevent hazards during the operation of the machine/technical device by:
a) limiting the use of personal protective equipment,b) inattention and routine,
c) adhering to health and safety rules and following the operating instructions.
91. Which of the following situations is unacceptable during the use of a machine/technical device?
a) Operating the machine without supervision,b) Reporting faults directly to the supervisor,
c) Unauthorized persons being in the danger zone caused by the operation of the machine/technical device.
92. An accident at work is considered to be:
a) a long-term event related to the work performed, caused by an internal reason, resulting in equipment damage,
b) a sudden event related to the work performed, caused by an external reason, resulting in injury or death,
c) a sudden event unrelated to the work performed, caused by an external reason, resulting in injury or death.93. A fatal accident at work is considered to be an accident in which death occurred:
a) more than 6 months after the date of the accident,
b) within 6 months from the date of the accident,
c) only at the moment of the accident.94. It is prohibited to:
a) allow unauthorized persons within the reach of the machine's operation and work on slopes exceeding the permissible incline,
b) operate the machine after completing training and obtaining the appropriate qualifications,c) report noticed faults to the supervisor before starting work.95. When getting on and off the machine, it is prohibited to:
a) use the control lever as support,
b) face the machine when getting on and off,c) intensively use the handrails and steps.96. Occupational health and safety regulations require:
a) to perform a warranty inspection of the working machine before one year from its purchase,
b) to secure the working machine during breaks in its operation against accidental activation by unauthorized persons,
c) to scrap the old working machine within the time specified in its operating and maintenance instructions, while adhering to the requirements for the disposal of hazardous materials.97. In the event of a person being electrocuted:
a) it is recommended to use any tools to disconnect the power, regardless of their actual purpose,
b) do not touch the injured person until the power source is disconnected,
c) immediate resuscitation should be started, regardless of whether the power source has been disconnected.98. In the event of a person being buried under earth or sand:
a) they should be dug out as quickly as possible, if it is safe for the person undertaking the rescue action,
b) we always calmly wait for rescue services - any attempt to help would be too dangerous,c) they should be dug out as quickly as possible regardless of one's own safety - it is about their life.99. Seeing a person whose clothes are on fire, the first thing to do is:
a) use a fire extinguisher, preferably a snow one, to extinguish the burning clothing, and then try to quickly tear off the melted clothing,
b) cut off the air supply by rolling the injured person or wrapping them in a fire blanket, wet clothing, or a wet blanket,
c) leave the injured person standing to facilitate air access and extinguish the flames faster.100. If during earthworks unidentified objects are discovered, then:
a) a danger zone with a radius of 6 [m] should be designated, beyond which normal work can continue,
b) further work is interrupted and the supervising person of the earthworks is notified,
c) earthworks can continue if a distance of at least 1 [m] from such an object is maintained.101. In the case of finding an unexploded ordnance during earthworks, one should:
a) stop work, remove other workers from the danger zone, notify superiors, and secure the area,
b) ignore the unexploded ordnance if it does not pose an immediate threat,c) try to carefully remove the unexploded ordnance from the workplace and continue working.102. The wedge of soil collapse:
a) occurs when the slope angle exceeds the natural slope angle of the soil,
b) occurs only when the soil is in a frozen state,c) is the area around the working machine extending a distance of 6 [m] beyond its farthest reach.103. The reach of the soil collapse wedge:
a) depends on the operating speed of the machine and the efficiency of the operator,
b) depends on the depth of the excavation and the category of the soil,
c) depends solely on the temperature of the soil.104. The angle of the natural slope is:
a) the angle at which the machine can be safely operated - it depends on the parameters of the given machine,b) the angle at which the soil will definitely collapse on its own - it depends solely on the temperature of that soil,
c) the maximum slope at which the soil can remain without collapsing - it depends, among other things, on the category of the soil.
105. The wedge of soil collapse:
a) is the space around the machine, dependent on the working speed of the machine and its weight,
b) occurs when the slope angle exceeds the natural slope angle of the soil - its reach depends on the type of soil and the depth of the excavation or the height of the slope,
c) is the zone where the soil becomes unstable - its reach depends solely on the depth of the excavation, the type of soil does not matter here.106. The angle of a natural slope is:
a) the inclination at which any embankment becomes unstable, regardless of the type of soil,
b) the maximum slope at which soil can remain without sliding - it depends on the type of soil, e.g. moisture, cohesiveness, and grain size,
c) the angle at which a machine can safely move on an embankment, regardless of the soil category.107. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is performed:
a) when the injured person is breathing but unconscious, with no contact,
b) when the injured person is not breathing and there is no detectable pulse. For a non-professional rescuer, lack of breathing is a sufficient basis to start resuscitation,
c) only in the case of fainting and minor injuries, to improve blood circulation.108. An employee has the right to refrain from performing work due to health and safety regulations, notifying their supervisor immediately when:
a) the working conditions do not pose a threat, but are too difficult for them,
b) the working conditions pose a direct threat to health or life,
c) the work they are performing has not been reported to the construction supervision.109. Physical factors generating hazards in the workplace are:
a) lack of or inadequate training for employees,b) lack of appropriate medical examinations for the employee,
c) spilled lubricants, oils, and fuels.
110. Working with a machine/device is not allowed when:
a) the second operator has not reported an upcoming inspection,b) its repair was carried out after dark,
c) it is malfunctioning.
111. Work near overhead power lines:
a) always requires double grounding of the line,b) always requires power to be turned off in the line,
c) is possible without meeting additional requirements provided that certain distances depending on the rated voltage of the line are maintained.
112. The operator is obliged to refuse to work if:
a) there is no construction manager or any other authorized person for supervision at the work site,
b) the working machine is defective,
c) they would have to work under power lines, and the voltage in them has been turned off and the line grounded.113. The danger zone from a machine/technical device is:
a) a place where the machine/device cannot be used,b) always the entire fenced construction site,
c) a place where there are hazards to health or life of people.
114. Accidents at work resulting from the poor technical condition of the working machine may involve, for example:
a) failure of the drive system,
b) injury to a limb, torso, or head,
c) damage to the equipment.115. Unacceptable behaviors are:
a) working after dark in a well-lit place, with full concentration of the operator,
b) working with a defective machine and working under the influence of alcohol,
c) performing daily maintenance of the machine after dark.116. General rules for safely getting on and off a machine are:
a) you can step down backwards from the machine, but only if the steps are slippery,b) using cables and levers as aids for getting on is permissible when the machine is turned off,
c) a person should face the machine, remember the "three-point support" rule, and use only specially made steps and handrails.
117. Basic employee responsibilities regarding occupational health and safety are:
a) not being late for work, finishing on time, confirming presence at work in the manner accepted by the employer,b) enforcing labor code regulations regarding their rights, including payment for overtime worked,
c) adhering to health and safety regulations, taking care of the condition of machines and tools, maintaining order in the workplace, and using personal protective equipment.
118. In the case of a person electrocuted, after disconnecting the power source, one should:
a) check the condition of the victim, and if necessary: call for help, clear the airways, perform resuscitation, and use an AED if available,
b) leave the victim alone if they have regained consciousness, without further actions,c) move the victim to another location as quickly as possible.119. When a person buried under earth or sand is partially dug out, one should:
a) focus on digging out the lower parts of the victim's body,b) quickly dig out the left arm to check for a pulse,
c) clear the airways as quickly as possible.
120. After extinguishing flames on a person with burns and calling for help, one should:
a) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes, previously removing any melted clothing,
b) cool the burned areas with cold water for 10-20 minutes, without removing any melted clothing,
c) use a snow extinguisher to cool the burn areas.121. If the operator notices faults that may prevent the proper operation of the machine, then:
a) ignore the faults if the machine is currently working properly,b) should continue working and repair the machine after completing the task,
c) is obliged to refuse to start the machine and report this fact to the supervisor.
122. Seeing such a pictogram you are informed about:
a) the location where an external automatic defibrillator is available,
b) the location for performing AED,c) the location where a first aid kit is available.123. Properly performed cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) consists of:
a) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 100-120 times per minute to a depth of 5–6 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 30 compressions (breaths are not mandatory),
b) connecting the external automatic defibrillator (AED) and following its instructions; CPR is not performed without AED,c) clearing the airways, then compressing the chest at a rate of 30-60 times per minute to a depth of 1–3 [cm] and performing 2 rescue breaths after every 15 compressions (breaths are mandatory).124. The abbreviation IBWR stands for:
a) Instruction for Non-Failure Work Performance,
b) Instruction for Safe Work Performance,
c) Instruction for Non-Failure Work Performance.125. Expand the abbreviation IBWR:
a) Instruction for Safe Work Performance,
b) Information on Safe Work Performance,c) Implementation of Non-Failure Work Performance.126. The Safe Execution of Construction Works Instruction is:
a) a document containing information regarding safety on the construction site,
b) a plan of the route in construction works,c) a document confirming qualifications for operating machines and technical devices in earthworks, construction, and road works.127. BIOZ plan means:
a) Health and Safety Plan,
b) Safe Health Protection Instruction Plan,c) Safety and Resource Specification Plan.128. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 4 [m],b) 1.6 [m],
c) 1 [m].
129. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 1 [m],
b) 1.5 [m],
c) 1.6 [m].130. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 1 [m],
b) 0.5 [m],
c) 1.6 [m].131. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 1.6 [m],
b) 1 [m],
c) 2 [m].132. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 2 [m],
b) 1.6 [m],c) 1 [m].133. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 2 [m],b) 1 [m],
c) 3 [m].
134. The reach of the wedge of the collapse for an excavation with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 3 [m],b) 2.6 [m],
c) 4 [m].
135. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for an excavation with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 1.6 [m],
b) 1 [m],c) 2.6 [m].136. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 2.1 [m],
b) 3.6 [m],c) 6.6 [m].137. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 2 [m],b) 4.6 [m],
c) 2.6 [m].
138. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category IV (cohesive) is:
a) 2 [m],
b) 1.1 [m],
c) 2.6 [m].139. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 1 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 2 [m],
b) 1.6 [m],
c) 2.6 [m].140. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 2 [m] for soils of category III (fractured rocks) is:
a) 4.6 [m],
b) 2.6 [m],
c) 2 [m].141. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 3 [m] for soils of category III (cracked rocks) is:
a) 3.6 [m],
b) 3 [m],c) 2.1 [m].142. The safe distance that a machine must maintain for a trench with a depth of h = 4 [m] for soils of category III (cracked rocks) is:
a) 2.6 [m],b) 4 [m],
c) 4.6 [m].
143. In a situation of danger, when the cabin doors cannot be opened:
a) the emergency exit provided by the manufacturer should be used,
b) the space after removing the floor panel can be used as an emergency exit,c) the cabin must not be left until help arrives.144. In the case of mechanical damage to the FOPS/ROPS cabin (e.g., denting of a cabin element) the operator:
a) can continue working if the cabin windows are intact,
b) should stop working and report the failure to the supervisor or the person responsible for machines in the company,
c) can repair the damage on their own without wasting time on downtime.145. In the case of mechanical damage to the FOPS/ROPS cabin (e.g., denting of a cabin element) the operator:
a) can repair such damage on their own, but only based on the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine,
b) cannot repair such damage on their own,
c) can always repair such damage on their own.146. If the seat belt is damaged, you should:
a) continue working and report the problem after finishing work,b) exercise special caution while performing work,
c) report the damage and not start working until the belt is repaired or replaced.
147. The operator must wear a safety helmet while working with the machine when:
a) working on demolition tasks using long booms,
b) working in a machine not equipped with a closed cabin,
c) frequently leaning out of the cabin while working.148. Entering and exiting the machine should be done:
a) sideways, being careful of the devices in the cabin,b) backwards to the machine, using a three-step ladder,
c) facing the machine, maintaining three points of contact.
149. Prohibited activities during the operation and servicing of the machine or technical device include:
a) using machines on rocky ground during heavy rain,
b) operating machines by individuals without the appropriate qualifications,
c) using machines with safety or signaling devices.150. The site for earthworks before starting should be:
a) permanently fenced,b) additionally compacted,
c) marked and designated.
151. In the case of ongoing earthworks, the designation of the danger zone consists of:
a) securing and marking the zone 6 [m] from the machine,
b) securing and marking the entire work area,
c) conducting work pointwise while maintaining the zone 6 [m].152. Visible underground infrastructure devices that provide preliminary insight into their course are most often:
a) abandoned road frames at the point of their crossing,
b) hydrant boxes, water shut-off boxes, manhole covers,
c) graphic symbols applied to the road surface.153. The operator can work without the need for prior loosening in soil:
a) category I,
b) category V-VIII,c) all categories above IV.154. Humus is:
a) the outer layer of soil rich in humus,
b) a deeper layer of earth, usually up to 1 [m] thick,c) a mineral used for ground stabilization.155. Soils, according to the degree of difficulty in their detachment, are divided into:
a) 16 categories,
b) 10 categories,c) 4 categories.156. The operator of the machine should know the category of the soil on which he works:
a) to know the requirements for operating the machine's chassis,
b) to calculate the safe distance for setting up the machine and the reach of the spoil wedge,
c) to be able to assess the depth of the excavation.157. The term: "performance of the earthworks machine" defines:
a) the effect of the machine's work over a unit of time,
b) the level of engine load during the machine's operation over a unit of time,c) the amount of fuel consumed by the machine per hour of operation.158. The performance of the earthworks machine can be expressed:
a) in pressure units [bar] or temperature [°C],
b) in volume or mass units per unit of time e.g. [m³/h], [t/h],
c) in speed or revolutions per unit of time e.g. [km/h], [rpm], [rev./s].159. When working with a grader, the loading box flap should be completely closed:
a) during transport,
b) after starting the cutting, so that the material does not fall out,c) just before finishing unloading.160. When working with a grader on soils of category II, III, and IV, the following cutting technique should be applied:
a) combing, which involves immersing the tool and gradually shallowing the cut layer,
b) surface, removing a layer of thickness 10-15 [cm] over a long section,c) uniform, maintaining the cutting depth without change over the entire length of the cut section.161. During the descent from a slope, the retarder:
a) stops the machine completely without the need to use the service brake,
b) should be activated to assist engine braking, but not as the only means of slowing down or stopping the machine,
c) is used only in neutral gear to reduce speed.162. The work of two graders in 'tandem' is used:
a) when the work requires transporting material over long distances,
b) when a single grader loses traction - then one grader pushes or pulls the other,
c) when the ground is cohesive and requires loosening before cutting.163. Filling the grader's loading box occurs:
a) by pouring material from a cooperating machine - from above through an open apron,b) by reversing the machine with the raised box and scooping material from the back of the machine,
c) by moving the machine forward and lowering the box with the cutting tool below ground level with the apron raised.
164. During the unloading of the grader:
a) the loading box tilts,
b) the apron closes,c) the loading box moves upward.165. The technique of surface cutting using a grader involves:
a) flat detachment of a thin layer of soil (about 10-15 [cm]) over longer sections, used in soils of categories I and II,
b) cyclic deepening of the cutting tool as the loading box fills,c) deepening the cutting tool every 1.5 [m] to a depth of about 20 [cm] and shallowing the cut section.166. When descending with a loaded scraper from a slope, one should not:
a) use the engine brake,b) carefully observe the surroundings, including the descent road,
c) descend in neutral gear.
167. A situation when the ground is cohesive and difficult to work with a scraper requires:
a) cooperation with a machine equipped with a ripper,
b) adding weight to the scraper to avoid wheel slipping,c) increasing the cutting depth by applying axial pressure.168. The loading box of the scraper is emptied:
a) gravitationally by dumping or by a movable rear wall,
b) by tilting the machine to the side at the unloading site,c) by tipping, raising the entire box upwards.169. In the coupling system of the scraper during the filling of the first machine:
a) both scrapers work simultaneously,
b) the second scraper pushes the first one,
c) the first scraper is pulled by the second one.170. It is possible to operate the machine with the cabin doors open:
a) always,b) only when the air temperature exceeds 25 [°C],
c) only if the operating and maintenance manual of the machine allows such possibility.
171. Disconnecting the working equipment with hydraulic drive from the quick coupler is related to:
a) zeroing the hydraulic system,
b) bleeding the hydraulic system,c) relieving pressure from the central lubrication system.172. The course of the underground infrastructure should be marked before starting the work to:
a) save time and reduce earthwork costs,b) enable quick movement of machines in any direction,
c) avoid the risk of damaging the network during work.
173. Scrapers are machines for:
a) flat detachment of soil with simultaneous transport to the installation site,
b) spreading aggregates to the designed thickness of the layer,c) scraping off remnants from working bulldozers.174. In soils above category IV, scrapers must cooperate with:
a) truck transport,b) single-bucket loaders,
c) ripper machines.
175. Which of the listed elements is not part of the hydraulic system:
a) starter, alternator,
b) hydraulic lock, hydraulic oil tank,c) pump, distributor, actuator.176. The hydraulic lock in a machine is:
a) a valve responsible for controlling the entire hydraulic system,
b) a valve protecting against uncontrolled movement of the element located in a given line,
c) the closure of the hydraulic oil inlet at its tank.177. The change of hydraulic oil pressure into mechanical movement is the responsibility of:
a) hydraulic distributor,
b) hydraulic actuator and hydraulic motor,
c) hydraulic pump system.178. Pressure in the hydraulic system is generated by:
a) hydraulic motor,b) hydraulic actuator,
c) hydraulic pump.
179. Directing the flow of hydraulic oil to individual systems is carried out by:
a) hydraulic lock,
b) hydraulic distributor,
c) relief valve.180. The safety valve protects the hydraulic system from:
a) excessive pressure increase,
b) overheating of hydraulic oil,c) air in the hydraulic system.181. The relief valve in a hydraulic system is responsible for:
a) limiting the maximum working pressure in a given circuit,
b) venting the system,c) maintaining a constant position of the working tool.182. If the pressure in the hydraulic system rises excessively, the excess oil will be directed to:
a) the hydraulic oil filter,
b) the hydraulic oil tank,
c) the distributor.183. The basic parameters that characterize an electric accumulator are:
a) rated voltage [V], resistance [Ω], power [W],b) rated voltage [V], power [W], mass [kg],
c) rated voltage [V], capacity [Ah], starting current [A].
184. Lead-acid batteries can be charged:
a) in any room,
b) in a place specifically designated for this purpose,
c) only in an air-conditioned room.185. The pressure in the tires should be adjusted to:
a) the requirements of the landowner,b) the preferences of the operator,
c) the values given in the operating and maintenance manual.
186. Uneven pressure in the tires:
a) does not affect the operation of the machine,
b) reduces the stability of the machine,
c) improves the driving properties of the machine.187. Hydraulic distributor:
a) converts mechanical energy into hydraulic energy,b) increases the torque in the side transmission,
c) directs the flow of hydraulic oil to the appropriate sections.
188. A hydraulic distributor is a device that:
a) distributes oil between the engine and the hydraulic system,b) distributes oil between the small circuit and the large circuit,
c) allows control of individual hydraulic sections of the machine.
189. A ROPS cabin in construction machines protects the operator from:
a) crushing in the event of the machine overturning,
b) dust in the operator's cabin,c) being hit by falling objects from above.190. A ROPS cabin in construction machines protects against:
a) the machine overturning,b) the machine falling from a slope and rolling over,
c) crushing the operator in the event of the machine overturning.
191. Differential mechanism:
a) allows for the differentiation of the rotational speed of the drive wheels working on a single axle,
b) regulates the flow of fluids in the differential system,c) allows for an increase in speed on straight sections.192. Joints in drive systems serve to:
a) reduce the rotational speed of the wheels,
b) transmit torque between shafts with inclined axes,
c) stabilize the machine on uneven terrain.193. The operation of cross joints in drive systems involves:
a) keeping them clean and regularly lubricated,
b) daily checking of clearances,c) checking the oil level in the joints as part of daily technical maintenance.194. The differential mechanism allows for the transmission of torque to the wheels:
a) while the wheels rotate at different speeds,
b) ensuring their rotation always at the same speeds,c) of two different axles.195. In vehicles with a differential mechanism when navigating turns:
a) the inner wheel rotates slower than the outer wheel,
b) the inner wheel rotates faster than the outer wheel,c) the load is transferred solely to the inner wheel.196. Drilling additional holes in the ROPS cabin structure is prohibited because:
a) it reduces the weight of the machine,
b) it causes a decrease in the strength of the structure,
c) it lowers the comfort of the operator's work.197. The box (container) of the wheeled scraper is equipped with:
a) a steering joint,b) an additional hydraulic tank,
c) a discharge system in the form of a sliding wall.
198. The skirt in the wheeled scraper serves the function of:
a) the front wall closing the material during transport,
b) the drive of the bucket conveyor,c) an additional protection for the tractor.199. The flow and direction of hydraulic fluid in the system are regulated by:
a) hydraulic valves,
b) hydraulic motors,c) hydraulic pumps.200. Components of the system, such as actuators and hydraulic motors, convert hydraulic energy into:
a) electrical energy,
b) mechanical energy,
c) pressure in the tank.201. The main components of the scraper coupling system are:
a) pins and mounting brackets,b) apron and bucket conveyor,
c) hitch and hydraulically controlled drawbar.
202. The function of the FOPS protective structure is:
a) protection of the operator from falling objects,
b) protection of the operator from the effects of exhaust gases and noise,c) protection of the operator from the consequences of the machine overturning.203. The FOPS protective structure must necessarily be used when:
a) performing work during which heavy elements may fall on the cabin (e.g., demolition work, in quarries, etc.),
b) underwater work,c) all earthworks.204. In a machine equipped with a ROPS or FOPS protective structure, there must exist and be used by the operator an additional safety system, which includes:
a) protective footwear, hearing protectors, respiratory protection,
b) seat belts,
c) safety helmet, protective footwear.205. The ROPS protective structure in a machine:
a) is not required when only qualified machine operators are employed,
b) is always required,
c) is not required when it is not technically possible, and there is a low risk of the machine overturning (possibility of support with a boom).206. Optimal shock and vibration damping of the operator's seat is ensured by:
a) rigidly setting the seat,
b) adjusting the seat to the weight of the operator,
c) as flexible adjustment of the seat as possible.207. The mandatory equipment for the operator to observe the area directly behind the machine is:
a) rear camera,
b) external mirror,
c) sound signal when reversing.208. Together with the operator in the machine's cabin, other people may ride if:
a) they have undergone health and safety training with the operator and there are a maximum of 2 people,
b) the manufacturer has installed an additional seat,
c) the machine is moving at a low speed.209. The most important element of the operator's cabin equipment from the perspective of his safety is:
a) seat belt,
b) mirror or camera,c) emergency STOP button.210. Mirrors and the reversing camera in the machine are used for:
a) improving the operator's visibility and increasing safety,
b) facilitating the maneuvering of the working equipment,c) checking the technical condition of the machine.211. In ROPS-type cabins, additional equipment can be installed independently, e.g., phone holders:
a) but this equipment must be permanently screwed to the cabin structure,b) remembering that installation is only possible on the cabin posts,
c) provided that there is no interference with the cabin structure.
212. A green flashing light placed on the machine cabin signals, among other things:
a) the machine's eco mode is activated,
b) the seat belts are properly fastened,
c) no operator in the cabin.213. In a parallel connection of two identical batteries, the voltage of such a system is:
a) equal to the voltage of a single battery,
b) the sum of the voltages of the individual batteries,c) the product of the voltages of the individual batteries.214. In a series connection of two identical batteries, the voltage of such a system is:
a) equal to the voltage of a single battery,
b) the sum of the voltages of the individual batteries,
c) the product of the voltages of the individual batteries.215. Fuses in the machine's electrical installation protect it against the effects of:
a) high temperature,
b) short circuits and overloads,
c) low voltage.216. One of the elements of the electrical system protecting the motor from seizing is:
a) speed controller,b) main fuse,
c) engine oil pressure sensor.
217. Gel batteries, which are elements of the electrical system, do not require:
a) electrolyte replenishment,
b) replacement in case of housing damage,c) charging with a rectifier.218. Electrical systems of machines and devices should be equipped with a device that causes emergency stop in at least the amount of:
a) two emergency stop devices placed on both sides of the machine, in accordance with the European machinery directive,
b) one emergency stop device, in accordance with the European machinery directive,
c) three emergency stop devices, in accordance with the European machinery directive.219. The emergency stop device of a machine is an element of:
a) drive system,b) fuel system,
c) electrical system.
220. The main parameters of an internal combustion engine affecting work efficiency are:
a) torque, rotational speed,
b) compression ratio, displacement,c) type of carburetor, type of ignition system.221. The crankshaft-piston system of the internal combustion engine is designed to:
a) convert mechanical energy into hydraulic energy,
b) convert the reciprocating motion of the piston into the rotational motion of the crankshaft,
c) ensure the effective operation of the clutch.222. The lubrication system in the internal combustion engine:
a) provides regulation of the rotational speed and reduces engine vibrations during operation,b) is responsible for removing hazardous substances generated in the combustion process of the mixture,
c) is responsible for the proper lubrication of the moving elements of the engine that work together.
223. The engine timing system is used for:
a) ensuring the optimal composition of the fuel-oil-air mixture for combustion,b) damping noise and minimizing engine vibrations during operation,
c) controlling the filling of the combustion chamber with air or fuel-air mixture and controlling the emptying of this chamber of exhaust gases.
224. Systems present in internal combustion engines include, among others:
a) crankshaft-piston system, fuel supply system, cooling system,
b) exhaust system, pneumatic system, closed system,c) hydraulic system, intake system.225. The low-pressure part of the fuel supply system of a diesel engine is:
a) fuel tank and injectors,b) fuel lines, high-pressure pump, common rail,
c) fuel tank, supply pump, filters, fuel lines.
226. The element controlling the flow of coolant in the so-called "large circuit" is:
a) thermosiphon,b) thermocouple,
c) thermostat.
227. An intercooler is:
a) an air cooler for turbocharged engines,
b) another name for the engine coolant radiator,c) a device for burning solid particles in exhaust gases.228. DPF filter:
a) is a precise cabin filter protecting the operator during work in high dust conditions,b) is used to reduce NOx (nitrogen oxides) emissions,
c) is a dry particulate filter responsible, among other things, for capturing soot from exhaust gases.
229. The frequency and scope of periodic maintenance of the machine/technical device for which you are taking the exam:
a) are included in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine,
b) is determined by the owner of the machine/technical device,c) are included in the IBWR documentation.230. The operating and maintenance manual for the machine/technical device is:
a) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by the health and safety services on the construction site,
b) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device issued by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device,
c) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the machine/technical device, which includes, among other things, IBWR.231. The operator of the machine/technical device you are taking the exam for is not allowed to:
a) make any repairs or maintenance,
b) use the machine/device for purposes other than intended,
c) check the technical condition of the machine/device while in operation.232. A symptom of too low a level of hydraulic oil may be:
a) uneven operation of the diesel engine,b) loud operation of the starter,
c) "jerky" intermittent movement of hydraulic actuators.
233. If the warning light for too low engine oil pressure comes on, the operator:
a) does not have to take any action,b) may continue working if the hydraulic system is functioning properly,
c) should stop working and turn off the engine.
234. The operating and maintenance manual for the machine/device:
a) is used to record information about faults,
b) includes information about hazards during the operation of the machine/device,
c) is provided by the owner or user of the machine.235. The CE Declaration of Conformity is a document:
a) issued by institutions that test machines for resistance to weather conditions,
b) in which the manufacturer confirms that their product meets all applicable EU safety, health, and environmental requirements,
c) confirming that the product was manufactured in the countries of the European Union.236. Information regarding the use of personal protective equipment and ways to reduce the occupational risk the operator can find:
a) in the service book,
b) in the operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device,
c) in the CE Declaration of Conformity.237. The operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device:
a) is created by institutions that conduct testing and accreditation of machine/technical device prototypes before allowing them for serial production,b) is created by the construction manager based on information from the manufacturer,
c) is developed by the manufacturer of the machine/technical device or the entity that introduces the machine/technical device to the market.
238. The operating and maintenance manual of the machine/technical device:
a) should be located in the machine or with the device, treated as part of the machine/technical device and be available at any time,
b) should be located in the office together with the company's documentation and be available in case of inspection,c) does not matter where it is located, the most important thing is that the owner of the machine has it in case of resale of the machine.239. Identification data of the machine/technical device:
a) are located on the nameplate of the machine/technical device, additionally they may be in the marking places described in the manual,
b) should be noted on the inner side of the protective helmet assigned to the given machine/technical device,c) due to their importance are always printed in red.240. To minimize the risk of machine/technical device failure the operator should:
a) perform maintenance activities only when the machine/technical device stops working,b) use the machine/technical device until the failure becomes serious,
c) regularly visually assess the condition of the machine/technical device and report any noticed irregularities.
241. Key activities for the safe technical operation of a machine are:
a) using latex gloves, without the need for other personal protective equipment,
b) securing accessories, covers, and doors against accidental closure and using personal protective equipment,
c) performing technical service without securing working accessories to save time.242. The principles of safe technical service operations with machines are:
a) the machine should be positioned on level ground, working accessories lowered to the ground, engine turned off, and the key removed from the ignition,
b) the machine can be left on a sloped area, as long as the operator plans a short technical service,c) the engine can remain on to perform service faster, especially if the machine is running idle.243. Breaking in a machine during the initial period of operation is:
a) an intensive full load test of the machine,b) a stage of the machine's operation without load,
c) a process of achieving optimal clearances and even wear of parts.
244. During the break-in of the machine, the operator should pay attention to:
a) always turning off the lubrication systems before work,
b) limiting the machine's load to the maximum level specified in the operation and maintenance manual,
c) working at maximum load.245. The operator uses the operation and maintenance manual of the machine or technical device to:
a) learn the technical specifications, safety rules, and methods for repairing faults,
b) record all faults of the machine or device noticed during operation,c) log the hours worked and fuel consumption by the machine.246. The service part of the operating and maintenance instructions for a machine or technical device includes:
a) instructions regarding, among others, the operation of the machine/device,
b) a catalog of spare parts,c) a detailed description of the construction and operation of all elements of the machine/device.247. The operating and maintenance instructions must always be present with the machine/device because:
a) it is essential for periodic technical inspections,b) it minimizes the risk of losing it,
c) its absence may be a reason for the inspector to disallow the machine to operate.
248. The SAE designation on oil refers to:
a) engine oil pressure,
b) engine oil viscosity, that is, its ability to flow and lubricate,
c) multi-season qualification of the oil.249. Oil with the symbol SAE 15W-40 means that:
a) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 15W,
b) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 15W, and at positive temperatures of summer oil class SAE 40,
c) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40.250. Oil with the symbol SAE 10W-30 means that:
a) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 30,
b) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W, and at positive temperatures of summer oil class SAE 30,
c) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 10W.251. The SAE 10W-30 symbol means:
a) multi-season engine oil with specified parameters,
b) a mixture of engine oil and hydraulic oil,c) hydraulic oil with specified parameters.252. Engine oil with the SAE 5W-40 symbol means that:
a) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil class SAE 40,
b) at negative temperatures it has the viscosity properties of winter oil SAE 5W, and at positive temperatures of summer oil class SAE 40,
c) at positive temperatures it has the viscosity properties of summer oil SAE 5W.
253. The symbol of the warning light shown in the graphic means:
a) low coolant level,
b) low engine oil level,
c) low engine oil pressure.
254. The symbol of the warning light shown in the graphic means:
a) low fuel level,
b) low engine oil pressure,
c) low coolant level.
255. The symbol shown means:
a) engine oil filter,
b) engine oil,
c) hydraulic oil.
256. The presented symbol of the indicator means:
a) engine oil level,
b) engine coolant level,c) hydraulic oil level.257. Oils with designations 70W, 85W, 80W-90 are:
a) gear oils,
b) brake oils,c) engine oils.258. In case of the need to dismantle the cover/protection for maintenance, it is not allowed to:
a) reassemble the cover/protection,
b) start working with the device without the cover/protection installed,
c) record such a fact in the documentation.259. The lighting of the battery charging indicator signals to the operator of the construction machine a failure of:
a) the V-belt and/or alternator,
b) the battery switch,c) the starter.260. The operator's seat cannot be adjusted when:
a) the seat is turned backwards,
b) the machine is in motion,
c) the engine is not started.261. If during daily technical service before work the operator notices that one of the windows in the cabin is cracked, then:
a) may start work provided that the glass is only cracked and has not "fallen out",
b) should not start work,
c) may start work if it is not the front glass.262. Before starting work, the operator should:
a) clean the windows by removing snow, ice, and other contaminants,
b) open the windows for better communication,c) install sunshade covers on the windows.263. When changing hydraulic oils, one should:
a) always use only biodegradable oils,
b) use only types of oils recommended by the machine manufacturer,
c) use any type of oil.264. To ensure the technical efficiency of the working machine, one should:
a) operate the machine/technical device without exceeding 50% of the permissible load,
b) adhere to technical service and maintenance according to the operating and maintenance instructions,
c) operate the machine/technical device only under full load.265. At the construction site, empty containers of lubricants, oil filters, and used oils should be:
a) thrown into any waste container,
b) placed in a properly marked hazardous waste container,
c) thrown into a mixed waste container.266. Stickers (pictograms) located on the machine/technical device serve to:
a) inform about the prohibition of approaching the machine/technical device,
b) convey important information about safety and the use of the machine/technical device,
c) indicate places where one can stay without any risk.267. Lubrication points in the machine should be serviced:
a) always after 10 hours of operation,b) during all breaks in work,
c) according to the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine.
268. Engine oil with parameters 5W-50 is:
a) oil only for winter,b) oil only for summer,
c) all-season oil.
269. Before starting work on a new type of machine/technical device, the operator should:
a) familiarize themselves with the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine/technical device,
b) perform a trial work,c) conduct a periodic inspection.270. OTC service is:
a) round-the-clock technical service,b) temporary technical service,
c) daily technical service.
271. Basic types of service are:
a) visual service, active, passive,b) round-the-clock service, multi-seasonal, annual, technological,
c) daily service, periodic, warehouse, transport.
272. Batteries, when starting the machine using a supporting battery, should be connected:
a) in series,
b) in parallel,
c) crosswise.273. In the event of electrolyte loss caused by spillage through a cracked battery case, one should:
a) add demineralized water to a level 10 mm above the upper edges of the plates,
b) secure the leak area in terms of environmental protection, and then replace the battery,
c) add electrolyte to the proper level and charge the battery.274. The activities performed by the operator as part of daily service during work are:
a) replenishing operating fluids and daily lubrication,b) cleaning the machine,
c) auditory control of the machine's operation and monitoring indicators.
275. When inflating the tire of the machine's wheel, one should:
a) not stand directly next to the inflated wheel,
b) stand next to the inflated wheel provided that a safety helmet is used,c) check the condition of the inflated wheel by bending the side part of the tire.276. If the manufacturer has provided for operational reaching, it should be implemented:
a) with maximum load,b) without load,
c) with the recommended load in the operating and maintenance instructions of the machine/technical device.
277. During the storage of the machine on a wheeled chassis, the machine's wheels should be:
a) secured with wedges,b) removed from the machine,
c) unloaded.
278. Driving the machine on public roads should be done in the position:
a) working,b) transfer,
c) transport.
279. During the loading of the machine onto the transport vehicle, the operator should:
a) know the maximum speed allowed for the given transport vehicle,
b) know the permissible angle of inclination of the loading ramps for the given machine,
c) perform the approach at a speed of at least 5 [km/h].280. The responsibility for the placement and securing of the machine on the transport vehicle lies with:
a) the owner or the person responsible for the machines in the company,
b) the carrier (e.g., driver),
c) the machine operator.281. When storing machines, one must ensure that:
a) there are no leaks of operating fluids,
b) the machine is facing the exit,c) no documents of the machine are left in the cabin.282. Securing the machine during storage downtime involves:
a) cleaning the machine of dirt and corrosion,
b) disassembling all filters and protecting them from moisture,c) filling the hydraulic oil tank to the top.283. The rods of hydraulic cylinders, during technical service of the stored machine, should be:
a) protected against corrosion,
b) disassembled and their seals replaced,c) disassembled and cleaned.284. When loading the machine onto the means of transport:
a) the operator should drive onto the means of transport independently,
b) assistance from a second person is recommended,
c) assistance from a second person is recommended only when loading onto a low-loader trailer.285. The recommended method for loading heavy working machines onto low-loader trailers is:
a) mechanized loading from the front ramp,
b) loading using other machines,c) loading on ropes.286. During longer storage of the machine, the fuel tank should be:
a) filled to the top to prevent condensation of water vapor inside the tank,
b) empty to avoid fire hazards,c) filled to 1/3 of its capacity and left open.287. During daily operation of the machine, the condition of should be checked:
a) tools and equipment,
b) connections and tightness of the hydraulic system,
c) the working pressure value in the hydraulic system.288. If the machine's engine has not been running for a long time during daily operation, you should:
a) start the engine and gently increase the RPM to reach the operating temperature faster,
b) check the oil level and other operating fluids,
c) replace the fuel pre-filter.289. When inflating tires on a working machine, the operator should:
a) stand beside the tire tread or on the other side of the machine,
b) ensure that bystanders are nearby,c) stand directly in front of the tire to monitor the pressure.290. Information regarding faults, their codes, and methods of removal can be found in a document called:
a) operating and maintenance manual,
b) daily report,c) construction machine book.291. The correct order of connecting the auxiliary battery to the discharged battery in the machine is as follows:
a) negative terminal of the battery in the machine, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, machine frame,b) machine frame, positive terminal of the battery in the machine, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery,
c) positive terminal of the battery in the machine, positive terminal of the auxiliary battery, negative terminal of the auxiliary battery, machine frame.
292. In case of electrolyte loss in the battery, one should:
a) refill it with distilled or demineralized water,
b) refill it with DOT-3 fluid,c) refill it with water other than distilled.293. Checking the charge state of the 12 [V] starter battery by "sparking" poses a risk of:
a) explosion of hydrogen escaping from the battery,
b) seizure of the alternator,c) electric shock from high voltage.294. Before storing the wheels in the wheeled machine, one should:
a) relieve the load to prevent tire deformation,
b) inflate to maximum pressure to prevent tire deformation,c) loosen to reduce the static load on the mounting screws.295. The scope of daily technical service of the machine does not include:
a) checking the condition of the tires and tire pressure,
b) inspection and adjustment of valve clearances,
c) checking the oil level in the engine.296. When cleaning the radiator, to avoid damaging it, you should:
a) use sharp tools for cleaning,b) use a strong jet of water under high pressure,
c) keep the compressed air nozzle at an appropriate distance from the radiator.
297. The purpose of lubrication in working machines is:
a) to reduce friction,
b) to increase the engine's rotational speed,c) to raise the temperature of cooperating elements.298. The most commonly used type of fuses in electrical installations of working machines is:
a) automatic fuses,
b) cartridge fuses,
c) residual current devices.299. The phenomenon of electrostatic discharge during refueling a machine can lead to:
a) fire,
b) poisoning,c) short circuit of the electrical installation.300. In the case of parallel connection of two batteries with different rated voltages:
a) the battery with the lower rated voltage may explode,
b) thicker cables should be used than with batteries of the same rated voltages,c) both batteries may discharge.301. When checking the pressure in a tire, the machine should be:
a) unloaded, and the tire should be cold,
b) loaded to make the measurement more accurate,c) running and warmed up.302. The correct way to connect the battery to the charger during charging is:
a) the positive terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger, the negative terminal of the charger to the "ground" of the machine,b) the positive terminal of the battery to the negative terminal of the charger, the negative terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger,
c) the positive terminal of the battery to the positive terminal of the charger, the negative terminal of the battery to the negative terminal of the charger.
303. After connecting the battery, the terminals are lubricated with:
a) technical grease,
b) graphite grease,c) grease containing molybdenum disulfide.304. To safely inflate a tire, one should:
a) stand in front of the tire valve while inflating,
b) stand beside the tire tread and use a long pneumatic hose,
c) use a short pneumatic hose with a pressure gauge.305. One of the goals of warehouse management is:
a) preparing the machine for transport for the future user,
b) protecting the machine from corrosion and other harmful factors during long-term storage,
c) repairing damaged parts of the machine before the next season.306. If during daily technical service the operator notices a leak in the cooling system, he should:
a) top up the coolant and continue working,b) organize the fluid and top up to the minimum level if the leak is small,
c) report the leak and not use the machine until it is repaired.
307. The level of coolant in the expansion tank should be checked:
a) only during periodic technical service,
b) during every daily technical service,
c) only in case of engine overheating.308. If the operator notices a hydraulic fluid leak during daily technical service, he should:
a) report the leak and not use the machine until it is repaired,
b) top up the oil and continue working,c) reduce the RPM and continue working.309. The frequency of performing periodic technical service depends on:
a) the production date of the machine,b) the number of completed working cycles,
c) the number of hours worked (engine hours).
310. If during daily technical service the operator notices a low level of engine oil, he should:
a) start working if the level is not very low and the warning light is not on,b) top up the level with any available oil, even if it is of a different type,
c) top up the oil to the appropriate level.
311. The characteristic activity for seasonal technical service is:
a) checking the charging voltage value,
b) replacing the coolant with one suitable for the season,
c) checking the working pressure value of the hydraulic system.312. The basic service activities that must be performed before starting a diesel engine are:
a) bleeding the fuel system, checking the level of transmission oil, checking the starter,
b) checking the oil level in the engine, checking the coolant level, checking the condition of the air filter,
c) checking the oil level in the gearbox, checking the operation of the working system, checking the operation of the brakes.313. Activities performed as part of daily technical service (OTC) carried out during the operation of the machine are:
a) observing control and measuring instruments and checking the proper operation of the machine using sight, hearing, and smell,
b) observing only control and measuring indicators such as: oil pressure, engine temperature, hydraulic oil temperature,c) primarily conducting a sensory check of the proper operation of the machine's working system.314. We distinguish, among others, the following types of technical services:
a) transport, run-in, daily, periodic, seasonal, storage,
b) transport, run-in, storage, service-repair (ON), catalog,c) run-in, daily, periodic, seasonal, storage, emergency, night.315. We perform technical services for the purpose of:
a) maintaining the value of the machine or technical device at a constant, unchanged level,b) ensuring quiet operation of the machine or technical device,